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Q300 - NZ > AOT 60 > Flashcards

AOT 60 Flashcards

1
Q

ATPL Privileges?

A

1) any of the privileges of a PPL/CPL; and
2) act as PIC of an aircraft that is required to be operated with a co-pilot and is engaged on an ATO or an operation for hire/reward.

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2
Q

ATPL Currency Requirements?

A

A holder of an airline transport pilot licence is required to comply with the requirements of rules 61.35 (Medical Requirements), 61.37 (Recent Flight Experience) and 61.39 (Biennial Flight Review) before exercising the privileges of the holder’s airline transport pilot licence.

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3
Q

Recent Flight Experience? (RTG 1)

ATPL

A

ATPL
Not less than three takeoffs and landings on the same type within the immediately preceeding 90 days as PIC.

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4
Q

Instrument Rating Currency?

A
  • Within the immediately preceding 3 months:
  • 3 x Instrument Approaches, one of which may be completed in the simulator.
  • At least:
    1 x VOR or LOC approach, and
    1 x ILS approach, and
    1 x RNAV approach.
  • 3 hours instrument flight time.

Within the immediately preceding 6 months:
- Instrument rating renewal (OCA).

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5
Q

Return to Flying after an Extended Period?

A
  • If not completed a flying duty within the preceding 35 days, shall upon returning to work conduct their first duty paired with a Standards Captain (minimum 2 operating sectors).
  • The currency requirement detailed above shall be deemed to be satisfied if the pilot’s return to work commences with a TD simulator session. (RTG 1)
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6
Q

Duties/Powers of PIC?

A

Responsibilities:

  • Ensuring that the flight times and other entries are fully and correctly entered.
  • The initiation of orders, instructions and information for the crew, passenger, agents and local authorities, and for the transmission of all messages from the aircraft.
  • Be responsible for the safe operation of the aircraft in flight, the safety and wellbeing of all passengers, crew and cargo carried.
  • Have final authority to control the aircraft while in command and for the maintenance and discipline of all persons on board.
  • Ensuring no person other than a Flight Crew member qualified and assigned to operate the flight, manipulates the flight controls of the aircraft.
  • Subject to section 13, be responsible for compliance with all relevant requirements of the act and regulations and rules under the act.

Powers:

  • Power to control/restrain/off load or reject loading.
  • Authorise other crew to control and restrain.
  • Section 15, Co-pilot/FA can control/restrain when absolutely necessary with good reason.
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7
Q

Flight Time Limitations?

A 
single duty - 8 hours (up to 8.5 hours for disrupt)
       7 days - 35 hours
     28 days - 100 hours
    90 days  - 300 hours
   365 days - 1000 hours
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8
Q

Duty Time Limitations?

A

single duty - 11 hours (up to 12 hours for disrupt)
28 days - 186 hours
365 days - 2000 hours
(includes meal breaks)

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9
Q

What is CAA Rule 61?

A
  • Pilot Licenses & Ratings
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10
Q

Minimum Rest Periods after a duty at home base?

A
  • Tauranga - 10 hours 30 min.
  • May be reduced to 10 hours 10 min for disrupt.
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11
Q

Minimum Rest Period after being on duty for more than 11 hours or flying more than 8 hours?

A
  • 12 hours, including the hours between 00:00-06:00.
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12
Q

Minimum Rest Period after exceeding 12 hours duty or 8.5 hours flying?

A
  • 24 hours.
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13
Q

What is CAA Rule 67?

A
  • Medical Standards and Certification.
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14
Q

How many scheduled amendments to the AIP every year?

A

Six

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15
Q

How often are AIP supplements issued? What do they contain?

A
  • Every AIRAC cycle (28 days)
  • Are of a temporary nature, not urgent enough to warrant a NOTAM.
  • Contains extensive text or graphics that cannot be clearly promulgated by NOTAM.
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16
Q

When are Aeronautical Information Circulars (AIC) issued? What do they contain?

A
  • Issued when required, in accordance with the AIRAC cycle.

- Contains information of interest to pilots and aircraft operators.

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17
Q

What is a Trigger NOTAM?

A
  • A NOTAM issued as a reminder when an AIP amendment or SUP is published to ensure that operators are aware of changes that may affect their flight.
  • Remains in force for 14 days.
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18
Q

What is ASDA?

A
  • Accelerate Stop Distance Available.
  • Declared length of a runway plus any stopway.
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19
Q

What is AMA?

A
  • Area Minimum Altitude, shown on Area charts.

- Minimum safe level for IFR flight within that quadrilateral (5NM buffer outside).

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20
Q

What is MDA/MDH?

A
  • Minimum Descent Altitude/Height on a non-precision or circling approach.
  • MDH referenced to threshold elevation if that is more than 7ft below aerodrome elevation.
  • MDH for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.
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21
Q

What is MEA?

A
  • Minimum Enroute Altitude is the lowest altitude at which adequate NDB signal can be received on an NDB route.
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22
Q

What is MFA?

A
  • The lowest level at or above the route sector MSA/MRA/MEA or upper limit of Volcanic Hazard Zone or Danger/Restricted Area, in accordance with cruising levels.
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23
Q

What does “Minimum Fuel” mean?

A
  • Means that an aircraft is now committed to landing at a specific aerodrome and any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel (not yet an emergency situation).
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24
Q

What is DA/DH?

A
  • A specified altitude or height on a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference has not been established.
  • DH is referenced to threshold elevation.
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25
Q

What is MRA?

A
  • Minimum Reception Altitude is the lowest altitude at which adequate VOR signal can be received on a VOR route.
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26
Q

Do we have to comply with MRA/MEA if we are using GPS as primary means?

A

No.

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27
Q

What is MSA?

A
  • Minimum Safe Altitude is the lowest altitude rounded up to the nearest 100ft which provides the terrain clearance required by CAR 91.425.
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28
Q

Minimum climb gradient to MFA once above MSA?

A
  • Minimum 3.3% (200ft/NM).
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29
Q

Purpose of a VORSEC chart? Can they be used for holding?

A
  • VOR/DME MRA Sector Chart.
  • Provides obstacle clearance and good reception information.
  • May not be used for aircraft holding at an unpublished fix or holding pattern.
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30
Q

What is a Procedure Altitude?

A
  • A recommended altitude established to accommodate a stabilised descent profile on a prescribed descent angle in the final approach segment.
  • May also be applied in the intermediate segment.
  • Will never be less than the segment OCA.
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31
Q

What is a Segment OCA?

A
  • An altitude that provides required obstacle clearance for a given segment of the approach.
  • It is a minimum altitude established by the procedure designer, meant to be a “do not descend below” altitude.
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32
Q

What is UNICOM?

A
  • Universal Communication Services.
  • Not an Air Traffic Service.
  • Provides an information service at Ardmore and Whanganui.
  • Basic WX information, met reports, AWIB.
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33
Q

What is AWIB?

A
  • Aerodrome and Weather Information Broadcasts.
  • Not provided by an ATS and is therefore not required to have the same standard of accuracy as an ATIS.
  • Automated.
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34
Q

What is a RESA?

A
  • Runway End Safety Area.
  • A cleared and graded area off the end of the runway intended to minimise damage to an aircraft in the event of an aircraft undershooting/overrunning the runway.
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35
Q

Where to find Chart Symbols?

A
  • GEN 2.3.
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36
Q

Where to find Definitions?

A
  • GEN 2.2.
  • CAR Part 1.
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37
Q

How often are METAR AUTO’s issued?

A
  • Every 30 min.
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38
Q

Are SPECI’s issued at METAR AUTO locations?

A
  • No (SPECI’s are manual observations).
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39
Q

What is a TREND? How long is it valid for?

A
  • Trend forecast, will be appended to METAR AUTO reports from AA, CH, WN.
  • Valid for 2 hours, replaces the TAF during that period.
  • e.g. NOSIG, BECMG, TEMPO.
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40
Q

TAF - Wind in degrees True or Magnetic?
Cloud height AAL or AMSL?

A
  • True.
  • AAL.
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41
Q

When is wind reported in degrees magnetic?

A
  • ATIS.
  • Take-Off/Landing reports.
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42
Q

When is the cloud height reported AMSL?

A
  • GRAFOR only (replaced ARFOR’s).
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43
Q

What is a Stopway?

A
  • a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available, prepared as a suitable area on which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
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44
Q

What is TORA?

A
  • Take-off run available means the length of the runway declared by the aerodrome operator as available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off.
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45
Q

What is TODA?

A
  • Take-Off Run Available + Clearway.
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46
Q

What is a Clearway?

A
  • a defined rectangular area on the ground or water, at the departure end of the runway selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.
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47
Q

Is a DME Arc considered an Initial Approach segment?

A
  • Yes.
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48
Q

What is a ROFOR?

A
  • a route forecast of wind, temperature and significant weather for a specific route and flight levels.
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49
Q

Conditions warranting an AIREP?

A
  • Severe Turbulence, Icing, Mountain waves,
  • Thunderstorms with/without hail,
  • Heavy dust/sandstorms,
  • Volcanic ash, activity, eruptions.
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50
Q

How long is a SIGMET valid for?

A
  • 4 hours (6 hours for volcanic ash or tropical cyclone).
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51
Q

Where to find Meteorology Terminology?

A
  • GEN 3.5.
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52
Q

Does the outbound leg of a reversal procedure always have to be flown at 140kts?

A
  • May be flown at 180kts if the outbound leg is DME limited, but must reduce speed to 140kts before starting the base turn.
  • If not DME limited, then the outbound leg must also be flown at 140kts.
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53
Q

How is Vat calculated?

A
  • 1.3 x Vso at MAUW (landing configuration)
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54
Q

Cat B speeds?

A
  • SID …………………………………………………………………… 165kts
  • Vat ………………………………………………………………. 91-120kts
  • Initial Approach ……..….. 120-180kts (140kts for reversal)
  • Final Approach ……………………………………………. 85-130kts
  • Circling ……………………………………………………………. 135kts
  • Missed Approach ……………………………………………. 150kts
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55
Q

Holding speeds?

A
  • 14,000ft and below ……………………………. 170kts
  • Above 14,000ft ………………………………….. 240kts
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56
Q

Outbound timing in the hold?

A
  • One minute at 14,000ft or below.
  • One and a half minutes above 14,000ft.
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57
Q

Minimum bank angle for turns on missed approach?

A

15°

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58
Q

Cat B circling radius?

A

2.66 NM

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59
Q

What must be in sight for a visual approach at night?

A
  • Must have the runway lights in sight.
  • No longer permitted unless specially provided for in the Route Guide airport pages or necessitated by an emergency.
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60
Q

Remote QNH calculation?

A
  • Add 5 ft to the MDA for every 1 NM in excess of 5 NM from the source of the QNH.
  • (Distance - 5) x 5, then add to MDA.
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61
Q

Circling approach minima?

A
  • no lower than published MDA or 1,000 feet AAL, whichever is the higher. Visibility shall be the greater of 5000m or published minimum visibility.
62
Q

When do we use a derived decision altitude?

A
  • For all non-precision approaches (except for LNAV/VNAV), add 50ft to MDA and MDH.
63
Q

Restrictions when testing an ELT?

A
  • 121.5 MHz only.
  • No longer than 3 audio sweeps, not exceeding 20 seconds.
  • May only be conducted within the first 5 minutes of the hour.
  • Airborne tests NOT permitted.
64
Q

What variation in airspeed should be notified to ATC?

A
  • Any variation of average TAS of +/- 5%.
65
Q

When should a change in ETA be reported to ATC?

A
  • When in error by more than 2 minutes.
66
Q

What is “Essential Traffic”?

A
  • Flights which are maintaining own separation in VMC, and flights affected as a result of an aircraft responding to a TCAS RA.
  • Controlled flights that are not separated by the prescribed minima.
67
Q

What position reports must be made when holding in controlled airspace?

A

1) When first crossing the aid/fix to carry out an entry.
2) When established in the holding pattern after carrying out a Sector 1 or 2 entry. (Parallel or Offset).
3) When crossing the aid/fix on vacating the holding pattern.

68
Q

When is a clearance that requires a readback deemed to be in effect?

A
  • When it has been read back correctly.
69
Q

What is the standard track intercept angle? (AIP VOL 1)

A

30°

70
Q

Departure climbing on track using Distance steps or VORSEC charts and DME fails prior to reaching MSA, what to do?

A
  • Will normally involve a return towards the departure aid until MSA is reached. ATC must be advised immediately.
71
Q

ATC separation provided in Class C airspace?

A
  • IFR - IFR
  • IFR - VFR
  • IFR - SVFR
72
Q

ATC separation provided in Class D airspace?

A
  • IFR - IFR
  • IFR - SVFR
73
Q

When is ATC separation not provided?

A
  • Between all flights in Class G airspace.
  • Between a flight known to be responding to a TCAS RA, or a GPWS/TAWS alert and other flights where separation is normally provided.
74
Q

When is a weather alternate not required?

A
  • When meteorological forecasts indicate for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA that -
    a) the ceiling at the aerodrome will be at least 1000ft above the minimum published for the approach likely to be used; and
    b) visibility will be at least 5 km, or 2 km more than the minimum published, whichever is the greater.
  • also must not be any forecast TEMPO conditions below these criteria, elements of FOG or crosswind exceedance during the time period.
75
Q

What is the fuel requirement if no Tech Alternate is nominated?

A
  • 60 minutes holding fuel at 1500ft (480kg).
76
Q

How much fuel for final reserve?

A
  • 30 minutes holding at 1500ft AAL (240kg).
77
Q

What is required at a Weather Alternate?

A
  • Weather forecasts and NOTAM available for flight planning.
  • Weather conditions at the expected time of arrival, equal to or better than the alternate minima for the planned approach.
  • Runway lighting for operations within 30 minutes prior to ECT until 30 minutes after MCT.
  • Notification and agreement of the ROC.
78
Q

What is NOT required at a Weather Alternate?

A
  • Rescue Fire.
  • ATC.
79
Q

What is NOT required at Technical and Departure Alternates?

A
  • Rescue Fire,
  • ATC,
  • Traffic or Ground Staff.
80
Q

When must a Departure Alternate be nominated and what requirements must it meet?

A
  • Must be nominated if the weather at the departure airport is below landing minima.
  • Must be situated within 1 hour flight time at single engine cruise speed; AND
  • Have weather conditions at expected time of arrival equal to or better than the Alternate Aerodrome Minima.
81
Q

Alternate minima for precision and non-precision approaches?

A
  • Precision approach: 600ft ceiling or 200ft above DA/DH, whichever is the higher, and 3000m visibility or 1000m more than minima, whichever the greater.
  • Non-precision approach: 800ft ceiling or 200ft above MDA/MDH, whichever is the higher and 4000m visibility or 1500m more than the minima, whichever the greater.
82
Q

Equipment requirements when planning for a precision approach at an alternate aerodrome based on precision alternate minima?

A
  • two serviceable ILS receivers are required and for ILS approaches that require DME, two serviceable DME receivers are required (AA, WN, CH and DN). (RTG 1)
83
Q

What is Secondary Electrical Power Supply required for at an alternate aerodrome?

A
  • The ground based electronic navigation aids for the instrument approach to be used; and
  • Aerodrome lighting for night operations.
84
Q

Which aerodromes are authorised for use as Alternates?

A
  • Any aerodrome authorised for use as a destination, provided all alternate criteria are met.
85
Q

Speed under radar control should be maintained within?

A

+/- 10 kts

86
Q

When will ATC advise a pilot to check their altimeter setting?

A
  • If there is a difference of more than 200ft between the transponder level readout and their reported level.
87
Q

Radar control will not apply a speed restriction beyond how many miles from touchdown?

A
  • 5 NM on an instrument approach.
  • 4 NM on a visual approach.
88
Q

Uncontrolled airspace speed restrictions? (RTG 1)

A
  • below 9500ft AMSL - 200kts.
  • at and below 5000ft AMSL - 160kts.
89
Q

If no take-off minima prescribed what is the required ceiling and visibility?

A
  • 300ft-1500m
90
Q

Reduced Takeoff Minima requirements? (0-800)

A

(RTG 1 OPS)

1) RWY has centreline markings/lights.
2) Nose Wheel Steering is serviceable.
3) Departure Alternate is nominated.
4) Minimum of 13 runway lights are visible.
5) The PIC can confirm that the minimum visibility is required (by observation of the RWY lights from the take-off position).
6) The aircraft has operative autofeather system.

91
Q

Reduced Takeoff minima below 0-800 additional requirements?

A

(RTG 1 OPS)

1) The RWY lighting has a serviceable secondary power supply and automatic switch-over.
2) The PIC can confirm that the minimum visibility has been met:
- 400m - 7 runway lights
- 350m - 6 runway lights
- Or an RVR report from the ATIS or control tower.
3) Both pilots have carried out simulator training on reduced visibility take-offs to 350m, and have carried out a reduced visibility take-off in the simulator within the previous 13 months.
4) Left seat pilot must be PF.
5) Maximum crosswind component 20kts.

92
Q

Maximum number of passengers we can carry?

A
  • 56 total.
  • Maximum number of adult passengers 50.

Only passengers allowed to be carried in excess of 50 are:

  • 1 qualified crew member in jump seat,
  • Children under the age of 4, carried by an adult.
93
Q

Wake turbulence separations behind Heavy? (Time & Distance)

A
  • 2 minutes, 3 minutes for intersection departure.
  • 5 NM.
94
Q

Wake turbulence separation behind A380? (Time & Distance)

A
  • 3 minutes, 4 minutes for intersection departure.
  • 7 NM.
95
Q

At what weight does an aircraft become classed as Heavy for wake turbulence purposes?

A

136,000 KG MCTOW or more.

96
Q

What wake turbulence category is a B757?

A

Heavy.

97
Q

How would we know if the ELT had inadvertently activated on the ground? How do we turn it off?

A
  • Red light on ELT control panel,
  • Buzzing in the tail,
  • Transmission on 121.5 MHz.
  • To reset, select the ELT to ON, and then back to ARM.
98
Q

What are the emergency SSR codes?

A
  • 7500 - Unlawful interference.
  • 7600 - Loss of radio communication.
  • 7700 - In flight emergency.
99
Q

By what speed does target torque need to be achieved on a rolling take-off?

A

50 knots.

100
Q

What is the normal climb speed?

A

170kts to FL160, then reducing by 4kts for every 1000ft thereafter.

101
Q

What is best economy climb speed?

A

195kts to 10,000ft, then reducing by 4kts for every 1000ft thereafter.

102
Q

Best angle of climb speed two engines?

A

140kts.

103
Q

What is the Q300 wind limit for take-off and landing?

A

60kts.

104
Q

Minimum speeds in icing conditions?

A
  • Climb = Vclimb + 15kts.
  • Cruise / Descent = Vclimb + 20kts.
105
Q

Minimum speed in Pitch Mode?

A

150kts.

106
Q

Minimum altitude for a turn after take-off?

A

500ft AAL, except as required by departure or emergency procedures. (SOP)

107
Q

Minimum height to cycle seatbelt sign after take-off?

A

1000ft AGL

108
Q

Maximum allowable difference between altimeters and from aerodrome elevation?

A

+/-60ft between altimeters.

+30/-60ft against elevation.

109
Q

Which runways in NZ are grooved?

A

WN and CH.

110
Q

Green disc on the nose is missing, can we depart?

A

Yes, may be missing provided an approved procedure is used to ensure that the oxygen supply is at or above minimum requirements for the flight (MEL).

111
Q

Which exits would be used if you had to ditch in water?

A

Underwing exits and the upper (not submerged) front exit.

112
Q

Ditching dam pressure limits? Can we depart if it’s below minimum?

A
  • Minimum 1400psi.
  • Normal 1800psi, notify maintenance at 1600psi.
  • Yes, with MEL restrictions.
113
Q

What to do if the elevator trim is found to be wound fully forward/aft?

A

Procedure to follow, refer “Elevator Trim Check” in FCOM 1.

114
Q

Definition of Vr?

A

The speed at which rotation is commenced to achieve V2 at a screen height of 35ft (15ft wet runway).

115
Q

Terrain clearance on a DME arc? how much buffer either side?

A

Not less than 1000 ft terrain or obstacle clearance within an area extending 2.5 NM each side of arc.

116
Q

Missed approach minimum climb gradient and terrain clearance?

A
  • 2.5% (150ft/NM) climb gradient gives a minimum of 98ft obstacle clearance. (ENR 1.5)
117
Q

If we are responding to a TCAS RA or EGPWS are we separated from other aircraft by ATC?

A

No (we become essential traffic).

118
Q

What is the minimum horizontal separation when under radar control? Can this be reduced?

A
  • 5 NM (except when wake turbulence is a factor).
  • Can be reduced to 3 NM within 60 NM of AA, OH, WN, CH. (ENR 1.6)
119
Q

What is approach path monitoring? How would we be alerted if we got too low on approach?

A
  • A system that monitors the actual position of an aircraft and the predicted position of that aircraft for a look ahead time of 15 seconds, for an aircraft on the final approach, and provides an alert to ATC if the aircraft infringes or is predicted to infringe the appropriate obstacle clearance surface. Approach path monitoring ceases 2 NM from the runway threshold. (ENR 1.6)
  • In the event of an alert pilots will be advised “TERRAIN ALERT” and instructions or information passed as appropriate. (ENR 1.6)
120
Q

Can we be vectored for a visual approach at night?

A
  • Only at Christchurch for runways 11 or 29 provided the visibility at the aerodrome is at least 16 km and there is no cloud below 5000 ft. (ENR 1.6)
  • A visual approach or circling approach for runway 29 is permitted at night. (RTG 2)

121
Q

How do you activate PAL lighting? How long does it last?

A
  • Activation: Five rapid and short transmissions, collectively not exceeding three seconds.
  • Twenty minutes.
  • A single transmission will reset the lighting timer for a further 20 minutes. (AD 1.9)
122
Q

What is the minimum bleed pressure for the deice system?

A

18 psi +/- 3

123
Q

At which stage can the configuration be changed on a windshear missed approach?

A

Once flight path is under control and clear of obstacles/terrain.

124
Q

What is TIBA? Where are TIBA procedures found?

A

Traffic information broadcast by aircraft, ENR 1.15.

125
Q

Maximum speed at the Final Approach Fix?

A

130kts

126
Q

What are the cockpit indications that we have a RAIM warning?

A

GPS INTEG light, FMS message “GPS NOT NAV”.

127
Q

When can the VMC Recircuit to Land Checklist be used?

A

The VMC Recircuit to Land Checklist may be used in visual conditions, provided the After Takeoff Checklist has not been commenced.

128
Q

Are radar vectors available outside of controlled airspace if you are within radar coverage?

A

Only in an emergency.

129
Q

Can we continue on an approach past the FAP if the visibility is less than minima?

A

No.

130
Q

When can we descend below MDA on a circling approach?

A

At the discretion of the PIC, provided that:

  • Visual reference can be maintained throughout the circling approach; AND
  • The landing threshold or approach lights or other marking identifiable with the approach end of the runway are visible; AND
  • The aircraft can make a continuous descent to land using normal rates of descent and normal manoeuvres. (SOP)
131
Q

What are the minimum conditions in which we can operate at night with no glideslope guidance?

A

All night operations require a PAPI or ILS guidance. (SOP)

132
Q

What are the landing distance factors for dry/wet runways?

A
  • Dry - 1.43
  • Wet - 1.64

133
Q

General runway lengths for Flap 5, 10, 15 on take off?

A
  • Flap 5 - more than 1500m.
  • Flap 10 - between 1500m and 1300m.
  • Flap 15 - less than 1300m.
134
Q

Under what conditions does the PIC need to be PF?

A

Unless command training is being carried out, the PIC is to be PF when:
- on take-off the visibility is less than 800m.
- on approach when the visibility is less than 1000m.
(SOP)

135
Q

What is the difference between MSA and VORSEC?

A
  • VORSEC shows the higher of MSA or MRA with the purpose of providing obstacle clearance and good reception.
  • MSA only provides obstacle clearance.
136
Q

What does NOSIG mean?

A

No significant change to the conditions reported in the METAR or SPECI.

137
Q

When do you open the cargo door after a dangerous goods incident in the cargo hold?

A

If the item involved is located in the cargo compartment, disembark passengers before the cargo doors are opened. (RTG 1/ Red Book)

138
Q

Tyre wear limits?

A

Tyres may be worn to the base of the tread groove. (FCOM)

139
Q

Definition of Distress (Mayday)?

A

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance.

140
Q

Definition of Urgency (Pan Pan)?

A

A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.

141
Q

Where to find Communication Failure procedures?

A

ENR 1.15 (Pink Pages)

142
Q

What is TIBA? Where to find the procedure?

A
  • Traffic Information Broadcasts by Aircraft.
  • To be used following a significant disruption to ATS.
  • ENR 1.15 (Pink Pages)
143
Q

Maximum deviation from track on an RNAV 2 route?

A
  • 1.0 NM (+/- half of navigation accuracy required)
  • Brief deviations up to one-times the navigation accuracy are allowable during and immediately after procedure/route turns (i.e. 2 NM for RNAV 2).
144
Q

Where to find information on special use airspace?

A

ENR 5.1

145
Q

When does the minimum usable flight level for a zone area increase to FL160?

A

When zone area QNH is 980hPa or less or within 20 NM of Mount Cook.

146
Q

What is required to operate within a Restricted Area?

A

Prior approval from the designated administering authority.

147
Q

What is required to operate within a Danger Area?

A

Requires pilots to have due consideration of the danger present within the area prior to entering, but does not require approval from any agency.

148
Q

Restrictions on operating within Volcanic Hazard Zones?

A

By Day/VMC only. (ENR 5.3)

149
Q

Is a Passenger Manifest required for dispatch?

A

No.

150
Q

Definition of an Unaccompanied Minor?

A
  • Children between the ages of 5 years and 11 years (inclusive) who are not accompanied by an adult passenger (15 years of age).
  • Children older than 11 years may be classified as UM at the request of the caregiver.

Q300 - NZ (8 decks)

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