Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Antimicrobial Therapy Introduction > Flashcards

Antimicrobial Therapy Introduction Flashcards

1
Q

High molecular weight proteins and peptides have to be administer from which route

A

Intravenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which route enables fast absorption for all solutions

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which route is not suitable for big volume injections

A

Subcutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which substances should not be given by Subcutaneous route

A

Irritant substances
Cytotoxic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Subcutaneous route enables fast and slow absorption for which solutions

A

Fast= aqueous
Slow= poorly soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Intramuscular route enables fast and slow absorption for which solutions

A

Fast= aqueous solutions
Slow and consistent= depot solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When Intramuscular route should be avoided

A

In patients with anticoagulant use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which route is the most convenient,safe and economic

A

Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most common drugs whose initial symptoms begin after more than 4 hours

A

Acetaminophen
Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Classification of untoward drug reactions

A

Desirable (therapeutic)
Undesirable —> Non-deleterious and Deleterious
Deleterious—> Pharmacological, Pathological,Genotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pharmacological Toxicity

A

Dose dependent effects of a drug over certain functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pathological Toxicity

A

Drug induced pathological tissue damage that is generally associated with high doses
When Necrosis or cell death happens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Genotoxicity

A

Situations in which drugs cause DNA damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dose independent reactions

A

Allergic reactions
Idiosyncratic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Type of allergic drug reactions

A

Anaphylactic reactions —humoral
Cytolitic reactions —humoral
Arthus reactions —humoral
Delayed hypersensitivity —cellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Anaphylactic reactions caused by

A

The release of high concentration of histamine, prostaglandins, Leukotrienes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Anaphylactic reactions mediated by

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Anaphylactic reactions causes

A

Vasodilation
Hypotension
Edema
Inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which allergic reaction is the Fastest allergic response

A

Anaphylactic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cytolitic reactions caused by

A

Direct toxicity of ab for a certain ag in host tissues following ab tissue binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Targets of Cytolitic reactions

A

Constituents of haematological system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Arthus reactions caused by

A

Precipitated ag-ab complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity caused by

A

Cellular immune system components like macrophages and T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Drug Investigation phases are composed of?

A

Phase 0—> preclinic
Phase 1—> healthy volunteers
Phase 2—> volunteer patients
Phase 3—> control groups
Phase 4—> post marketing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Toxidrome

A

Syndrome that is the constellation of signs and symptoms following intoxication of a substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why is Therapeutic index is important

A

For safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Minimal inhibitory concentration

A

Minimum concentration of drug to inhibit visible growth of microorganisms in the culture
Important in deciding whether the microorganism is susceptible or resistant to the drug tested.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Types of Antimicrobial therapy

A

Prophylaxis
Pre-emotive
Empiric
Definitive
Suppressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Prophylactic treatment

A

Done before the infection for prevention
Vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pre-emptive treatment

A

There is infection but in incubation period
No symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Curative treatment

A

Empiric= ın the absence of complete or perfect info
Definitive= after the knowledge of the microbe
Symptoms are seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Suppressive treatment

A

Taking daily treatment after the acknowledgment of the infection and the microorganism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Inhibition of viral DNA polymerase done by which drugs

A

Acyclovir
Vidarabine
Foscarnet
Ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Influenza complete its replication at

A

Host cell nucleus
**exception, others complete it at the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Nucleoside analogues that need viral enzyme for activation

A

Acyclovir
Valacyclovir
Ganciclovir
Valganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Nucleoside analogues that does not need viral enzyme for activation

A

Cidofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which nucleoside analogue does not need viral enzyme for activation

A

Cidofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Non-nucleoside analogues drugs that does not need viral enzyme for activation

A

Foscarnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Role of Hemagglutinin and Neuroaminidase in İnfluenza replication

A

Hemagglutinin in uncoating M2, binding to cell surface
Neuroaminidase in release from the cel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Anti influenza agents

A

Amantadin
Rimantadin
Oseltamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Viral target for amantidin

A

Influenza M protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Viral target for Rimantadin

A

Influenza M protein

43
Q

Viral target for Oseltamivir

A

Neuraminidase

44
Q

Drugs that used mainly for Hepatitis C

A

Sofosbuvir **
Velpatasvir
Voxilaprevir

45
Q

Pregnant women should nor directly care for patients receiving which drugs aerosol

A

Ribavirin

46
Q

Antiretroviral agents that can be used in HBV treatment?

A

Lamivudin
Tenofovir

47
Q

Guanosin analogue that used in HBV ?

A

Entecavir

48
Q

Adenosin monophosphate analogue that only for HBV

A

Adefovir

49
Q

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors in Antitertoviral therapy

A

Zidovudine
Didanosine
Stavudine
Zalcitabine
Lamivudine*
Tenofovir*
Emtricitabine
Abacavir *

50
Q

Thymidine analogues

A

Zidovudine
Stavudine

51
Q

Adenosine analogue

A

Didanosine

52
Q

Cytidine analogue

A

Zalcitabine

53
Q

Adenosine monophosphate analogue

A

Tenofovir —Antiretroviral therapy
Adefovir— HBV

54
Q

Non-Nucleosid Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors

A

Nevirapine
Efavirenz — not in pregnancy
Delavirdine
Etravirdine

55
Q

Protease inhibitors

A

Saquinavir
Indianavir
Ritonavir
Nelfinavir
Amprenavir
Lopinavir
Atazanavir
Fosamprenavir
Tipranavir
Darunavir

56
Q

Entry inhibitors

A

Enfuvirtide
Maraviroc

57
Q

Integrase inhibitor

A

Raltegravir

58
Q

HCV drugs

A

Sofosbuvir
Ledipasvir
Daclatasvir
Simeprevir
Velpatasvir
Grazoprevir

59
Q

Drugs that used in Amebiasis for amoebic colitis and liver abscess

A

Metronidazole —
Tinidazole — Together with paromomycin

60
Q

Drugs that used for Giardiasis

A

Metronidazole
Tinidazole
Paromomycin
Nitazoxanide

61
Q

Drugs that used for Cryptosporoidiosis

A

Nitazoxamide —safer for pregnants

62
Q

Drugs for Trichomoniasis

A

Metronidazole
Tinidazole

63
Q

Drugs that used for T.Brucei gambiense

A

Pentamidine
For late stage—> NECT

64
Q

Drugs that used for T.Brucei Rhosesiense

A

Suramine
For late stage—> Melarsoprol

65
Q

Leishmaniasis

A

Visceral = Pentavalent Antimony compounds, Amphotericin B, Miltefosine

Cutaneous= Pentavalent Antimony compounds, Amphotericin B,Miltefosine

66
Q

Metronidazole

A

Trichomoiniasis
Amebiasis
Giardiasis

67
Q

Paromomycin (AMİNOGLYCODİDE)

A

E.Histolytica

68
Q

Nitazoxanide

A

Cryptosporoidosis
Giardiasis
Ascaris Lumbricoides
Enterobius Vermicularis
Trichuris trichura
Hymenolepis nana

69
Q

Sodium Stibogliconate

A

Leishmaniasis

70
Q

Amphotericin B

A

Leishmania

71
Q

Miltefosine

A

Leishmaniasis
CAN NOT USED IN PREGNANT

72
Q

Pentamidine

A

T.Brucei Gambiense — early stage

73
Q

Suramin

A

T.Brucei Rhodesiense — early stage

74
Q

Benznidazole

A

Chagas’ disease — T.Cruzei

75
Q

Nifurtimox

A

Chagas’ disease— T.cruzei
With NECT— late stages of T.Brucei gambiense

76
Q

Eflornithine

A

With NECT — early and late stages of T.Brucei gambiense

77
Q

Melarsoprol

A

Late stages of T.Brucei rhodesiense

78
Q

Ascaris Lumbricoides

A

Benzimidazoles

79
Q

Toxocara canis

A

Benzamidazole

80
Q

Necator americanus
Ancylostoma duedonale

A

Benzimadazoles

81
Q

Trichuris trichuria

A

Benzimidazoles

82
Q

Stronglyloides Stercoralis

A

Ivermectin

83
Q

Enterobius Vermicularis

A

Benzimadazoles
Pyrantel pamoate

84
Q

Trichinella Spiralis

A

Benzimidazoles

85
Q

Wucheria Bancrofti
Brugia malai
Brugia Timori

A

Benzimidazoles
Diethylcarbamate

86
Q

Loa loa

A

Diethylcarbamate

87
Q

Onchocerca Volvulus

A

Ivermectin

88
Q

Dracunculus Medinensis

A

No effective treatment
Metronidazole may provide symptomatic and functional benefit

89
Q

Taenia Saginata

A

Praziquantel
Niclosamide

90
Q

Taenia Solium

A

Albendazole

91
Q

Diphyllobotrium Latum

A

Praziquantel

92
Q

Hymenolepis nana

A

Praziquantel

93
Q

Echinococcus sp.

A

Albendazole

94
Q

Schistosoma Haematobium
Schistosoma Mansoni

Schistosoma Japonicum

A

Praziquantel

95
Q

Paragonimus westermani

A

Praziquantel
Triclobendazole

96
Q

Clanorchis Sinensis
Opisthorchis Viverrni
Opisthorchis felineus

A

Praziquantel

97
Q

Fasciola hepatica

A

Triclabendazole

98
Q

Fasciolopsis Burki
Heterophyes heterophyes
Metagonimus yokogawai
Nanophyetus salmincola

A

Praziquantel

99
Q

Albendazole

A

Monitor for liver and hematologic toxicity in the long term

100
Q

Viral spectrum for acyclovir

A

HSV
VZ

101
Q

Viral spectrum for Valacyclovir

A

HSV
VZ

102
Q

Viral spectrum for Ganciclovir

A

CMV

103
Q

Viral spectrum for valganciclovir

A

CMV

104
Q

Inhibitor of viral DNA synthesis is

A

Acyclovir

Pharmacology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions