AP exam prep Flashcards
1
Q
What must your erosion control plan adhere to?
A
2003 EPA Construction General Permit (or local standards, whichever is more stringent)
2
Q
What is a phase I Environmental Site Assessment?
A
A report prepared for a real estate holding that identifies potential or existing environmental contamination liabilities.
3
Q
How is a Phase II Environmental Site Assessment more in depth?
A
A further investigation that collects original samples of soil, groundwater, or building materials to analyze for quantitative.
4
Q
What are types of sensitive sites to avoid building on?
A
- Prime farmland
- Flood plain
- Endangered species habitat
- Land w/in 15m of wetlands
- Land w/in 30 of water bodies
5
Q
Who defines Prime Farmland?
A
The U.S. Department of Agriculture
6
Q
What is the building requirements for projects in places without legally adopted flood hazard map?
A
Cannot build on a floodplain subject to a 1% or greater chance of flooding in any given year.
7
Q
Define Development Footprint
A
The total land area of a project site covered by buildings, streets, parking areas, and other typically impermeable surfaces constructed as part of the project
8
Q
What are the requirements for surrounding density?
A
Locate on a site whose surrounding existing density w/in 400 m radius of the project boundary meets either the “separate residential and nonresidential densities” or “combined density values”
9
Q
What are the minimum surrounding density requirements?
A
- 0.5 Non residential density (FAR)
- 7 Residential density (DU/acre)
OR - 22 000 SF/acre of buildable land combined density
10
Q
What are the requirements for diverse uses?
A
Construct of renovate a building or a space w/in a bldg s.t. that bldg’s main entrance is w/in 800 m walking distance of the main entrance of 4 to 7 (1pt) or 8+ (2 points) existing and publicly available diverse uses.
11
Q
What are the five use categories for diverse uses?
A
- Food retail
- Community-serving retail
- Services
- Civi and community facilities
- Community anchor uses (BD+C and ID+C only)
12
Q
What are the distances for Access to Quality Transit?
A
400 m walking distance of existing or planned bus, streetcar, or rideshare stops, or w/in 800 m walking distance of existing or planned bus rapid transit stops, light or heavy rail stations, commuter rail stations or ferry terminals.
13
Q
Where is Access to Quality Transit measured from?
A
A functional entry - a bldg opening designed to be used by pedestrians and open during regular business hours. It does not include any door exclusively designated as an emergency exit, or a garage door not designed as a pedestrian entrance.
14
Q
How many bike racks are required for a commercial building?
A
- Short-term storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 spaces per bldg)
- long-term storage for 5% of all regular bldg occupants (no fewer than 4 per bldg)
15
Q
How many bike racks are required for residential project?
A
- Short-term storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 per bldg)
- Long-term storage for 30% of all regular bldg occupants.
16
Q
How many shower and changing facilities are required for a commercial project?
A
At least one for the first 100 FTE and one additional for every 150 regular bldg occupants thereafter.
17
Q
How do you calculate an FTE?
A
An 8-hour occupant has an FTE value of 1.0 ; a part-time occupant has a FTE value based on work hours per day divided by 8.
18
Q
How many preferred parking spaces are required for Green Vehicles?
A
Provide preferred parking for green vehicles for 5% of the total vehicle parking capacity of the site.
19
Q
How many EVSE stations must be installed for Green Vehicles?
A
2% of all parking spaces (preferred parking spaces may not be counted)
20
Q
How is preferred parking defined?
A
The parking spots closest to the main entrance of a bldg (exclusive of spaces designated for handicapped persons). For employee parking, it refers to the spots that are closest to the entrance used by employees.
21
Q
For previously developed or graded sites, how much habitats needs to be restored?
A
30% (including the bldg footprint) of all portions of the site
22
Q
What is an example of a monoculture planting, which would not help with restoring/protecting habitat?
A
Turf grass
23
Q
What areas can be excluded from the vegetation and soil requirements to restore/protect habitat?
A
Vegetated landscape areas that are constructed to accommodate rainwater infiltration
24
Q
For school project what areas can be excluded from soil restoration criteria to restore/protect habitat?/
A
Athletic fields
25
What amount of financial support can be provided to restore/protect habitat?
$ 0.40 / SF
| $ 4 / m2
26
What are the distance limitations when providing financial support to protect/restore habitat?
Financial support must be provided to a nationally or locally recognized land trust or conservation organization w/in the same EPA Level III ecoregion or the project's state (or w/in 160 km of the project for projects outside the U.S.) For U.S. projects, the land trust must be accredited by the Land Trust Alliance
27
What should be included in a sustainable landscape plan?
List of all plant species, noting whether or not they are native/adapted ; info about invasive species and pests those plants may harbor ; best maintenance practices for the chosen plants, and site maps showing boundaries for the protected habitat areas.
28
What are the IESNA lighting zones?
LZ0 - Wilderness
LZ1 - Dark : Parks, rural areas
LZ2 - Low : residential, light industrial
LZ3 - Medium : commercial, industrial, high density residential
LZ4 - High : metro areas
29
When organization/agency is providing space for shared use to students, what should be included?
Auditorium, Gym, Cafeteria, One or more classrooms, Swimming Pool, or Playing Field
30
What slope is important for heat island effect - roof?
2: 12 slope ; > means steeped slope and requires an initial SRI of 39 or greater ;
2: 12 < means low slope and requires an SRI of 82 or greater
31
What causes skyglow?
Stray light from unshielded light sources and light reflecting off surfaces that then enter the atmosphere and illuminate and reflect off dust, debris and water vapor.
32
For Schools to achieve Site Master Plan, how many other credits must be met?
at least 4 of 6 of the following :
- LT Credit High Priority Site
- SS Credit Site Development - Protect of Restore Habitat
- SS Credit Open Space
- SS Credit Rainwater Mgmt
- SS Credit Heat Island Reduction
- SS Credit Light Pollution Reduction
33
What is the default gender ratio for indoor water use reduction calculations?
50/50
34
What fixtures and fittings must be included in the indoor water use reduction calculations?
Water closets, urinals, lavatory faucets, and pre-rinse spray valves
35
What is the discount parking rate for Green Vehicles?
20% discount
36
When can wetlands count as open space?
Wetlands or naturally designed ponds may count as open space and the side slope gradients average 1:4 (vertical:horizontal) or less and are vegetated.
37
What are the benefits of commissioning? (6)
```
Reduced Energy Use,
Lower Operating Costs
Reduced Contractor Callbacks,
Better Bldg Documentation,
Improved Occupant Productivity,
and Verification that Systems perform with OPR's
```
38
What documents get created during fundamental commissioning and verification? (3)
Cx report
Current facility requirements
Operations and maintenance plan
39
What energy-related systems must be commissioned? (3)
- Mechanical, including HVAC&R equipment and controls
- Electrical lighting and daylighting controls
- Plumbing, including domestic hot water systems
40
What do the Owner's Project Requirements typically include?
```
Owner and User Requirements,
Environmental and Sustainability Goals,
Energy Efficiency Goals,
Indoor Environmental Quality Requirements,
Equipment and System Expectations,
Building Occupant and
O&M Personel Requirements
```
41
What should the Basis of Design include?
- Primary Design Assumptions
- Standards
- Narrative Descriptions
42
Process energy is considered to include, but is not limited to what?
Miscellaneous Equipment,
Computers, Elevators, Escalators, kitchen cooking& refrigeration equip., laundry washing & drying, lighting exempt from power allowance (e.g. medical equip.) and other (e.g. waterfall or fountain pumps)
43
Regulated or (non-process) Energy includes?
Lighting (interior, parking garage, surface parking, façade, or building grounds) HVAC, service water heating for domestic of space heating purposes.
44
What generates both electrical power and thermal energy from a single fuel source?
Combined Heat and Power (CHP) or Cogeneration
45
What device is used to regulate humidity and temperature, making bldg systems more energy efficient?
An economizer
46
What refrigerant mgmt procedure governs reducing annual leakage of CFC-based refrigerants to 5% or less?
EPA Clean Air Act, Title VI, Rule 608
47
What are the 3 compliance path options described in Optimize Energy Performance (EA Credit 1)?
Opt. 1 : Whole Bldg Energy Simulation,
Opt. 2 : Prescriptive Compliance Path : ASHREAE 50% Advanced Energy Design Guide,
Opt. 3 : Prescriptive Compliance Path : Advanced Bldgs Core Performance Guide
48
What are the 6 components of ASHRAE 90.1?
```
Building envelope
HVAC
Service Water Heating
Power
Lighting
Other Equipment
```
49
What four fundamental strategies can increase energy performance?
Orientation
Site Energy Sources
Efficient Envelopment
Energy Recovery Systems
50
What are the thresholds for renewable energy production credit?
LEED BD+C (except C&S) : 1, 5, 10%
| LEED BD + C C&S : 1, 3, 5%
51
What are the eligible types of systems for Renewable Energy Production?
```
Photovoltaic systems,
Wind energy systems,
Solar thermal systems,
Biofuel-based electrical systems,
Geothermal heating or electric systems,
Low-impact hydro,
Wave & tidal power systems
```
52
What biofuel systems are NOT eligible for Renewable Energy Production?
Combustion of municipal solid waste,
Forestry biomass waste other than mill residue,
Coated wood,
Treated wood
53
What are the 2 Options for Enhanced Refrigerant Mgmt?
Opt. 1 : No refrigerations or low-impact refrigerants
| Opt. 2 : Calculation of refrigeration impact
54
What types of equipment are NOT subject to the Fundamental refrigerant Mgmt requirements?
Small HVAC units (lass than 225g of refrigerant), standard refrigerators, small water coolers.
55
What is the duration and % a project must engage in to earn points under Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
5-year contract AND 50% provision of the project's energy from green power, carbon offsets, or renewable energy certificates
56
What are the 2 options to determine electricity use for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
Opt. 1 : Use the calculated energy consumption results from EA Prereq Minimum Energy Performance
Opt. 2 : Estimate electricity use using CBECS database
57
RECs can be used to mitigate what type(s) of emissions for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
Scope 2, electricity use
58
Carbon offsets can be used to mitigate what type(s) of emissions for Green Power and Catbon Offsets?
Scope 1 or
| Scope 2 emissions
59
What are the 3 basic methods for ventilating buildings?
```
Mechanical ventilation (active)
Natural Ventilation (passive)
Mixed-mode ventilation (both)
```
60
What is the distance ALL naturally ventilated spaces must be in proximity to an operable wall or roof opening to the outdoors?
25 feet
61
What is the typical permitted distance for Environmental Tobacco Smoke (ETS) control (IEQ Prerequisite 2)?
25 feet
62
What is the maximum background noise level allowed for HVAC equipment in classrooms required for Minimum Acoustical Performance (IEQ Prerequisite 3)
45 dBA
63
What acoustic issues need to considered for Acoustic Performance?
HVAC background noise
Sound transmission
Reverberation time
Sound reinforcement and masking systems
64
At what % must an outdoor air delivery monitoring system generate an alarm for insufficient airflow values or carbon dioxide?
10% variation from design values
65
What is considered a densely occupied space when monitoring CO2 concentrations for mechanically ventilated spaces?
25 ppl or more per 1000 SF
66
For increased ventilation what % must mechanically ventilated spaces increase outdoor air ventilation rates required by ASHRAE 62.1?
30% above rates required by ASHRAE 62.1
67
What filtration media is required for Enhanced IAQ strategies?
MERV 13 or F7 (CEN Standard EN 779-2002)
68
How does a project confirm natural ventilation is an effective strategy?
Follow the CIBSE flow diagram?
69
What is required for Construction IAQ Mgmt Plan?
- Meet or exceed SMACNA guidelines
- Protect absorptive materials stored on-site
- Use MERV 8 (F5) filters on operating air-handlers
- Prohibit smoking in the bldg and w/in 7.5 m of entrances
70
What are the 5 areas SMACNA standards for recommended IAQ Control Measures?
```
HVAC protection
Source control
Pathway interruption
Housekeeping
Scheduling
```
71
What are the 2 options for Indoor Air quality Assessment?
Opt. 1 : Flush out,
| Opt. 2 : Air testing
72
What are the 2 bldg flush-out paths a project can consider for IAQ Assessment?
14 000 ft3 of outdoor air per SF of floor area
60°F & 60% R.H.
OR
3500 ft3 of outdoor air per SF of floor area @ min. rate of .30 cfm until reaching 14 000 ft3 per SF
73
At what height must air samples be collected at for IAQ Assessment?
3'-6' above floor to represent the breathing zone (900-1800 mm)
74
What are the general emissions evaluation standards associated with low-emitting adhesives and sealants?
California Department of Publich Health (CDPH) Standard Method v1.1-2010 and German AgBB Testing and Evaluation Scheme (2010)
75
How long must permanent entryway systems be in the primary direction of travel for Enhanced IAQ Strategies?
10' (3 meters) in the primary direction of travel at regularly used exterior entrances.
76
What MERV rating must mechanically ventilated buildings design HVAC systems to filter supply air prior to occupancy?
MERV 13 (F7) or higher
77
What types of rooms would require negative air pressure, self-closing doors, and deck-to-deck partitions, or hard-lid ceilings for interior cross-contamination prevention?
Garages
Housekeeping and laundry areas
Copying and printing rooms
78
What % of the bldg occupants must have individual lighting controls for Interior Lighting?
At least 90% of individual occupant spaces and 100% of shared multi-occupant spaces.
79
How many modes must lighting systems be able to operate in?
3 : On, Off and mid-level
80
What % of the bldg occupants ust have individual comfort controls for Thermal Comfort?
At least 50% of individual occupant spaces and 100% for all shared multi-occupant spaces.
81
What standards must be followed for thermal comfort design?
Opt. 1. ASHRAE Standard 55-10
| Opt. 2. IOS and CEN Standards
82
What are the 6 primary comfort factors associated with ASHRAE 55?
```
Metabolic rate
Clothing insulation
Air temperature
Radiant temperature
Air
Speed
Humidity
```
83
What are the 3 options to achieve IEQ Credit Daylight?
Opt. 1 -- Simulation : Spatial daylight autonomy and annual sunlight exposure
Opt. 2 -- Simulation : luminance calculations
Opt. 3 -- Measurement
84
What % of regularly occupied floor area must achieve daylight illumination for IEQ Credit Daylight?
75% = 1 point
85
What are the four kinds of views?
- Multiple lines of sight to vision glazing in different direction at least 90° apart
- Views that include at least 2 of the following : 1. flora, fauna or sky ;2. movement 3. objects at least 7.5 meters from the exterior of the glazing.
- Unobstructed views located w/in the distance of 3 times the head height of the vision glazing.
- Views w/ a view factor of 3 or greater
86
What % of regularly occupied floor area must have direct line of sight to the outdoors via vision glazing for IEQ Credit Views?
75% = 1 point
87
Views into the interior atria may be used to meet what percent of the required area for Quality Views?
30%
88
What dBA must background noise from HVAC equipment be reduced to for Minimum Acoustic Performance?
40 dBA
89
What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for achieving Exemplary Performance?
2 points
90
What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for IN Credit Innovation for the innovation option?
4 points
91
What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Pilot Credits?
4 points
92
What is required for LEED Accredited Professional credit?
One LEED AP w/ a specialty appropriate for the project.
93
What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Regional Priority credits?
4 points
94
At a minimum, projects must provide dedicated area for collection and storage of what 5 materials?
```
Paper
Corrugated Cardboard
Glass
Plastics
Metals
```
95
What do calculations need to be done by for Construction and Demolition Waste Mgmt
Weight or Volume
96
What are the minimum % thresholds for debris to be recycled or salvaged for Construction and Demolition Waste Mgmt?
```
50% = 1 point
75% = 2 points
```
97
What is required for a project team to establish for Construction and Demolition Waste Mgmt Planning?
Waste diversion goals
98
Who is NOT required to have a Chain of Custody documentation for FSC-certified wood?
End user
99
What international alternative compliance path is available for material ingredient optimization?
REACH Optimization
100
For innovation credit when pursuing Opt. 1 Innovation what must the team identify?
Intent of proposed innovation credit, proposed requirement(s) for compliance, proposed submittals, and strategies used to meet requirement(s)
101
What is a BAS?
Building Automation System (BAS) it uses computer-based monitoring to coordinate, organize and optimize building control subsystems, including lighting, equipment scheduling, and alarm reporting.
102
What is WaterSense?
WaterSens is a partnership program sponsored by EPA, helping consumers identify water-efficient products and programs.
103
At what heights should CO2 sensors be placed at for breathing zone requirements?
3'-6' above the floor
104
When can certification be revoked?
Certification may be revoked from any LEED project upon gaining knowledge of non-compliance w/ any applicable MPR. Is such a circumstance occurs, registration and/or certification fees will not be refunded.
105
What is Technical Release (TR) 55?
An approach to hydrology in which watersheds are modeled to calculated storm runoff volume, peak rate of discharge, hydrographs, and storage volumes, developed by the former USDA Soil Conservation Service.
106
What energy-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?
```
Site Conditions
Massing and orientation
Basic envelope attributes
Lighting levels
Thermal comfort ranges
Plug and process load needs
```
107
What water-related building aspects mus be considered for Integrative Process?
Interior water demand
Outdoor water demand
Process water demand
Supply sources
108
How many potential strategies must be assessed for each energy-related building aspect for Integrative Design?
At least 2 strategies must be assessed for each of the six aspects.
109
What tool is used to benchmark building performance for Integrative Design?
EPA's Target Finder
110
What LEED ND certification designations are eligible for LEED ND Location credit?
- LEED NP Pilot, Stage 2 LEED ND Certified Plan
- LEED NP Pilot, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Project
- LEED 2009, Stage 2 Pre-certified LEED ND Plan
- LEED 2009, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Neighborhood Development
- LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Plan
- LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Built Project
111
What percent of a building must be maintained for historic building reuse?
There is no minimum requirement. The historic designation must be maintained however.
112
When renovating an abandoned or blighted building what percent of the building must be maintained?
At least 50% by surface area of the existing structure, enclosure, and interior structural elements.
113
What is the minimum percent reuse required for building and material reuse?
At least 25% from off site or on site as a percentage of the surface area.
114
What are the six impact categories of a life-cycle assessment?
- GWP
- Depletion of stratospheric ozone layer
- Acidification of land and water sources
- Eutrophication
- Formation of tropospheric ozone
- Depletion of nonrenewable energy resources
115
When conducting a whole-bldg life-cycle assessment what are the min/max reductions of the impact categories?
A minimum fo 10% in at least 3 impact categories (of which one must be GHG emissions) and do not exceed any impact category by more than 5% compared to a baseline building.
116
For a whole-bldg life-cycle assessment what is the service life of the baseline bldg?
60 years
117
What is the location valuation factor for the optimization and disclosure credits?
Products and materials that are extracted, manufactured, and purchased w/in 160 km of the project value are valued at 200% of their cost.
118
What is the minimum number of products required for the disclosure option of the MR credits?
At least 20 different permanently installed products sourced from at least 5 different manufacturers.
119
What factor is used to determine the optimization of the MR credits?
Use products that comply w/ the criteria of each credit based on the cost of the products, compared to the total value of permanently installed products.
120
What are the three types of EPDs and what is the product value of each type?
Product-specific declaration : 1/4 of a product
Industry-wide (generic) EPD : 1/2 of a product
Product-specific Type III EPD : 1 product
121
How many qualifying products must be sources for exemplary performance for product disclosure?
At least 40 qualifying products
122
A cradle-to-gate assessment is required for what material disclosure?
Each of the 3 types of EPDs require at least a cradle-to-gate scope
123
Structure and enclosure materials may not constitute more than what percent of compliant building products for material disclosure and optimization?
30%
124
All EPDs must be consistent with what standards?
ISO standards 14025, 14040, 14044 and EN 15804 or ISO 21930
125
What are the acceptable corporate sustainability reporting (CSR) frameworks?
- Global Reporting initiative (GRI) sustainability report
- organization for economic cooperation and development (OECD) guidelines for multinational enterprises
- U.N. Global compact : communication of progress
- ISO 26 000 : 2010 guidance on social responsibility
126
What are the types of responsible extraction criteria for sourcing of raw materials?
- extended producer responsibility
- bio-based materials
- wood products
- materials reuse
- recycled content.
127
What standards are acceptable for material ingredient optimization?
GreenScreen v1.2 Benchmark Cradle to Cradle Certified REACH Optimization (International Alternative Compliance Path)
128
What cradle-to-cradle certified products count towards material ingredient optimization?
- Cradle to Cradle v2 Gold : 100% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v2 Platinum : 150% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v3 Silver : 100% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v3 Gold or Platinum : 150% of cost
129
What information must be inventoried for a site assessment?
- Topography
- Hydrology
- Climate
- Vegetation
- Soils
- Human use
- Human health effects
130
what should be used to estimate the water shortage capacity of a site during a site assessment?
Urban Hydrology for Small Watersheds Technical Release 55 (TR-55) or local equivalent for projects outside the U.S.
131
What is a three-year aged SR (or SRI)?
A solar reflectance or solar reflectance index rating that is measured after 3 years of weather exposure.
132
What should be used to designate a site as prime farmland and identify its soil classification?
Natural Resources Conservation Service (or local equivalent)
133
What reduction is required for demand response?
At least 10% of the estimated peak electricity demand.
134
What types of demand response programs are acceptable?
Semi-automated and automated (not manual)
135
What is load shedding?
An intentional action by a utility to reduce the load on the system. Load shedding is usually conducted during emergency periods, such as capacity shortages, system instability, or voltage control.
136
What is the contract period for demand response?
A minimum of one year w/ the intention of multiyear renewal.
137
What are the 3 options for high priority sites?
Opt. 1 : Historic districte
Opt. 2 : Priority designation
Opt. 3 : Brownfield remediation.
138
What type of location must a historic district project be located in for High-Priority Site?
On an infill location.
139
What are the priority designations for High-Priority Site?
- Site liste by the EPA National Priorities
- Fed. Empowerment Zone site
- Fed. Enterprise Community site
- Fed. Renewal Community site
- Dep. of the Treasury Community Development Financial Institutions Fund Qualified Low-Income Community
- Site in a U.S. Dep. of Housing and Urban Development's Qualified Census Tract or Difficult Development Area.
- Local equivalent program administered at the national level for project outside the U.S.
140
What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects w/ multiple transit types (bus, streetcar, rail, or ferry)?
72 weekday
| 40 weekend
141
What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects w/ commuter rail or ferry service only?
24 weekday
| 6 weekend
142
When can planned stops and stations count towards Access to Quality Transit?
When they are sited, funded and under construction by the date of the certificate of occupancy and are complete w/in 24 months of that date.
143
What must a bicycle network connect to?
At least one of the following :
- at least 10 diverse uses
- a school or employment venter, if the project total floor area is 50% or more residential
- a bus rapid transit stop, light or heavy rail station, commuter rail station, or ferry terminal.
144
How close does a functional entry or bicycle storage need to be to a bicycle network?
W/in 180 m walking or bicycling distance.
145
What is the max distance on a bicycle network destinations (diverse use, school/employment center, quality transit) must be?
w/in 4800 m bicycle distance of the project (3 miles)
146
Where must short-term bicycle storage be located?
W/in 30 meters walking distance of any main entrance.
147
Where must long-term bicycle storage be located?
W/in 30 meters walking distance of any functional entry.
148
What is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
1. Do not exceed minimum local code requirements.
| 2. A percent reduction from a baseline (20% or 40% depending on what other credits are achieved)
149
When is a 40% reduction from the base ratios of the ITE Transportation Planning Handbook required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
When a project earns EITHER LT Credit Surrounding Density and Diverse Uses or LT Credit Access to Quality Transit
150
How much preferred parking is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
5% of the total parking spaces AFTER reductions are made from the base ratios.
151
What percent of Open Space must be vegetated?
25% minimum
152
How much outdoor space must be provided for Open Space?
30% of the total site area (including the building footprint) or greater.
153
What must outdoor space be to qualify for Open Space?
Physically accessible
154
What types of outdoor spaces qualify for Open Space?
- paving or turf that accommodates outdoor social activities
- paving of turf that encourages physical activity
- year-round garden space
- community gardens
- preserved or created habitat
155
When can a vegetated roof count toward vegetation for Open Space?
When a projet has a density of 1.5 FAR
156
How much rainfall must be managed for a project w/ a zero-lot-line w/ a minimum density of 1.5 FAR?
85th Percentile
157
What are some ways to capture rainwater to prevent runoff?
LID and green infrastructure
158
For a project w/ open space what minimum rainfall must be managed?
95th percentile
159
When managing rainwater using natural land cover conditions what must be done?
Manage on site the annual increase in runoff volume from the natural land cover condition to the post-developed condition.
160
When managing a percentile of rainfall events what minimum amount of historical rainfall data is required?
10 years worth
161
What percent of runoff must be managed for the 95th percentile rainfall event?
100%
162
What minimum percent of parking spaces must be placed under cover for Heat Island Reduction Option 2. Parking Under Cover?
75%
163
Shade and architectural devices used for Heat Island Reduction must have at least what 3-years aged solar reflectance?
0.28 If the 3-year aged value information is not available, use materials w/ an initial SR of at least 0.33
164
How is the total vehicle parking spaces calculated for Heat Island Reduction?
The number of parking spaces in the LEED project boundary (includes motorcycle parking). Do not count bicycle parking spaces.
165
Any roof used to shade covered parking for Heat Island Reduction must meet what requirements?
1. 3-year aged SRI of at least 32.
2. Or a vegetated roof
3. Or covered by energy generation systems.
166
What are the light pollution reduction requirements for internally illuminated exterior signs?
Do not exceed a luminance of 200 cd/m2 during nighttime and 2000 cd/m2 during daytime hours.
167
What exterior lighting is exempted from uplight and light tresspass requirements?
- Specialized lighting for transportation
- Lighting for façade and landscape lighting in MLO lighting zones 3 and 4
- Lighting for theatrical purposes
- Government-mandated roadway lighting
- Hospital emergency departments, including associated helipads.
- Lighting for the national flag in MLO lighting zones 2,3 or 4
- internally illuminated signage.
168
How many conditions are there where the lighting boundary can be different than the property boundary?
There are 3 conditions. The exceptions are not listed here due to their length. See reference guide.
169
When using the calculation method for light pollution reduction how far apart can the calculation points be?
No more than 1.5 m apart.
170
If the BUG rating method is used to meet the Uplight requirements does the method have to be used to meet the Light Tresspass requirements?
No. Project teams can use the BUG method or calculation method for Uplight, and use the same or different method for Light Tresspass.
171
What is a BUG rating?
A luminaire classification system that classifies luminaires in terms of backlight (B), uplight (U) and glare (G) taken from IES/IDA Model Lighting Ordinance. BUG ratings supersede the former cutoff ratings.
172
What optional systems can be submetered for Water Metering?
2 or more of the following :
- irrigation
- indoor plumbing fixtures and fittings
- DHW
- boilers
- reclaimed water
- other process water
173
What percent of water distribution must be submetered for irrigation, indoor plumbing fixtures, domestic hot water, or other process?
80% must be submetered
174
What frequency must metered data be compiled for Building-level-water-metering?
Monthly and annual summaries.
175
How long must a project commit to sharing metering data w/ USGBC and when must the sharing begin?
A 5-year period beginning on the date the project accepts LEED certification or typical occupancy, whichever comes first.
176
What type of water is municipally supplied reclaimed/recycled water?
Using EPA's WaterSense Budget Tool
177
What minimum percent reduction of outdoor water use is required from a calculated baseline?
30% reduction from the calculated baseline for the site's peak watering month.
178
How can reductions be achieved for WE Prerequisite Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
1. Plant species selection and
2. Irrigation efficiency
Alternative water sources CANNOT be used for the prerequisite.
179
What areas are excluded from outdoor water use reduction calculations?
Nonvegetated surfaces (permeable and impermeable pavement) are excluded. Athletic fields, food gardens, and playgrounds can be included or excluded at the project teams' discretion.
180
What percent reduction is required for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
50% from the calculated baseline for the site's peak watering month.
181
How can reductions be achieved beyond 30% for outdoor water use reduction?
Any combination of efficiency, alternative water sources, and smart scheduling technologies.
182
What reduction is automatically earned when installing smart irrigation controls for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
15% from the baseline.
183
What indoor water use reduction percent earns exemplary performance?
55%
184
What must be conducted for Cooling Tower Water Use?
A one-time potable water analysis measuring at least the required five control parameters.
185
What minimum number of cooling tower cycles would earn a project 2 points?
A 10-cycle minimum.
186
Any individual energy end use that represents _____ percent of the total annual consumption of the building must have an advanced energy meter?
10%
187
How long must an advanced energy metering system store data?
- 36 months
188
What energy sources must be metered in a building?
- electricity
- natural gas, fuel oil or other fossil fuels
- biofuels
- district chilled water, steam and hot water
189
How often must advanced meters be able to report data?
- Hourly, daily, monthly and annually
190
What 3 components are part of monitoring-based commissioning (MBCx)?
Permanent energy monitoring systems, real-time energy analysis, and ongoing commissioning.
191
Does building envelope commissioning have to be completed for Fundamental Commissioning?
- No. It must be documented in the OPR and BOD. It is not required unless the project team pursues EA Credit Enhanced Commissioning, Opt. 2.
192
What minimum number of waste streams must be diverted for C&D Waste Mgmt?
Divert at least 50% of the total C&D material, including at least 3 material streams.
193
When reducing total waste material for C&D Waste Mgmt what is the maximum amount of waste allowed?
2.5 lbs/SF (12.2 kg/m2) of waste for the building's floor area.
194
What does not qualify as material diverted from disposal for C&D Waste Mgmt Planning?
Alternative daily cover (ACD) and land-clearing debris.
195
What hazardous waste stream categories require safe collection, storage and disposal?
Choose 2 of the 3 :
| - batteries, mercury-containing lamps, or electronic waste.
196
What 2 simulations are required for Daylighting, Opt. 1 Simulation?
sDA and ASE
197
What is the threshold for and sDA simulation?
300 lux for 50% of the hours between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year.
198
What is the threshold for an ASE simulation?
1000 lux of direct sunlight for more than 250 hours of the year between 8AM and 6PM local time for a full calendar year.
199
When do the daylight simulations for Opt. 2 Simulation : Illuminance calculations occur?
9 AM on the first equinox (March 21 or Sept 21) and 3 PM on the second equinox.
200
At what height should daylight measurements be taken?
30 inches (750 mm) above the finished floor for the default workplane height.
