Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Behavioral Health > antipsychotics > Flashcards

antipsychotics Flashcards

1
Q

Which SGA has the highest sedation, ACH effects, and orthostasis?

A

clozapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

common suffix for FGA

A

“azine”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is risk of iloperidone?

A

severe orthostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

why is loxapine rarely used?

A

lots of DDI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

goal level of lithium and what must patient do when they take it?

A

0.6 - 1

drink adequate water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

three injectable SGA that are long acting

A

risperidone microspheres, paliperidone palmitate, aripiprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

4 mechanisms of action of SGA

A

serotonin dopamine antagonist, D2 antagonist with rapid dissociation, D2 partial agonist, serotonin partial agonist at 5HT 1A & antagonist at 5HT 2A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which drug is not indicated for bipolar disorder but is often used in mood disorders?

A

oxcarbazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which FGA is best for treating refractory schizophrenia?

A

thioridazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which lipid changes are you most likely to see in a patient on an antipsychotic?

A

triglyceride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Common DDI with VPA

A

carbapenem antibiotics, lamotrigine, phenytoin, warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which SGA do you have to closely monitor CrCl with and adjust the dose accordingly?

A

paliperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

receptor involved in anticholinergic effects

A

muscarine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

receptors that provide sedative side effects

A

histamine and alpha-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

generalized slowing of voluntary movement with reduction in arm movements; most noticeable signs are rigidity and tremor at rest; may see pill rolling movements of the hands, stooped posture and shuffling gait

A

pseudoparkinsonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

strong subjective feeling of distress or discomfort; motor restlessness, inability to sit or stand still; sometimes mistaken as agitation or increased psychosis!

A

akathisia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

bizarre, involuntary tonic contractions of skeletal muscle; most common dystonia as buccal spasms, facial grimacing and tics; can involve back, arms, and legs

A

acute dystonic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IF you give olazapine and benzo via IM simultaneous what can you cause in your patient?

A

respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which SGA has a long half life so they can take it once daily?

A

cariprazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Two SGA most likely to cause weight gain

A

clozapine and olanzapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When lithium levels are > 4 or the level is >2.5 and the patient is showing cardiac/neruologic symptoms - how do you treat?

A

hemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how long do you have to wait to draw levels of carbamazepine?

A

7-10 days → have to wait for it to autoinduce it’s own metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which SGA has the most EPS side effects?

A

risperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what causes NMS?

A

sudden reduction in dopamine activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which FGA have the highest anticholinergic effects?

A

low potency FGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

why do you want to avoid giving carbamazepine with clozapine?

A

agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

treatment for NMS

A

discontinue the agent and provide supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mid potency FGA are only used in treating

A

schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

central anticholinergic effects

A

delirium, psychosis, hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

haloperidol, fluphenazine, thiothixene, trifluoperazine, pimozide

A

high potency FGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This SGA is used in treating schizophrenia, BPD I, and adjunct MDD

A

aripiprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

why do you want to slowly titrate up lamotrigine?

A

decreases risk of Stevens Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

90% of akithisia cases develop in

A

first 2.5 months of treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

These two SGA have high sedative effects and moderate ACH effects?

A

olanzapine and quetiapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

dopamine 2 antagonism can lead to…

A

hyperprolactinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Common DDI with lithium

A

NSAID, ACEi/ARB, diuretics, theophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what high potency FGA is only used in treating Tourette’s Syndrome?

A

pimozide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how long does the onset of pseudoparkinsonism take?

A

develops several days to weeks after treatment initiation

39
Q

MOA of first generation antipsychotics

A

blockade of D2 receptors

40
Q

Which FGA can shorten QTc?

A

perphenazine

41
Q

side effects of clozapine

A

dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retion

mad as a hatter, blind as a bat, hot as a hare, red as a beet, dry as a bone

42
Q

why should you be cautious in using injectable haloperidol over PO?

A

injectable is 2x more potent

43
Q

older high potency FGA that isn’t really prescribed much?

A

thiothixene

44
Q

which SGA acts like a mood light?

A

aripiprazole

45
Q

which SGA can also help with treating Tourettes?

A

risperidone

46
Q

what symptoms will you see in newborn whose mother received FGA treatment in the third trimester?

A

EPS and withdrawal symptoms

47
Q

which high potency FGA do you give to a patient who is resistant to taking their meds and is likely to cheek their meds?

A

liquid fluphenzine

48
Q

Two SGA most likely to cause diabetes

A

clozapine and olanzapine

49
Q

what type of symptoms are FGA better at treating?

A

positive symptoms

50
Q

FGA have higher risk of →

SGA have higher risk of →

A

neurological side effects

metabolic side effects

51
Q

Which SGA do you have to take with 500 calories → must take BID so all together need 1000 calories?

A

ziprasidone

52
Q

how long does it take tardive dyskinesia to develop?

A

months to years after treatment initiation

53
Q

What is the difference betwee low potency and high potency FGA?

A

low → more sedating

high → greater risk of EPS

54
Q

what lab value will be elevated in NMS

A

serum creatinine kinase → rhabdomyolysis

55
Q

Two SGA least likely to cause weight gain

A

ziprasidone and aripiprazole

56
Q

receptor that causes orthostatic hypotension

A

alpha-1

57
Q

two long acting injectable FGA

A

fluphenzine decanoate, haloperidol decanoate

58
Q

perphenzine and loxapine are both

A

mid potency FGA

59
Q

If your patient has hepatitis or cirrhosis what high potency FGA do you want to absolutely avoid?

A

trifluoperazine

60
Q

three immediate release injectable FGA

A

chlorpromazine, fluphenazine, haloperidol

61
Q

Clozapine and lithium both decrease

A

suicide ideality

62
Q

What method do you use when injecting FGA?

A

Z tracking method

63
Q

All SGA can lengthen QTc except which two?

A

aripiprazole and lurasidone

64
Q

treatment for akathisia

A

propranolol

65
Q

what can hyperprolactinemia cause?

A

galactorrhea, sexual dysfunction, amenorrhea, gynecomastia

66
Q

two injectable SGA with immediate release

A

olanzapine and ziprasidone

67
Q

This drug is only used for the MAINTENANCE of BPD1 and epilepsy

A

lamotrigine

68
Q

What effect with antipsychotics have in the elderly?

A

increased mortality with dementia related psychosis

69
Q

Which SGA has the lowest risk of metabolic effects?

A

ziprasidone

70
Q

patient presents with muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysfunction

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

71
Q

treatment for acute dystonic reaction

A

diphenhydramine or benzotropine

72
Q

If the patient is taking high doses of haloperidol what you monitor for?

A

QTc prolongation

73
Q

peripheral anticholinergic effects

A

dry mouth/eyes/throat, blurred vision, mydriasis, tachycardia, constipation, urinary retention

74
Q

How does a patient need to take lurasidone?

A

with 350 calories

75
Q

This SGA has rapid binding and dissociation with the D2 receptor and thus has a good side effect profile

A

quetiapine

76
Q

treatments for tardive dyskinesia

A

valbenazine or vitamin E

77
Q

presence of HLA B*1502 allele puts patients taking carbamazepine at 10 fold increased risk for

A

steven johnson syndrome

78
Q

What lab value will become elevated in the first 3 months of an antipsychotic?

A

LFTs

79
Q

VPA will cause elevated levels of ___ in the blood

A

ammonia

80
Q

In order to get the antipsychotic effect from quetiapine you must?

A

prescribe at very high dose (600-800) or else it is just expensive benedryl

81
Q

with which SGA does a patient need to swallow the drug as well as their saliva in order to get the full dose?

A

olanzapine

82
Q

Black box warnings for clozapine?

A

myocarditis, reduces seizure threshold, significant orthostasis, agranulocytosis

83
Q

How long does the onset of acute dystonic reaction take?

A

within 24-96 hours of drug initiation or dose change

84
Q

what do you monitor for in a patient on thioridazine?

A

QTc prolongation

85
Q

three antipsychotics least likely to cause dyslipidemia

A

ziprasidone, aripiprazole, lurasidone

86
Q

chlorpromazine and thioridazine are both

A

low potency FGA

87
Q

two SGA with partial agonist/antagonist actions

A

brexipiprazole and cariprazine

88
Q

why do you need lifelong blood monitoring in a patient on clozapine?

A

risk of agranulocytosis

89
Q

Two SGA least likely to cause diabetes

A

ziprasidone and aripiprazole

90
Q

classic mood stabilizer used in manic episodes of bipolar disorder and as maintenance

A

lithium

91
Q

treatment for pseudoparkinsonism

A

benzotropine, trihexyphenidyl, diphenhydramine, amantadine

92
Q

stereotypical involuntary movements including sucking/smacking of lips, lateral jaw movements and fly catching dartings of the tonuge - may be irreversible

A

tardive dyskinesia

93
Q

agent used in treating acute manic or mixed episodes of bipolar disorder, epilepsy, and migraine prophylaxis?

A

valproic acid (VPA)

Behavioral Health (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions