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Gastroenterology > AntiParasitics > Flashcards

AntiParasitics Flashcards

1
Q

DOC for trichomonas vaginalis

A

metronidazole

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2
Q

MOA of metronidazole

A

After diffusing into the organism, interacts with DNA to cause a loss of helical DNA structure and strand breakage resulting in inhibition of protein synthesis and cell death in susceptible organisms

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3
Q

what are the significant adverse reactions for metronidazole

A

disulfiram like reaction, peripheral neuropathy

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4
Q

what are contraindications for metronidazole (flagyl)

A

hypersensitivity and pregnancy (1st trimester)

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5
Q

what do you need to warn patients about when you prescribe them metronidazole

A

dark or reddish brown, do not take with alcohol and may cause a metallic taste in their mouth

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6
Q

what is treatment for giardia

A

metronidazole and tinidazole

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7
Q

acute infection with E. hystioytic is treated with

A

paromycin

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8
Q

what is the MOA of paromomycin

A

Acts directly on ameba; has antibacterial activity against normal and pathogenic organisms in the GI tract; interferes with bacterial protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunits (a nonabsorbable aminoglycoside)

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9
Q

Tinidazole is used in treatment for

A

T vaginalis
G lamblia
E histolytica

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10
Q

adverse reactions of tinidazole

A

metallic/bitter taste; erythema multiforme, and steven johnson’s syndrome

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11
Q

treatment for babesia microti, babesiosis

A

clindamycin plus quinine or atovaquone plus azithromycin

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12
Q

what causes chaga’s disease

A

trypanosoma cruzi

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13
Q

chaga disease transmitted by

A

triatomine bugs

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14
Q

right bundle branch block or left anterior fasicular block is a conduction anomaly associated with what disease

A

chaga’s disease

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15
Q

what is the treatment for chaga’s disease

A

nifurtimox and benznidazole

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16
Q

what causes trypanosoma brucei

A

african sleeping sickness

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17
Q

what is the treatment for african sleeping sickness (trypanosoma brucei)

A

pentamidine isethionate (west)
suramin (east)
melarsoprol (late disease)

18
Q

what is DOC for cryptosporodium in immunocompetent pts

A

nitazoxanide

19
Q

adverse effects of nitazoxanide

A

GI upset and headache

20
Q

treatment of cyclospora cayetanesis (cyclosporiasis)

A

TMP-SX

21
Q

what is DOC for microsporidia

A

albendazole

22
Q

what are the significant adverse reactions for albendazole

A

acute renal failure, pancytopenia

23
Q

transmitted by female sand flies

A

leismaniasis

24
Q

what is the treatment for leishmaniasis

A

sodium stibogluconate

25
Q

most common opportunistic respiratory infection in patient infected with HIV

A

pneumocystis carinnii

26
Q

treatment and prophylaxis of pneumocystis

A

TMP-SMX or cotrimoxazole

27
Q

used for treatmentof mild to moderate pneumocystis jiroveci in pts who are intoerant to co trimoxazole

A

atovaquone

28
Q

adverse reactions of atovaquone

A

headache, GI upset and renal insufficiency

29
Q

Treatment and prevention of pneumonia caused by Pneumocystis carinii (PCP)

A

pentamidine

30
Q

MOA of pentamidine

A

Interferes with RNA/DNA, phospholipids and protein synthesis, through inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation and/or interference with incorporation of nucleotides and nucleic acids into RNA and DNA, in protozoa

31
Q

adverse rxns to pentamidine

A

electrolyte imbalances, permanent insulin requiring diabetes mellitus

32
Q

where does toxoplasma gondii complete is entire lifecycle

A

T. gondii

33
Q

leads to cerebral abscesses in AIDS patients

A

toxoplasma gondii

34
Q

what is the treatment for toxoplasma gondii

A

pyrimethamine pus sulfadiazine

35
Q

what must be given with all pyrimethamine therapy

A

folic acid

36
Q

MOA of pyrimethamine

A

Inhibits parasitic dihydrofolate reductase, resulting in inhibition of vital tetrahydrofolic acid synthesis

37
Q

what are some of the adverse reactions for pyrimethamine

A

steven’s johnson’s syndrome, pancytopenia,, thrombocytopenia, hematuria

38
Q

what is sulfadiazine used for

A

treatment of toxoplasmosis

39
Q

treatment of malaria should be guided by what

A

1) the infecting species
2) clinical status of patient
3) geographic location where the infection was acquired

40
Q

chlroquine resistant should gie

A

mefloquine, quinine sulfate, and atgovaquone-proguanil

41
Q

severe malaria is treated with what drug

A

quinidine glucoate plus doxy, tetracycline, clindamycin

Gastroenterology (8 decks)

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