Antidepressants 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Names of SSRIs

A

Citalopram

Escitalopram

Fluoxetine

Paroxetine

Sertraline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lithium, TCAs, warfarin alprazolam, theophylline cause Increased blood levels

PK and drug interactions of which drug?

A

SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What toxicity is associated with SSRIs?

A

sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Doses greater than 40 mg/day not recommended due to QT prolongation

maximum daily dosage = 20mg for CYP2C19 poor metabolizers

which drug?

A

Citalopram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What ADR is common to all antidepressants and what must you monitor for due to this?

A

ADR: suicidality

Monitor: behavioral changes, mental status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the black box warning on all antidepressants?

A

caregivers should be alerted to monitor for acute changes in behavior (especially early in treatment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which additional ADRs are common to all SSRIs?

A

Anxiety or nervousness

Insomnia

Nausea

Serotonin syndrome

Sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which SSRI may be more activating (keeping you awake)?

A

Fluoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which SSRIs may be more sedating?

A

fluvoxamine

paroexetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the main ADR of citalopram?

A

OT interval prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the main ADR of fluoxetine?

A

anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the main ADR of fluvoxamine?

A

somnolence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the main ADR of paroxetine?

A

anticholinergic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indications of SNRIs?

A

MDD

GAD

Pain disorders: neuropathies and fibromyalgia

Stress urinary incontinence

Vasomotor symptoms of menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 SNRIs?

A

Venlafaxine

Desvenlafaxine

Duloxetine

Levomilnacipran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the toxicity of venlafaxine?

A

HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the main ADR common to all SNRIs?

A

CV changesL inc. BP; hearr rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the main ADR to Desvenlafaxine?

A

dose-related hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the main ADR to venlafaxine?

A

dose-related HTN

20
Q

Indications for 5-HT2 receptor antagonists?

A

MDD

hypnotic

21
Q

Combo SSRI & 5-HT1A

which drug?

A

Vilazodone

22
Q

Inhibits 5-HT, a 5-HT1A agonist and a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist

which drug?

A

Vortioxetine

23
Q

What mixed 5-HT would you use for depressed pts with anxiety?

A

Vilazodone

24
Q

Which mixed 5-HT should you use with pt with depression & cognitive difficulties?

A

Vortioexetine

25
Bupropion is an \_\_\_\_\_.
Bupropion is an NDRI (norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor)
26
Mirtazapine is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
serotonin and alpha 2 receptor antagonist
27
What are the 4 heterocyclics?
amoxapine bupropion maprotiline mirtazepine
28
What heterocyclic can you use for smoking cessation?
bupropion
29
PK of heterocyclics
hepatic metabolism
30
Which 2 heterocyclics lower seizure threshold (toxicity)?
amoxapine, bupropion
31
WHich heterocyclic causes sedation & weight gain?
mirtazepine
32
ADR of Nefazodone
Liver toxicity Clitoral priapism (case report)
33
ADRs of trazodone
orthostatic hypotension priapism in males
34
ADRs of Vilazodone
serotonin syndrome male decreasd libido
35
ADR of vortioxetine
GI & sexual dysfunction
36
What 9 things should you keep in mind when choosing an antidepressant?
Indication Cost Availability Adverse effects Potential drug interactions Patient’s history of response or lack Patient preference Age and gender Medical status
37
**T/F:** When medication and psychotherapy are not effective in treating severe depression or depression with psychosis, ECT can be highly effective.
True
38
**T/F:** ECT involves transmitting short electrical impulses into the brain.
True
39
**T/F:** ECT does cause some side effects, including some memory loss, but it is much safer than methods used in the past.
True
40
a type of brain stimulation that uses a **magnet** instead of an electrical current to activate the brain It is a relatively **new treatment** for people whose **depression has not responded to medication or psychotherapy** What treatment is this?
Repetitive Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (rTMS)
41
**T/F:** Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) omega-3 fatty acids **cannot** be used as augmentation in the treatment of MDD.
**False** Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) omega-3 fatty acids **can** be used as augmentation in the treatment of MDD.
42
**T/F:** EPA alone or the combination of EPA/DHA is likely **more effective than DHA alone**
True
43
Lack of consensus regarding use in the treatment of MDD Induces **hepatic metabolic enzymes** and is associated with significant drug interactions APA Task Force conservatively states that this may be reasonable for some individuals with mild to moderate MDD Which herb?
St. Johns Wort
44
The use of this has received a favorable review by the APA Task Force However, the final consensus was that more rigorous studies need to confirm the efficacy of this for treating MDD What supplement?
SAMe
45
What are the 3 components in folate?
folic acid folinic acid 5-MTHF
46
What does the task force state about folate?
The task force states that augmentation with these compounds is reasonable, but more work is needed to clarify which subgroup of patients may achieve the greatest response.
47