Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

pharm final > Antineoplastic > Flashcards

Antineoplastic Flashcards

1
Q

The branch of medicine concerned with the study of malignancy-development, dx, tx, and prevention is defined as:

A

Oncology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pertaining to a substance, procedure, or measure that prevents proliferation of cells is defined as:

A

antineoplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The pharmaceutical agents used to destroy CA cells are defined as:

A

antineoplastics or cytoxic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What phase of the cell cycle is not as sensitive to antineoplastic Tx as the other phases of the cell:

A

Go

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of cells arise from a single abnormal cell that multiplies and grows:

A

CA cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens as abnormal cells continue to divide:

A

They lose some of their original characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the characteristics of CA cells:

A

anaplasia; autonomy; metastasis; angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The loss of cellular differentiation and organization is defined as what type of CA characteristic:

A

anaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

To grow in an uninhibited way/manner is defined as what type of CA characteristic:

A

autonomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The ability to travel to other sites of the body is defined as what type of CA characteristic:

A

metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The ability to grow new bld vessels to feed a tumor is defined as what type of CA characteristic:

A

angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the specific protocols used before giving chemotherapy to pts:

A

type/extent of malignancy; type of chemo given; side effects; amount of time normal cells need to recover=giving the chemo in cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the major factors that affect the CA cells response to chemotherapy:

A

Growth fraction and doubling time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The percent of actively dividing cells is defined as:

A

growth fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The time it take the cell to double in size is defined as:

A

Doubling time/growth rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Anticancer drugs are most effective on CA cells d/t what major factor:

A

Cells with high growth fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Antineoplastic/Anticancer drugs treat malignancies by directly killing tumor cells how:

A

Damaging the DNA; inhibiting DNA synthesis from replication; stoping mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Antineoplastic drugs destroy CA cells by inhibiting cell division but also affect normal cells. What type of normal cells do they affect the most:

A

Rapidly multiplying cells or cells that replaces themselves quickly; thus, causing side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This type of chemotherapy is used to relieve S/S associated with advanced CA (pain, breathing…) and improve quality of life is defined as:

A

palliative chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This category of antineoplastic drugs exert their influence during a specific phase of the cell cycle; are the most effective against rapidly growing CA cells is defined as and what are the examples:

A

CCS (cell-cycle specific or cell-cycle dependent); antimetabolites and mitotic inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This category of antineoplastic drugs exert their influence during any phase of the cell cycle, especially the Go phase is defined as and what are the examples:

A

CCNS (Cell-cycle nonspecific or cell- cycle independent); alkylating; anti-tumor antibiotics; hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The combined use of CCS and CCNS drugs maximize cell death is defined as:

A

synergistic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The synergistic effect of the combination of CCS and CCNS is:

A

Kills cells in all phases of the cell cycle, especially the cells that have a high fraction rate; decreases drug resistance and increases destruction of CA cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the causes of MDRL:

A

Cell mutation; natural resistance; gene amplification; repair DNA damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the specific classes of chemotherapy drugs:

A

alkylating agents; antimetabolites; anti-tumor antibiotics; plant alkaloids; Miscellaneous agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Alkylating agents are of the CCNS category, but what phase are they most effective on:

A

Go phase d/t slow-growing CA which may have cells in the resting phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the mechanism of action brought upon by alkylating agents:

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis by binding and damaging the DNA which prevents the cell from dividing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the main type of alkylating agent given for Tx:

A

Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the pharmacokinetics of Cytoxan:

A

50 PERCENT IS EXCRETED UNCHANGED IN THE URINE; onset =2-3 hrs; therapeutic effect takes several days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the adverse effects of Cytoxan:

A

HEMORRHAGIC CYSTITIS (give >500 mL of fluid prior); BONE MARROW SUPPRESSION; 2dary malignancies (secondary neoplasm), sterility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the Cytoxan major dose-limiting toxicities:

A

Hematopoietic system and urinary system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cytoxan is contraindicated to pts with:

A

pregnant; bone marrow suppression; impaired renal/hepatic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What may occur if I take Allopurinol or HTCZ w/Cytoxan?

A

Increased bone marrow suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What may occur if I take Phenobarbital with Cytoxan:

A

Cytoxan toxicity increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What may occur if I take Cytoxan with Warfarin or ASA (NSAIDs):

A

bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What may occur if I take Digoxin with Cytoxan:

A

Cytoxan will decrease digoxin effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

An accumulation of toxic metabolites that causes inflammation of the bladder (may be painless) and bleeding in the urine is a result is defined as:

A

hemorrhagic cystitis (MUST HYDRATE BEFORE GIVING CYTOXAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cytoxan should be taking early in the morning why and what should be avoided in the diet during Cytoxan Tx:

A

avoid accumulation in the bladder at night; avoid high purines (beans/peas/organ meats) to alkalinize the urine. avoid citric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bone marrow suppression include:

A

Low RBC (anemia); low WBC (neutropenia); low platelet count (thrombocytopenia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Antimetabolites are S phase specific with the exception of what type of antimetabolite drug:

A

5-FU adrucil (fluoroacil) is considered both CCNS and CCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the therapeutic action of antimetabolite drugs:

A

Disrupts the metabolic process and inhibits enzyme synthesis which prevents normal cellular function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Antimetabolites are often given with other agents to…

A

help overcome MDR tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

5-FU Adrucil is contraindicated in pts with:

A

GI ULCERATIONS/DISEASES; pregnant; bone marrow suppression; renal/hepatic disfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the adverse effects of antimetabolite drugs:

A

STOMATITIS; BONE MARROW SUPPRESSION (LIFE-THREATENING INFECTIONS/BLEEDING); hepatic/renal dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the action of 5-FU adrucil:

A

prevention of thymidine synthase production, thus inhibiting DNA/RNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the adverse effects of 5-FU adrucil:

A

STOMATITIS: may be early sign of 5-FU toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What may occur if I take Leucovorin calcium with 5-FU adrucil:

A

increases 5-FU toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What may occur if I take Metronidazole with 5-FU adrucil:

A

increases 5-FU toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What may occur if I take HTCZ with 5-FU adrucil:

A

increases myelosuppression (decrease in blood cell production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Soreness, ulcerations, and white patches of the mouth is defined as:

A

stomatitis (Can use NS to rinse mouth out every 2 hrs/avoid mouthwashes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Anti-tumor antibiotics are CCNS drugs with the exception of:

A

bleomycin (Blenoxane) EFFECTS G2 PHASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the action of anti-tumor antibiotics:

A

inhibits protein/RNA synthesis and binds to DNA causing FRAGMENTATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the main two types of anti-tumor antibiotics:

A

bleomycin (G2 specific) and Doxorubicin (CCNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the adverse effect of Doxorubicin:

A

CARDIOTOXIC EFFECTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the common side effects of anti-tumor antibiotics:

A

mucositis, N/V; CARDIOTOXIC EFFECTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How should anti-tumor antibiotics be given:

A

very slowly if pt has a congestive heart (pts’ cardiovascular system-EKG- should be assessed prior to administering drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What other drug is given along with Doxorubicin to reduce cardiac symptoms:

A

Dextrazoxane (Zinecard)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Plant alkaloids are mitotic inhibitors CCS. What is their action:

A

Blocks cell division at the M phase of the cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the adverse reactions of plant alkaloids mitotic inhibitors:

A

NEUROTOXICITY=PERIPHERAL NEUROPATHY; leukopenia; loss of DTR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are some examples of plant alkaloids mitotic inhibitors:

A

Vincristine (Oncovin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the adverse reactions of Vincristine (oncovin):

A

SENSORY LOSS; NEUROPATHY=PERIPHERAL NEUROPATHY; extravasation; hypoNA; ILEUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Wha are some life-threatening effects of Vincristine (Oncovin):

A

intestinal necrosis; SZ; coma; bronchospasm; bone marrow suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What may occur if I take digoxin and Vincristine (Oncovin) together:

A

Vincristine decreases the effects of digoxin

64
Q

What may occur if I take Vincristine (Oncovin) with phenytonin (Dilantin):

A

Vincristine decrease effect of Phenytonin (Dilantin): MONITOR FOR SZ

65
Q

What are miscellaneous cytotoxic agents:

A

A category that includes antineoplastic agents in which the mechanism of action is unclear, but is used in the combination of other drugs:

66
Q

When are miscellaneous cytotoxic agents given:

A

Given for ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC/LYMPHOBLASTIC LEUKEMIAS

67
Q

What are the examples of miscellaneous agents:

A

Elspar and Oncaspar

68
Q

Elspar is used for what:

A

Lymphocytic leukemia

69
Q

Oncaspar is used for what:

A

Lymphoblastic leukemia

70
Q

Major toxicity of miscellaneous cytotoxic agents is:

A

hypersensitivity reactions

71
Q

What are the adverse effects of taking Elspar and Oncaspar:

A

IMPAIRED PANCREATIC FUNCTION; hepatotoxicity; coagulopathy

72
Q

Hormonal agents are CCNS; they are cytostatic, which means…

A

prevents the growth of the tumor instead of causing cell death

73
Q

What is the hormonal agent’s mechanism of action :

A

Receptor-site specific or hormone specific that blocks the stimulation of growing CA cells that are sensitive to that specific hormone being given

74
Q

What are the examples of hormonal agents:

A

Corticosteroids; estrogen therapy; antiestrogens; SERMs; progestins; Gonadotropin-releasing Hormones

75
Q

This hormonal agent decreases cerebral edema caused by malignant brain tumors; and suppresses the inflammatory process:

A

corticosteroids

76
Q

What are the examples of corticosteroids given for CA:

A

prednisone and dexamethasone

77
Q

What are the adverse effects of prednisone or dexamethasone:

A

fluid retention; hypokalemia; hyperglycemia; risk of infection; muscle weakness; euphoria

78
Q

These hormonal agents slow the growth of hormone dependent tumors:

A

sex hormones

79
Q

What is estrogen therapy used for and what are some types of examples:

A

palliative treatment used to decrease the progression of prostate CA in men and breast CA in women; ESTINYL & PREMARIN

80
Q

What types of estrogen therapy is given to pts with prostate/breast CA:

A

Estinyl or Premarin

81
Q

This hormonal agent competes with estrogen for binding sites to target tissues of the breast:

A

Antiestrogen

82
Q

What are the examples of antiestrogen:

A

tamoxifen (Nolvadex)

83
Q

When or why is tamoxifen (Nolvadex) given:

A

Advance breast CA and prevents tumor recurrence

84
Q

What are the adverse effects of tamoxifen (Novaldex):

A

endometrial CA; thrombosis; hot flashes

85
Q

What could I give a pt with advance breast CA in place of tamoxifen (Nolvadex) to decrease side effects:

A

SERMs (selective estrogen receptor modulator)

86
Q

What is an example of selective estrogen receptor modulator:

A

Raloxifene (EVISTA)

87
Q

What hormonal agent is given to treat RENAL CA, endometrial and breast CA:

A

progestins

88
Q

What are some examples of progestins that I could give a renal CA pt:

A

Megace and Depo-provera

89
Q

These hormonal agents are primarily used for the treatment of prostate CA:

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

90
Q

What are the types of Gonadotropin-releasing Hormone used for prostate CA:

A

LH-RH (leutinizing) = leuprolide (LUPRON)

91
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Lupron (leuprolide):

A

suppression of follicle hormone and luteinzing hormone from pituitary resulting is the suppression of testosterone that stimulates the growth of prostate CA cells

92
Q

Long-term survivors of chemotherapy have an increased risk of developing what type of secondary malignancies:

A

acute leukemias and solid tumors

93
Q

What are the antineoplastic drugs that commonly are associated with secondary malignancies:

A

alkylating agents: cytoxan and alkeran

94
Q

Why do secondary malignancies occur:

A

D/t toxic damage effects on DNA, mutations, and chromosomal damage

95
Q

Drugs that may be used to reduce toxicities are called:

A

cytoprotective drugs

96
Q

What are some examples of cytoprotective drugs:

A

allopurina (zyloprim) reduces hyperuricemia; Mesna (mesnex) is given w/high doses of cytoxan to inactivate urotoxic metabolites in the bladder

97
Q

What are some nsg measures for low RBC amount (anemia):

A

Assist for SOB/VS/LOC/O2 sat; rest periods; control pain/elevate HOB; Rx FeSO4 (Iron) and erythropoietin (stimulates RBCs from kidneys) or blood transfusion of PRBC

98
Q

What are some nsg measures of Low WBC count (leukopenia:

A

assess for localized infections; hand/pt hygiene precautions; TEMPERATURE; Fever/chills/sore throat should be reported to HCP

99
Q

A low absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is defined as and what is the normal range:

A

neutropenia; 1500-8000

100
Q

What value of neutropenia is considered to be severe and what is usually administered:

A

less than 500; Colony-stimulating factors filgrastin (Neupogen)

101
Q

What shouldn’t be brought into the room to a pt that has leukopenia or neutropenia:

A

fresh flowers/plants, or raw foods

102
Q

For neutropenia or leukopenia pts, temps must be monitores why:

A

If they have a temp of 99 degreas, that is a fever. If they temp drops, may be d/t sepsis

103
Q

What is given to pts with Anemia (low RBCs):

A

FeSO4 (iron) and erythropoietin

104
Q

Where are pts kept if their neutrophils are below 200 (normal is 1500-8000):

A

reverse isolation/protective isolation

105
Q

What parts of the body should be checked every 8 hrs in pts with neutropenia:

A

Tiny ulcers in the mouth and anal fissures

106
Q

If a neutropenic pt has chills, how should it be handled:

A

As an emergency

107
Q

A low platelet count is defined as:

A

thrombocytopenia

108
Q

What should be avoided in pts with thrombocytopenia:

A

Meds that promote bleeding (NSAIDs); IM unless withdrawing blood in which case pressure should be applied for 10 minutes; rectal temps; use smaller gauge needles if starting an IV

109
Q

What should be reported to HCP from a pt with thrombocytopenia:

A

Petechiae (rash like red dots that can be purple), bruising, bleeding gums, nosebleeds

110
Q

What is the normal range for platelets and what should you do if a pt’s platelet count is at 50 or less:

A

150-350; check to see if pt is bleeding in the urine;

111
Q

What may be given to thrombocytopenic pts:

A

Numega to stimulate platelet production

112
Q

What drugs may cause cardiotoxicity:

A

Adriamycin (EKG or CHF), cytoxan (If high doses), Herceptin (cardiomyopathy)

113
Q

What may cause Nephrotoxicity:

A

5-FU, mutamycin

114
Q

What may cause Hepatoxicity:

A

Cytoxan (chronic use), Adriamycin (if pts are hepatic/renal impaired)

115
Q

A complication of chemotherapy that occurs when there’s an escape of a vesicant drug into surrounding tissue causing severe tissue damage or permanent damage to nerves/tendons/loss of limbs is defined as:

A

Extravasation

116
Q

Extravasation typically occurs with what type of access:

A

peripheral access; seldom in central catheters

117
Q

What is to be done if you see a pt with extravasation:

A

Stop IV; DONT REMOVE IV LINE; ASPIRATE REMAINING DRUG AND BLOOD IF POSSIBLE; give appropriate antidote according to policy in EXISTING IV SITE OR SUBQ AROUND INFILTRATED SITE; elevate affected extremity=PREVENTION IS THE BEST APPROACH

118
Q

What is the most common and distressing symptoms of receiving CA treatment:

A

chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)

119
Q

How is CINV stimulated:

A

antineoplastic drugs stimulate chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) leading to N/V

120
Q

This type of CINV occurs within a few minutes to several hours of chemo, ends in 24 hrs:

A

acute CINV

121
Q

This type of CINV occurs more than 24 hr after chemo, lasts several days:

A

Delayed CINV

122
Q

This type of CINV is triggered by anything the pt associates w/N/V r/t previous chemo treatment, such as smell or taste:

A

anticipatory CINV

123
Q

This type of CINV occurs even though preventative measures have been taken:

A

breakthrough CINV

124
Q

What drug is given to pts with highly emetogenic chemotherapy as prophylaxis:

A

Zofran ondansetron

125
Q

What drug is given to pts with Low-Risk emetogenic chemotherapy as prophylaxis:

A

Reglan or Compazine

126
Q

What’s included in the nsg role in pre-treatment/managing CINV:

A

pt expectations; risk factors CINV; taking med as scheduled; self-care strategies; provide clear post-instructions and contact numbers

127
Q

What’s included in the nsg role in supportive care for CINV:

A

minimize nose/odors/stimulants; flat sodas and crackers; hard candies; ice chips

128
Q

What is some care for pts w/stomatitis:

A

NO ETOH/ETOH mouthwashes; USED SOFT TOOTH BRUSHES OR SPONGE TOOTHETTES

129
Q

What type of tx would you provide for a pt with stomatitis:

A

mouth rinses (MAALOX/LIDOCAINE/BENADRYL MIX); antifungal meds; pain meds

130
Q

What do you assess from a pt with stomatitis:

A

taste changes, redness, swollen tissue, dry mouth, tiny ulcers, white patches

131
Q

What do you give a pt to relieve symptoms of stomatitis:

A

ice chips or ice-pops

132
Q

What are some tx for pts with anorexia:

A

Small frequent meals high in calories and proteins; hard candy or ice chips to relieve bitter taste

133
Q

What may cause diarrhea:

A

meds, comorbid conditions, enteral feedings

134
Q

What type of antidiarrheal meds may be given:

A

Kaolin or pectin; small frequent meals; avoid very hot/cold foods

135
Q

What may be given as a prophylactic measure for hyperuricemia:

A

allopurinol (zyloprim); encourage high fluid intake

136
Q

How can cytotoxic drugs be accidentally absorbed:

A

inhalation, contact w/skin/mucous membranes, ingestion

137
Q

How do you reduce your exposure when administering chemo drugs:

A

Wash hands; prepare med in separate work station; avoid hand-to-hand or hand-to-eye contact; use gown/mask/glove/face shield; use powder free gloves

138
Q

Why is the monitoring of chemo effects performed at baseline, during, and after treatment:

A

D/t the quick effect of the drug which enables us to determine optimal Tx options/evaluate pts response; monitor toxicity

139
Q

What labs would you assess for hematologic system during chemo Tx:

A

CBC with diff; WBC; ANC: RBC; platelet; Pt; PTT

140
Q

What labs would you assess for hepatic system during chemo Tx:

A

LFTs (liver function tests=ALT/AST)

141
Q

What labs would you assess for the renal system during chemo Tx:

A

creatine, BUN, electrolytes

142
Q

What labs would you assess for the cardiovascular system during Chemo Tx:

A

ECG, echocardiography, cardiac enzymes trotopin (d/t doxorubicin)

143
Q

What labs would you assess for the pulmonary system during chemo Tx:

A

PFTs (pulmonary function tests d/t bleomycin associate with pulmonary toxicity (can cause pnemothorax)

144
Q

How long does chemo therapy remain in the body:

A

48-72 hrs and excreted in bodily fluids

145
Q

A pt is about to receive an alkylating agent, an antimetabolic, and an anti-tumor antibiotic. He asks the nurse why he needs so much chemotherapy. What is the best response: A) combination chemo works in the S-phase to kill cells; B) Combination Tx increases the extent of tumor cell kill; C) Combination Tx has drugs that work the same way; D) Combination Tx has no dose-limiting toxicities

A

B) Combination chemo increases the extent of tumor cells killed

146
Q

A pt is scheduled to receive chemo that will cause myelosuppression. What action by the nurse would be most important: A) monitor for a change in temp; B) Evaluate GI infection; C) assess for cardiac compromise; D) question the pt about change in taste

A

A) monitor for change in temp

147
Q

A pt has a low platelet count secondary to administrating chemo. What nsg action is most appropriate: A) Assess for diarrhea and provide sm frequent meals; B) assess I&Os and help pt conserve energy; C) Assess for localized infection and monitor BS: D) Assess for occult bleeding and apply pressure to injection sites

A

D) Assess for occult bleeding and apply pressure

148
Q

A pt is about to receive 5-FU as part of his Tx protocol for CA. Which symptom would be most appropriate for the nurse to report: A) Nausea, B) decreased appetite, C) Stomatitis, D) Constipation

A

C) Stomatitis

149
Q

A pt in the oncology unit is c/o fatigue after chemo. What nsg intervention would be most appropriate: A) assess for factors contributing to her fatigue (trouble sleeping); B) Encourage a high protein diet, C) Refer the pt to a PT to develop a strenuous exercise program: D) encourage the pt to sleep as much as possible during the day to ease fatigue

A

A) assess for factors contributing to fatigue

150
Q

A nsg is teaching about alopecia. Which statement, made by the pt, indicates that she needs additional teaching about alopecia: A) The hair on all areas of my body will be affected; B) My hair won’t grow back after chemo Tx is completed; C) the extent of my hair loss is dependent on the type of chemo drugs I take; D) the texture of my hair may be different when it grows back

A

B) My hair won’t grow back after chemo Tx has completed

151
Q

A pt in the oncology unit has developed mucositis after receiving 5-FU. Which statement made by the pt indicates additional teaching about mucositis: A) I will frequently rinse out my mouth with NS; B) I will use ice pops or ice chips to relieve my pain; C) I will use a mouthwash with ETOH to rinse out my mouth; D) I will use a soft toothbrush

A

C) I will use a mouth wash with ETOH

152
Q

A pt is scheduled to receive a high dose of cytoxan. Which would be the most important for the nsg to include in her teaching of cytoxan to the pt: A) an indwelling urinary catheter will be placed; B) drink 2-3 L of fluid per day; C) empty the bladder every 4-6 hrs; D) limit fluid intake during chemotherapy

A

B) drink 2-3 L of fluids per day

153
Q

A pt is about to receive MPV (mitomycin, vincristine, cisplatin). She asks the nsg what side effects should she expect. what is the most appropriate nsg dx for the pt: A) anxiety r/t dx of CA; B) knowledge deficit r/t to side effects of chemo; C) potential bleeding r/t chemo; D) risk for alteration in nutrition r/t side effects of chemo

A

B) knowledge deficit r/t side effects of chemo

154
Q

A nsg is administering doxorubicin to a pt in an outpt setting. Which info would be most appropriate to include in pt teaching: A) bld counts will likely remain normal; B) complete alopecia rarely occurs w/this drug; C) report any SOB, palpations, or edema; D) tissue necrosis usually occur 2-3 days after administration

A

C) report any SOB; palpations; edema

155
Q

A pt is scheduled to receive vincristine as part of his chemo protocol. Which nsg action would have the highest priority when providing care to this pt: A) assess for degree of alopecia; B) assess for increased digoxin levels; C) assess for increased phenytonin levels; D) assess for peripheral neuropathy

A

D) assess for peripheral neuropathy

156
Q

Which have been identified causes of MDR to chemo Tx. Select all that apply: A) CA cells that are not killed may mutate and become resistant to Chemo Tx: B) some CA cells may be naturally resistant to Chemo; C) cell-cycle nonspecific chemo Tx drugs; D) gene amplification can cause overproduction of proteins that make chemo less effective; E) CA cells develop the ability to repair damage caused by chemo Tx

A

A, B, D, E

157
Q

A pt is experiencing mucositis (stomatitis) secondary to receiving chemo. What symptomatic Tx would be appropriate. Select all that apply: A) frequent mouth rinses; B) provide antiemetics; C) topical anesthetics; D) encourage stress reductions; E) ABX

A

A,C,E

pharm final (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions