antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

What are the MINDME guidelines for antimicrobial therapy?

A

M: microbiology guidelines used whenever possible
I: indications should be evidence based
N: narrowest spectrum required
D: dosage appropriate to the site and type of infection
M: minimise duration of therapy
E: ensure mono therapy in most situations

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2
Q

What is directed therapy vs. empirical therapy?

A

directed therapy - base choice of therapy on culture or susceptibility test results
empirical therapy - known common pathogens and resistance patterns (seasonality)
duration should be as short as possible, should not exceed 7 days unless there is proof this length of time is inadequate

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3
Q

Targets of antibacterials?

A

cell wall synthesis
protein synthesis
DNA- inhibit cell division
other metabolic processes

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4
Q

Factors affecting choice of antibacterial

A

bacterial factors: what type of organism, how resistant
host factors: site of infection, allergies, renal/hepatic function, concomitant drugs, age
drug factors: spectrum of activity, pharmacokinetics, adverse effects profile, cost

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5
Q

Antibacterial families targeting cell wall bio synthesis

A

beta-lactams, glycopeptides, cephalosporins

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6
Q

Antibacterial families targeting protein biosynthesis

A

macrolides, tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, oxazolidinones

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7
Q

Antibacterial family targeting DNA replication and repair

A

Fluoroquinolones

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8
Q

antibacterial families targeting folate synthesis?

A

trimethoprim, sulfonamides

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9
Q

antibacterial family targeting cell membrane?

A

daptomycin

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10
Q

antibacterial families targeting protein synthesis?

A

linezolid, tetracyclines, macrolides, aminoglycosides

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11
Q

size of virus particles

A

size range 10-400nm in diameter, most need to be viewed with EM
bacteriophage: 225nm

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12
Q

Can visions exist extracellularly?

A

Yes, rotavirus exists extracellularly for a few hours in the air

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13
Q

What is a nucleocapsid?

A

composed of DNA or RNA or a capsid, some viruses may also have an envelope

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14
Q

structural elements of a virus?

A
  1. nucleic acid: DNA or RNA, genome can be segmented or circular
  2. capsid: capsomeres
  3. envelopes
  4. spikes
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15
Q

what is the ending for virus order, family, subfamily and genus

A

O: virales
F: viridae
subfamily: virinae
G: virus

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16
Q

what are the two main systems for classifying viruses

A

ICTV: international committee on taxonomy of viruses
- main body
Baltimore system complements ICTV, focusses on viral genome and the methods used to synthesise mRNA

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17
Q

How would you classify viruses based on the genome? (5)

A

dsDNA, ssDNA, dsRNA, ssRNA

  • in ssRNA, + strand RNA is identical to mRNA sequence produced by the virus (positive strand)
  • strand RNA is complementary to mRNA sequence (negative strand)
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18
Q

common target of antiviral drugs? problems that can occur?

A

viral polymerase; toxicity can arise when viral polymerase is similar to host cell polymerase
most agents are virustatic - often by the time a viral infection is diagnosed, the virus spread and replication is complete

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19
Q

What does aciclovir target?

A

viral DNA/RNA synthesis

20
Q

What does zidovudine target?

A

viral DNA/RNA synthesis

21
Q

What do interferons target?

A

viral protein synthesis

22
Q

Mechanism of acyclovir?

A

(prodrug, activated by viral kinases)

= chain terminating agent; added to chain by viral polymerase but lacks 3’OH required for chain extension

23
Q

Mechanism of zidovudine?

A

(prodrug, activated by viral kinases)
= NRTI (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor)
= chain terminator, inhibits viral reverse transcriptase
- has some toxicity: bone marrow suppression, nausea, vomiting, malaise
- resistance is well recognised
- combination/alternating therapy slows development of resistance and minimised toxicity to a particular tissue

24
Q

ways to monitor antiviral therapy

A
  • measure viral load e.g. by real time PCR

- monitoring mutation rates e.g. by RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism) and sequencing

25
mechanism of ritonovir?
protease inhibitor prevent processing of viral polyproteins, inhibit viral maturation used in combination with NRTIs
26
mechanism of oseltamivir
- competitive, reversible inhibitors of neuraminidase - active against influenza A and B - resistance minimal to date - reduce viral shedding and disease duration if given early
27
what disease is ritonavir used to treat?
HIV
28
types of drugs used to treat HIV?
non-NRTIs and protease inhibitors
29
types of drugs to treat influenza?
ion channel blockers and neuraminidase inhibitors
30
types of drugs used to treat HBV?
NRTIs and NNRTIs
31
drug used to treat HCV?
ribavirin interferon, half-life can be extended by PEG-ylation; used in combination with ribavirin with effectiveness depending on HCV genotype
32
side effects of interferon used to treat hepatitis?
flu-like symptoms: fever, myalgia, headache
33
What is amphotericin - B used to treat?
- candidiasis = systemic mycoses (fungal infections) - caused most frequently by candida albicans (causing cutaneous lesions of nails and skin, mucosal lesions of mouth and vagina, systemic lesions of immunocompromised patients) - used for superficial and systemic fungal infections - severe side effects: damage to kidney and blood forming tissues, cardiac arrest
34
Targets for antifungals?
- azoles: inhibit enzyme for sterol synthesis (inhibit fungal cell membrane biosynthesis) - polyenes: bind to membranes causing cell leakage and death - inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
35
metronidazole may target two types of antimicrobials, which ones?
bacteria and protozoa
36
Ivermectin: what microbe is it used to treat, what is its target?
nematodes, unique neurotransmitters
37
3 features of Kingdom Protista?
most are unicellular polyphyletic lack level of tissue organisation present in higher eukaryotes
38
What is Trichomonas vaginalis?
= pathogenic trichomonad. Anaerobic, flagellated protozoan parasite Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection in humans
39
cause of African sleeping sickness?
pathogenic Euglenozoa: trypanosomes specifically T. brucei gambiense and T. brucei rhodesiense Tsetse fly is a Trypanosoma vector
40
What does entamoeba histolytica cause?
causes amoebic dysentery 3rd leading cause of parasitic death worldwide acquired by consuming E. histolytica cysts may migrate to lungs, brain, liver or skin
41
What is the effect of toxic algal blooms?
- brevetoxins produced by dinoflagellates are toxic by inhalation or ingestion - oxygen depletion of the water column
42
Example of an apicomplexan?
Plasmodium, causing malaria clonal and sexual stages are haploid except for zygotes sporozoite is the motile, infective stage
43
Structures making up the apical complex of anti-protozoal
polar ring, conoid, subpellicular microtubules, micronemes, rhoptry, micropore
44
4 main human species of plasmodium
P. falciparum, vivid, malariae, ovale
45
What mosquito transmits plasmodium?
anopheles (~40 species transmit plasmodium)
46
Drugs to treat malaria?
quinine - serious side effects chloroquinone - used in prophylaxis and treatment; P. falciparum resistant and P. vivax is developing resistance antifolate compounds: mefloquine, widespread resistance artemisinin
47
What to do in treating eukaryotic or viral infections
- usually have some toxicity to host cells - careful monitoring required in systemic administration e.g. liver function tests - topical application is preferred