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LEED AP BD+C GBES > AP exam prep > Flashcards

AP exam prep Flashcards

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1
Q

What must your erosion control plan adhere to?

A

2003 EPA Construction General Permit (or local standards, whichever is more stringent)

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2
Q

What is a phase I Environmental Site Assessment?

A

A report prepared for a real estate holding that identifies potential or existing environmental contamination liabilities.

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3
Q

How is a Phase II Environmental Site Assessment more in depth?

A

A further investigation that collects original samples of soil, groundwater, or building materials to analyze for quantitative.

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4
Q

What are types of sensitive sites to avoid building on?

A
  • Prime farmland
  • Flood plain
  • Endangered species habitat
  • Land w/in 15m of wetlands
  • Land w/in 30 of water bodies
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5
Q

Who defines Prime Farmland?

A

The U.S. Department of Agriculture

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6
Q

What is the building requirements for projects in places without legally adopted flood hazard map?

A

Cannot build on a floodplain subject to a 1% or greater chance of flooding in any given year.

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7
Q

Define Development Footprint

A

The total land area of a project site covered by buildings, streets, parking areas, and other typically impermeable surfaces constructed as part of the project

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8
Q

What are the requirements for surrounding density?

A

Locate on a site whose surrounding existing density w/in 400 m radius of the project boundary meets either the “separate residential and nonresidential densities” or “combined density values”

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9
Q

What are the minimum surrounding density requirements?

A
  • 0.5 Non residential density (FAR)
  • 7 Residential density (DU/acre)
    OR
  • 22 000 SF/acre of buildable land combined density
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10
Q

What are the requirements for diverse uses?

A

Construct of renovate a building or a space w/in a bldg s.t. that bldg’s main entrance is w/in 800 m walking distance of the main entrance of 4 to 7 (1pt) or 8+ (2 points) existing and publicly available diverse uses.

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11
Q

What are the five use categories for diverse uses?

A
  • Food retail
  • Community-serving retail
  • Services
  • Civi and community facilities
  • Community anchor uses (BD+C and ID+C only)
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12
Q

What are the distances for Access to Quality Transit?

A

400 m walking distance of existing or planned bus, streetcar, or rideshare stops, or w/in 800 m walking distance of existing or planned bus rapid transit stops, light or heavy rail stations, commuter rail stations or ferry terminals.

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13
Q

Where is Access to Quality Transit measured from?

A

A functional entry - a bldg opening designed to be used by pedestrians and open during regular business hours. It does not include any door exclusively designated as an emergency exit, or a garage door not designed as a pedestrian entrance.

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14
Q

How many bike racks are required for a commercial building?

A
  • Short-term storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 spaces per bldg)
  • long-term storage for 5% of all regular bldg occupants (no fewer than 4 per bldg)
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15
Q

How many bike racks are required for residential project?

A
  • Short-term storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 per bldg)
  • Long-term storage for 30% of all regular bldg occupants.
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16
Q

How many shower and changing facilities are required for a commercial project?

A

At least one for the first 100 FTE and one additional for every 150 regular bldg occupants thereafter.

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17
Q

How do you calculate an FTE?

A

An 8-hour occupant has an FTE value of 1.0 ; a part-time occupant has a FTE value based on work hours per day divided by 8.

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18
Q

How many preferred parking spaces are required for Green Vehicles?

A

Provide preferred parking for green vehicles for 5% of the total vehicle parking capacity of the site.

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19
Q

How many EVSE stations must be installed for Green Vehicles?

A

2% of all parking spaces (preferred parking spaces may not be counted)

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20
Q

How is preferred parking defined?

A

The parking spots closest to the main entrance of a bldg (exclusive of spaces designated for handicapped persons). For employee parking, it refers to the spots that are closest to the entrance used by employees.

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21
Q

For previously developed or graded sites, how much habitats needs to be restored?

A

30% (including the bldg footprint) of all portions of the site

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22
Q

What is an example of a monoculture planting, which would not help with restoring/protecting habitat?

A

Turf grass

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23
Q

What areas can be excluded from the vegetation and soil requirements to restore/protect habitat?

A

Vegetated landscape areas that are constructed to accommodate rainwater infiltration

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24
Q

For school project what areas can be excluded from soil restoration criteria to restore/protect habitat?/

A

Athletic fields

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25
Q

What amount of financial support can be provided to restore/protect habitat?

A

$ 0.40 / SF

$ 4 / m2

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26
Q

What are the distance limitations when providing financial support to protect/restore habitat?

A

Financial support must be provided to a nationally or locally recognized land trust or conservation organization w/in the same EPA Level III ecoregion or the project’s state (or w/in 160 km of the project for projects outside the U.S.) For U.S. projects, the land trust must be accredited by the Land Trust Alliance

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27
Q

What should be included in a sustainable landscape plan?

A

List of all plant species, noting whether or not they are native/adapted ; info about invasive species and pests those plants may harbor ; best maintenance practices for the chosen plants, and site maps showing boundaries for the protected habitat areas.

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28
Q

What are the IESNA lighting zones?

A

LZ0 - Wilderness
LZ1 - Dark : Parks, rural areas
LZ2 - Low : residential, light industrial
LZ3 - Medium : commercial, industrial, high density residential
LZ4 - High : metro areas

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29
Q

When organization/agency is providing space for shared use to students, what should be included?

A

Auditorium, Gym, Cafeteria, One or more classrooms, Swimming Pool, or Playing Field

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30
Q

What slope is important for heat island effect - roof?

A

2: 12 slope ; > means steeped slope and requires an initial SRI of 39 or greater ;
2: 12 < means low slope and requires an SRI of 82 or greater

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31
Q

What causes skyglow?

A

Stray light from unshielded light sources and light reflecting off surfaces that then enter the atmosphere and illuminate and reflect off dust, debris and water vapor.

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32
Q

For Schools to achieve Site Master Plan, how many other credits must be met?

A

at least 4 of 6 of the following :

  • LT Credit High Priority Site
  • SS Credit Site Development - Protect of Restore Habitat
  • SS Credit Open Space
  • SS Credit Rainwater Mgmt
  • SS Credit Heat Island Reduction
  • SS Credit Light Pollution Reduction
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33
Q

What is the default gender ratio for indoor water use reduction calculations?

A

50/50

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34
Q

What fixtures and fittings must be included in the indoor water use reduction calculations?

A

Water closets, urinals, lavatory faucets, and pre-rinse spray valves

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35
Q

What is the discount parking rate for Green Vehicles?

A

20% discount

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36
Q

When can wetlands count as open space?

A

Wetlands or naturally designed ponds may count as open space and the side slope gradients average 1:4 (vertical:horizontal) or less and are vegetated.

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37
Q

What are the benefits of commissioning? (6)

A 
Reduced Energy Use,
Lower Operating Costs
Reduced Contractor Callbacks,
Better Bldg Documentation, 
Improved Occupant Productivity,
and Verification that Systems perform with OPR's
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38
Q

What documents get created during fundamental commissioning and verification? (3)

A

Cx report
Current facility requirements
Operations and maintenance plan

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39
Q

What energy-related systems must be commissioned? (3)

A
  • Mechanical, including HVAC&R equipment and controls
  • Electrical lighting and daylighting controls
  • Plumbing, including domestic hot water systems
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40
Q

What do the Owner’s Project Requirements typically include?

A 
Owner and User Requirements,
Environmental and Sustainability Goals,
Energy Efficiency Goals,
Indoor Environmental Quality Requirements,
Equipment and System Expectations,
Building Occupant and 
O&M Personel Requirements
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41
Q

What should the Basis of Design include?

A
  • Primary Design Assumptions
  • Standards
  • Narrative Descriptions
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42
Q

Process energy is considered to include, but is not limited to what?

A

Miscellaneous Equipment,
Computers, Elevators, Escalators, kitchen cooking& refrigeration equip., laundry washing & drying, lighting exempt from power allowance (e.g. medical equip.) and other (e.g. waterfall or fountain pumps)

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43
Q

Regulated or (non-process) Energy includes?

A

Lighting (interior, parking garage, surface parking, façade, or building grounds) HVAC, service water heating for domestic of space heating purposes.

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44
Q

What generates both electrical power and thermal energy from a single fuel source?

A

Combined Heat and Power (CHP) or Cogeneration

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45
Q

What device is used to regulate humidity and temperature, making bldg systems more energy efficient?

A

An economizer

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46
Q

What refrigerant mgmt procedure governs reducing annual leakage of CFC-based refrigerants to 5% or less?

A

EPA Clean Air Act, Title VI, Rule 608

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47
Q

What are the 3 compliance path options described in Optimize Energy Performance (EA Credit 1)?

A

Opt. 1 : Whole Bldg Energy Simulation,
Opt. 2 : Prescriptive Compliance Path : ASHREAE 50% Advanced Energy Design Guide,
Opt. 3 : Prescriptive Compliance Path : Advanced Bldgs Core Performance Guide

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48
Q

What are the 6 components of ASHRAE 90.1?

A 
Building envelope
HVAC
Service Water Heating
Power
Lighting
Other Equipment
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49
Q

What four fundamental strategies can increase energy performance?

A

Orientation
Site Energy Sources
Efficient Envelopment
Energy Recovery Systems

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50
Q

What are the thresholds for renewable energy production credit?

A

LEED BD+C (except C&S) : 1, 5, 10%

LEED BD + C C&S : 1, 3, 5%

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51
Q

What are the eligible types of systems for Renewable Energy Production?

A 
Photovoltaic systems,
Wind energy systems,
Solar thermal systems,
Biofuel-based electrical systems,
Geothermal heating or electric systems,
Low-impact hydro,
Wave & tidal power systems
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52
Q

What biofuel systems are NOT eligible for Renewable Energy Production?

A

Combustion of municipal solid waste,
Forestry biomass waste other than mill residue,
Coated wood,
Treated wood

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53
Q

What are the 2 Options for Enhanced Refrigerant Mgmt?

A

Opt. 1 : No refrigerations or low-impact refrigerants

Opt. 2 : Calculation of refrigeration impact

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54
Q

What types of equipment are NOT subject to the Fundamental refrigerant Mgmt requirements?

A

Small HVAC units (lass than 225g of refrigerant), standard refrigerators, small water coolers.

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55
Q

What is the duration and % a project must engage in to earn points under Green Power and Carbon Offsets?

A

5-year contract AND 50% provision of the project’s energy from green power, carbon offsets, or renewable energy certificates

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56
Q

What are the 2 options to determine electricity use for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?

A

Opt. 1 : Use the calculated energy consumption results from EA Prereq Minimum Energy Performance
Opt. 2 : Estimate electricity use using CBECS database

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57
Q

RECs can be used to mitigate what type(s) of emissions for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?

A

Scope 2, electricity use

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58
Q

Carbon offsets can be used to mitigate what type(s) of emissions for Green Power and Catbon Offsets?

A

Scope 1 or

Scope 2 emissions

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59
Q

What are the 3 basic methods for ventilating buildings?

A 
Mechanical ventilation (active)
Natural Ventilation (passive)
Mixed-mode ventilation (both)
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60
Q

What is the distance ALL naturally ventilated spaces must be in proximity to an operable wall or roof opening to the outdoors?

A

25 feet

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61
Q

What is the typical permitted distance for Environmental Tobacco Smoke (ETS) control (IEQ Prerequisite 2)?

A

25 feet

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62
Q

What is the maximum background noise level allowed for HVAC equipment in classrooms required for Minimum Acoustical Performance (IEQ Prerequisite 3)

A

45 dBA

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63
Q

What acoustic issues need to considered for Acoustic Performance?

A

HVAC background noise
Sound transmission
Reverberation time
Sound reinforcement and masking systems

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64
Q

At what % must an outdoor air delivery monitoring system generate an alarm for insufficient airflow values or carbon dioxide?

A

10% variation from design values

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65
Q

What is considered a densely occupied space when monitoring CO2 concentrations for mechanically ventilated spaces?

A

25 ppl or more per 1000 SF

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66
Q

For increased ventilation what % must mechanically ventilated spaces increase outdoor air ventilation rates required by ASHRAE 62.1?

A

30% above rates required by ASHRAE 62.1

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67
Q

What filtration media is required for Enhanced IAQ strategies?

A

MERV 13 or F7 (CEN Standard EN 779-2002)

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68
Q

How does a project confirm natural ventilation is an effective strategy?

A

Follow the CIBSE flow diagram?

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69
Q

What is required for Construction IAQ Mgmt Plan?

A
  • Meet or exceed SMACNA guidelines
  • Protect absorptive materials stored on-site
  • Use MERV 8 (F5) filters on operating air-handlers
  • Prohibit smoking in the bldg and w/in 7.5 m of entrances
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70
Q

What are the 5 areas SMACNA standards for recommended IAQ Control Measures?

A 
HVAC protection
Source control
Pathway interruption
Housekeeping
Scheduling
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71
Q

What are the 2 options for Indoor Air quality Assessment?

A

Opt. 1 : Flush out,

Opt. 2 : Air testing

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72
Q

What are the 2 bldg flush-out paths a project can consider for IAQ Assessment?

A

14 000 ft3 of outdoor air per SF of floor area
60°F & 60% R.H.
OR
3500 ft3 of outdoor air per SF of floor area @ min. rate of .30 cfm until reaching 14 000 ft3 per SF

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73
Q

At what height must air samples be collected at for IAQ Assessment?

A

3’-6’ above floor to represent the breathing zone (900-1800 mm)

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74
Q

What are the general emissions evaluation standards associated with low-emitting adhesives and sealants?

A

California Department of Publich Health (CDPH) Standard Method v1.1-2010 and German AgBB Testing and Evaluation Scheme (2010)

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75
Q

How long must permanent entryway systems be in the primary direction of travel for Enhanced IAQ Strategies?

A

10’ (3 meters) in the primary direction of travel at regularly used exterior entrances.

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76
Q

What MERV rating must mechanically ventilated buildings design HVAC systems to filter supply air prior to occupancy?

A

MERV 13 (F7) or higher

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77
Q

What types of rooms would require negative air pressure, self-closing doors, and deck-to-deck partitions, or hard-lid ceilings for interior cross-contamination prevention?

A

Garages
Housekeeping and laundry areas
Copying and printing rooms

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78
Q

What % of the bldg occupants must have individual lighting controls for Interior Lighting?

A

At least 90% of individual occupant spaces and 100% of shared multi-occupant spaces.

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79
Q

How many modes must lighting systems be able to operate in?

A

3 : On, Off and mid-level

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80
Q

What % of the bldg occupants ust have individual comfort controls for Thermal Comfort?

A

At least 50% of individual occupant spaces and 100% for all shared multi-occupant spaces.

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81
Q

What standards must be followed for thermal comfort design?

A

Opt. 1. ASHRAE Standard 55-10

Opt. 2. IOS and CEN Standards

82
Q

What are the 6 primary comfort factors associated with ASHRAE 55?

A 
Metabolic rate
Clothing insulation
Air temperature
Radiant temperature
Air
Speed
Humidity
83
Q

What are the 3 options to achieve IEQ Credit Daylight?

A

Opt. 1 – Simulation : Spatial daylight autonomy and annual sunlight exposure
Opt. 2 – Simulation : luminance calculations
Opt. 3 – Measurement

84
Q

What % of regularly occupied floor area must achieve daylight illumination for IEQ Credit Daylight?

A

75% = 1 point

85
Q

What are the four kinds of views?

A
  • Multiple lines of sight to vision glazing in different direction at least 90° apart
  • Views that include at least 2 of the following : 1. flora, fauna or sky ;2. movement 3. objects at least 7.5 meters from the exterior of the glazing.
  • Unobstructed views located w/in the distance of 3 times the head height of the vision glazing.
  • Views w/ a view factor of 3 or greater
86
Q

What % of regularly occupied floor area must have direct line of sight to the outdoors via vision glazing for IEQ Credit Views?

A

75% = 1 point

87
Q

Views into the interior atria may be used to meet what percent of the required area for Quality Views?

A

30%

88
Q

What dBA must background noise from HVAC equipment be reduced to for Minimum Acoustic Performance?

A

40 dBA

89
Q

What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for achieving Exemplary Performance?

A

2 points

90
Q

What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for IN Credit Innovation for the innovation option?

A

4 points

91
Q

What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Pilot Credits?

A

4 points

92
Q

What is required for LEED Accredited Professional credit?

A

One LEED AP w/ a specialty appropriate for the project.

93
Q

What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Regional Priority credits?

A

4 points

94
Q

At a minimum, projects must provide dedicated area for collection and storage of what 5 materials?

A 
Paper
Corrugated Cardboard
Glass
Plastics
Metals
95
Q

What do calculations need to be done by for Construction and Demolition Waste Mgmt

A

Weight or Volume

96
Q

What are the minimum % thresholds for debris to be recycled or salvaged for Construction and Demolition Waste Mgmt?

A 
50% = 1 point
75% = 2 points
97
Q

What is required for a project team to establish for Construction and Demolition Waste Mgmt Planning?

A

Waste diversion goals

98
Q

Who is NOT required to have a Chain of Custody documentation for FSC-certified wood?

A

End user

99
Q

What international alternative compliance path is available for material ingredient optimization?

A

REACH Optimization

100
Q

For innovation credit when pursuing Opt. 1 Innovation what must the team identify?

A

Intent of proposed innovation credit, proposed requirement(s) for compliance, proposed submittals, and strategies used to meet requirement(s)

101
Q

What is a BAS?

A

Building Automation System (BAS) it uses computer-based monitoring to coordinate, organize and optimize building control subsystems, including lighting, equipment scheduling, and alarm reporting.

102
Q

What is WaterSense?

A

WaterSens is a partnership program sponsored by EPA, helping consumers identify water-efficient products and programs.

103
Q

At what heights should CO2 sensors be placed at for breathing zone requirements?

A

3’-6’ above the floor

104
Q

When can certification be revoked?

A

Certification may be revoked from any LEED project upon gaining knowledge of non-compliance w/ any applicable MPR. Is such a circumstance occurs, registration and/or certification fees will not be refunded.

105
Q

What is Technical Release (TR) 55?

A

An approach to hydrology in which watersheds are modeled to calculated storm runoff volume, peak rate of discharge, hydrographs, and storage volumes, developed by the former USDA Soil Conservation Service.

106
Q

What energy-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?

A 
Site Conditions
Massing and orientation
Basic envelope attributes
Lighting levels
Thermal comfort ranges
Plug and process load needs
107
Q

What water-related building aspects mus be considered for Integrative Process?

A

Interior water demand
Outdoor water demand
Process water demand
Supply sources

108
Q

How many potential strategies must be assessed for each energy-related building aspect for Integrative Design?

A

At least 2 strategies must be assessed for each of the six aspects.

109
Q

What tool is used to benchmark building performance for Integrative Design?

A

EPA’s Target Finder

110
Q

What LEED ND certification designations are eligible for LEED ND Location credit?

A
  • LEED NP Pilot, Stage 2 LEED ND Certified Plan
  • LEED NP Pilot, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Project
  • LEED 2009, Stage 2 Pre-certified LEED ND Plan
  • LEED 2009, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Neighborhood Development
  • LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Plan
  • LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Built Project
111
Q

What percent of a building must be maintained for historic building reuse?

A

There is no minimum requirement. The historic designation must be maintained however.

112
Q

When renovating an abandoned or blighted building what percent of the building must be maintained?

A

At least 50% by surface area of the existing structure, enclosure, and interior structural elements.

113
Q

What is the minimum percent reuse required for building and material reuse?

A

At least 25% from off site or on site as a percentage of the surface area.

114
Q

What are the six impact categories of a life-cycle assessment?

A
  • GWP
  • Depletion of stratospheric ozone layer
  • Acidification of land and water sources
  • Eutrophication
  • Formation of tropospheric ozone
  • Depletion of nonrenewable energy resources
115
Q

When conducting a whole-bldg life-cycle assessment what are the min/max reductions of the impact categories?

A

A minimum fo 10% in at least 3 impact categories (of which one must be GHG emissions) and do not exceed any impact category by more than 5% compared to a baseline building.

116
Q

For a whole-bldg life-cycle assessment what is the service life of the baseline bldg?

A

60 years

117
Q

What is the location valuation factor for the optimization and disclosure credits?

A

Products and materials that are extracted, manufactured, and purchased w/in 160 km of the project value are valued at 200% of their cost.

118
Q

What is the minimum number of products required for the disclosure option of the MR credits?

A

At least 20 different permanently installed products sourced from at least 5 different manufacturers.

119
Q

What factor is used to determine the optimization of the MR credits?

A

Use products that comply w/ the criteria of each credit based on the cost of the products, compared to the total value of permanently installed products.

120
Q

What are the three types of EPDs and what is the product value of each type?

A

Product-specific declaration : 1/4 of a product
Industry-wide (generic) EPD : 1/2 of a product
Product-specific Type III EPD : 1 product

121
Q

How many qualifying products must be sources for exemplary performance for product disclosure?

A

At least 40 qualifying products

122
Q

A cradle-to-gate assessment is required for what material disclosure?

A

Each of the 3 types of EPDs require at least a cradle-to-gate scope

123
Q

Structure and enclosure materials may not constitute more than what percent of compliant building products for material disclosure and optimization?

A

30%

124
Q

All EPDs must be consistent with what standards?

A

ISO standards 14025, 14040, 14044 and EN 15804 or ISO 21930

125
Q

What are the acceptable corporate sustainability reporting (CSR) frameworks?

A
  • Global Reporting initiative (GRI) sustainability report
  • organization for economic cooperation and development (OECD) guidelines for multinational enterprises
  • U.N. Global compact : communication of progress
  • ISO 26 000 : 2010 guidance on social responsibility
126
Q

What are the types of responsible extraction criteria for sourcing of raw materials?

A
  • extended producer responsibility
  • bio-based materials
  • wood products
  • materials reuse
  • recycled content.
127
Q

What standards are acceptable for material ingredient optimization?

A

GreenScreen v1.2 Benchmark Cradle to Cradle Certified REACH Optimization (International Alternative Compliance Path)

128
Q

What cradle-to-cradle certified products count towards material ingredient optimization?

A
  • Cradle to Cradle v2 Gold : 100% of cost
  • Cradle to Cradle v2 Platinum : 150% of cost
  • Cradle to Cradle v3 Silver : 100% of cost
  • Cradle to Cradle v3 Gold or Platinum : 150% of cost
129
Q

What information must be inventoried for a site assessment?

A
  • Topography
  • Hydrology
  • Climate
  • Vegetation
  • Soils
  • Human use
  • Human health effects
130
Q

what should be used to estimate the water shortage capacity of a site during a site assessment?

A

Urban Hydrology for Small Watersheds Technical Release 55 (TR-55) or local equivalent for projects outside the U.S.

131
Q

What is a three-year aged SR (or SRI)?

A

A solar reflectance or solar reflectance index rating that is measured after 3 years of weather exposure.

132
Q

What should be used to designate a site as prime farmland and identify its soil classification?

A

Natural Resources Conservation Service (or local equivalent)

133
Q

What reduction is required for demand response?

A

At least 10% of the estimated peak electricity demand.

134
Q

What types of demand response programs are acceptable?

A

Semi-automated and automated (not manual)

135
Q

What is load shedding?

A

An intentional action by a utility to reduce the load on the system. Load shedding is usually conducted during emergency periods, such as capacity shortages, system instability, or voltage control.

136
Q

What is the contract period for demand response?

A

A minimum of one year w/ the intention of multiyear renewal.

137
Q

What are the 3 options for high priority sites?

A

Opt. 1 : Historic districte
Opt. 2 : Priority designation
Opt. 3 : Brownfield remediation.

138
Q

What type of location must a historic district project be located in for High-Priority Site?

A

On an infill location.

139
Q

What are the priority designations for High-Priority Site?

A
  • Site liste by the EPA National Priorities
  • Fed. Empowerment Zone site
  • Fed. Enterprise Community site
  • Fed. Renewal Community site
  • Dep. of the Treasury Community Development Financial Institutions Fund Qualified Low-Income Community
  • Site in a U.S. Dep. of Housing and Urban Development’s Qualified Census Tract or Difficult Development Area.
  • Local equivalent program administered at the national level for project outside the U.S.
140
Q

What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects w/ multiple transit types (bus, streetcar, rail, or ferry)?

A

72 weekday

40 weekend

141
Q

What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects w/ commuter rail or ferry service only?

A

24 weekday

6 weekend

142
Q

When can planned stops and stations count towards Access to Quality Transit?

A

When they are sited, funded and under construction by the date of the certificate of occupancy and are complete w/in 24 months of that date.

143
Q

What must a bicycle network connect to?

A

At least one of the following :

  • at least 10 diverse uses
  • a school or employment venter, if the project total floor area is 50% or more residential
  • a bus rapid transit stop, light or heavy rail station, commuter rail station, or ferry terminal.
144
Q

How close does a functional entry or bicycle storage need to be to a bicycle network?

A

W/in 180 m walking or bicycling distance.

145
Q

What is the max distance on a bicycle network destinations (diverse use, school/employment center, quality transit) must be?

A

w/in 4800 m bicycle distance of the project (3 miles)

146
Q

Where must short-term bicycle storage be located?

A

W/in 30 meters walking distance of any main entrance.

147
Q

Where must long-term bicycle storage be located?

A

W/in 30 meters walking distance of any functional entry.

148
Q

What is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?

A
  1. Do not exceed minimum local code requirements.

2. A percent reduction from a baseline (20% or 40% depending on what other credits are achieved)

149
Q

When is a 40% reduction from the base ratios of the ITE Transportation Planning Handbook required for Reduced Parking Footprint?

A

When a project earns EITHER LT Credit Surrounding Density and Diverse Uses or LT Credit Access to Quality Transit

150
Q

How much preferred parking is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?

A

5% of the total parking spaces AFTER reductions are made from the base ratios.

151
Q

What percent of Open Space must be vegetated?

A

25% minimum

152
Q

How much outdoor space must be provided for Open Space?

A

30% of the total site area (including the building footprint) or greater.

153
Q

What must outdoor space be to qualify for Open Space?

A

Physically accessible

154
Q

What types of outdoor spaces qualify for Open Space?

A
  • paving or turf that accommodates outdoor social activities
  • paving of turf that encourages physical activity
  • year-round garden space
  • community gardens
  • preserved or created habitat
155
Q

When can a vegetated roof count toward vegetation for Open Space?

A

When a projet has a density of 1.5 FAR

156
Q

How much rainfall must be managed for a project w/ a zero-lot-line w/ a minimum density of 1.5 FAR?

A

85th Percentile

157
Q

What are some ways to capture rainwater to prevent runoff?

A

LID and green infrastructure

158
Q

For a project w/ open space what minimum rainfall must be managed?

A

95th percentile

159
Q

When managing rainwater using natural land cover conditions what must be done?

A

Manage on site the annual increase in runoff volume from the natural land cover condition to the post-developed condition.

160
Q

When managing a percentile of rainfall events what minimum amount of historical rainfall data is required?

A

10 years worth

161
Q

What percent of runoff must be managed for the 95th percentile rainfall event?

A

100%

162
Q

What minimum percent of parking spaces must be placed under cover for Heat Island Reduction Option 2. Parking Under Cover?

A

75%

163
Q

Shade and architectural devices used for Heat Island Reduction must have at least what 3-years aged solar reflectance?

A

0.28 If the 3-year aged value information is not available, use materials w/ an initial SR of at least 0.33

164
Q

How is the total vehicle parking spaces calculated for Heat Island Reduction?

A

The number of parking spaces in the LEED project boundary (includes motorcycle parking). Do not count bicycle parking spaces.

165
Q

Any roof used to shade covered parking for Heat Island Reduction must meet what requirements?

A
  1. 3-year aged SRI of at least 32.
  2. Or a vegetated roof
  3. Or covered by energy generation systems.
166
Q

What are the light pollution reduction requirements for internally illuminated exterior signs?

A

Do not exceed a luminance of 200 cd/m2 during nighttime and 2000 cd/m2 during daytime hours.

167
Q

What exterior lighting is exempted from uplight and light tresspass requirements?

A
  • Specialized lighting for transportation
  • Lighting for façade and landscape lighting in MLO lighting zones 3 and 4
  • Lighting for theatrical purposes
  • Government-mandated roadway lighting
  • Hospital emergency departments, including associated helipads.
  • Lighting for the national flag in MLO lighting zones 2,3 or 4
  • internally illuminated signage.
168
Q

How many conditions are there where the lighting boundary can be different than the property boundary?

A

There are 3 conditions. The exceptions are not listed here due to their length. See reference guide.

169
Q

When using the calculation method for light pollution reduction how far apart can the calculation points be?

A

No more than 1.5 m apart.

170
Q

If the BUG rating method is used to meet the Uplight requirements does the method have to be used to meet the Light Tresspass requirements?

A

No. Project teams can use the BUG method or calculation method for Uplight, and use the same or different method for Light Tresspass.

171
Q

What is a BUG rating?

A

A luminaire classification system that classifies luminaires in terms of backlight (B), uplight (U) and glare (G) taken from IES/IDA Model Lighting Ordinance. BUG ratings supersede the former cutoff ratings.

172
Q

What optional systems can be submetered for Water Metering?

A

2 or more of the following :

  • irrigation
  • indoor plumbing fixtures and fittings
  • DHW
  • boilers
  • reclaimed water
  • other process water
173
Q

What percent of water distribution must be submetered for irrigation, indoor plumbing fixtures, domestic hot water, or other process?

A

80% must be submetered

174
Q

What frequency must metered data be compiled for Building-level-water-metering?

A

Monthly and annual summaries.

175
Q

How long must a project commit to sharing metering data w/ USGBC and when must the sharing begin?

A

A 5-year period beginning on the date the project accepts LEED certification or typical occupancy, whichever comes first.

176
Q

What type of water is municipally supplied reclaimed/recycled water?

A

Using EPA’s WaterSense Budget Tool

177
Q

What minimum percent reduction of outdoor water use is required from a calculated baseline?

A

30% reduction from the calculated baseline for the site’s peak watering month.

178
Q

How can reductions be achieved for WE Prerequisite Outdoor Water Use Reduction?

A
  1. Plant species selection and
  2. Irrigation efficiency

Alternative water sources CANNOT be used for the prerequisite.

179
Q

What areas are excluded from outdoor water use reduction calculations?

A

Nonvegetated surfaces (permeable and impermeable pavement) are excluded. Athletic fields, food gardens, and playgrounds can be included or excluded at the project teams’ discretion.

180
Q

What percent reduction is required for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?

A

50% from the calculated baseline for the site’s peak watering month.

181
Q

How can reductions be achieved beyond 30% for outdoor water use reduction?

A

Any combination of efficiency, alternative water sources, and smart scheduling technologies.

182
Q

What reduction is automatically earned when installing smart irrigation controls for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?

A

15% from the baseline.

183
Q

What indoor water use reduction percent earns exemplary performance?

A

55%

184
Q

What must be conducted for Cooling Tower Water Use?

A

A one-time potable water analysis measuring at least the required five control parameters.

185
Q

What minimum number of cooling tower cycles would earn a project 2 points?

A

A 10-cycle minimum.

186
Q

Any individual energy end use that represents _____ percent of the total annual consumption of the building must have an advanced energy meter?

A

10%

187
Q

How long must an advanced energy metering system store data?

A
  • 36 months
188
Q

What energy sources must be metered in a building?

A
  • electricity
  • natural gas, fuel oil or other fossil fuels
  • biofuels
  • district chilled water, steam and hot water
189
Q

How often must advanced meters be able to report data?

A
  • Hourly, daily, monthly and annually
190
Q

What 3 components are part of monitoring-based commissioning (MBCx)?

A

Permanent energy monitoring systems, real-time energy analysis, and ongoing commissioning.

191
Q

Does building envelope commissioning have to be completed for Fundamental Commissioning?

A
  • No. It must be documented in the OPR and BOD. It is not required unless the project team pursues EA Credit Enhanced Commissioning, Opt. 2.
192
Q

What minimum number of waste streams must be diverted for C&D Waste Mgmt?

A

Divert at least 50% of the total C&D material, including at least 3 material streams.

193
Q

When reducing total waste material for C&D Waste Mgmt what is the maximum amount of waste allowed?

A

2.5 lbs/SF (12.2 kg/m2) of waste for the building’s floor area.

194
Q

What does not qualify as material diverted from disposal for C&D Waste Mgmt Planning?

A

Alternative daily cover (ACD) and land-clearing debris.

195
Q

What hazardous waste stream categories require safe collection, storage and disposal?

A

Choose 2 of the 3 :

- batteries, mercury-containing lamps, or electronic waste.

196
Q

What 2 simulations are required for Daylighting, Opt. 1 Simulation?

A

sDA and ASE

197
Q

What is the threshold for and sDA simulation?

A

300 lux for 50% of the hours between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year.

198
Q

What is the threshold for an ASE simulation?

A

1000 lux of direct sunlight for more than 250 hours of the year between 8AM and 6PM local time for a full calendar year.

199
Q

When do the daylight simulations for Opt. 2 Simulation : Illuminance calculations occur?

A

9 AM on the first equinox (March 21 or Sept 21) and 3 PM on the second equinox.

200
Q

At what height should daylight measurements be taken?

A

30 inches (750 mm) above the finished floor for the default workplane height.

LEED AP BD+C GBES (3 decks)

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