Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NURS 3303 > Anticoagulants and Respiratory > Flashcards

Anticoagulants and Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

atorvastatin (Lipitor) MOA

A

leads to a fall in hepatic cholesterol levels produces a
compensatory upregulation in the number of LDL
receptors on hepatocytes with increased
clearance of circulating LDL cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

atorvastatin (Lipitor) indications

A
  • hypercholesterolemia
  • primary and secondary CV prevention
  • protection against MI and stroke in DM pts
  • post MI therapy
  • type 2 DM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

atorvastatin (Lipitor) AEs

A
  • myopathy
  • rhabdomyolysis
  • hepatotoxicity
  • teratogenicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

atorvastatin (Lipitor) nursing considerations

A
  • evening admin preferred
  • monitor liver function and CK
  • pt education: contraception and myopathy risks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

colesevelam (Welchol) MOA

A

binds to bile acids secreted into small intestine to prevent reabsorption, eventually increases # of LDL cholesterol receptors for hepatic uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

colesevelam (Welchol) indications

A

adjunctive therapy in hypercholesterolemia often with statins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

colesevelam (Welchol) AEs

A

nausea, constipation, indigestion, bloating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

colesevelam (Welchol) nursing considerations

A
  • administer other meds 1 hours before or 4 hours after
  • increase fluid and fiber intake prior to laxative admin
  • can interact with other common meds (thiazides, digoxin, and warfarin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

gemfibrozil (Lopid) MOA

A

activates PPAR alpha to accelerate clearance of VLDLs to reduce TG levels, raises HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

gemfibrozil (Lopid) indications

A

hypertriglycerdiemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gemfibrozil (Lopid) AEs

A
  • rash
  • GI upset
  • gallstones
  • myopathy/rhabdomyolysis
  • hepatotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

gemfibrozil (Lopid) nursing considerations

A
  • can increase anticoagulant effects in pts on warfarin (monitor for bleeding and INR)
  • diet modification
  • administer 30 minutes before morning and evening meals
  • educate pts on myopathy risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

aspirin MOA

A

antiplatelet medication that irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase to prevent TXA2 synthesis needed to promote platelet activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

aspirin indications

A
  • ischemic CVA and stroke
  • angina and MI-related events
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

aspirin AEs

A
  • bleeding
  • salicylism (aspirin toxicity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

aspirin nursing considerations

A
  • educate and monitor for signs of bleeding
  • educate on other sources of aspirin
  • give PPI if GI bleeding occurs
  • stop med 7-10 days before surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

aspirin dosing

A
  • 81mg = helps prevent CV effects
  • 325mg = helps in initial treatment of CV events
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

clopidogrel (Plavix) MOA

A

irreversibly prevents ADP- stimulated platelet aggregation and blood clot formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

clopidogrel (Plavix) indications

A
  • helps reduce thrombotic events in pts w/ acute coronary syndrome
  • prevents blockage of coronary artery stents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

clopidogrel (Plavix) AEs

A

bleeding and TTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

clopidogrel (Plavix) nursing considerations

A
  • educate and monitor for signs of bleeding
  • give PPI if GI bleeding occurs
  • education on med use in setting of elective surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

abciximab (ReoPro) MOA

A

glycoprotein Ilb/Illa receptor antagonist med that causes reversible blockade of platelet receptors to inhibit the final step of platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

abciximab (ReoPro) indications

A
  • ACS
  • PCI
  • Non-STEMI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

abciximab (ReoPro) AEs

A

bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
abciximab (ReoPro) nursing considerations
- post-procedure cardiac cath monitoring - monitor for s/s of bleeding
26
heparin MOA
antithrombin activating anticoagulant that enhances the activity of antithrombin to indirectly inhibit activity of thrombin and factor Xa
27
heparin indications
- DVT and PE - open heart surgery and renal dialysis - low dose = DVT prophylaxis - DIC - anticoagulation during pregnancy
28
heparin AEs
- bleeding - HIT - severe neuro injury if given to spine/epidural pts
29
heparin nursing considerations
- educate/monitor for s/s of bleeding - monitor aPTT and CBC - antidote is protamine sulfate
30
enoxaparin (Lovenox) MOA
LMWH that enhances activity of antithrombin to preferentially indirectly inhibit activity of thrombin factor Xa with some inhibition on thrombin
31
enoxaparin (Lovenox) indications
- DVT and PE - DVT prophylaxis after THA, TKA, and abd sx - off-label = DVT prophylaxis after surgery and spinal injury
32
enoxaparin (Lovenox) AEs
- bleeding - HIT - severe neuro injury if given to spinal/epidural pts
33
enoxaparin (Lovenox) nursing considerations
- educate and monitor for s/s of bleeding - monitor CBC - antidote = protamine sulfate
34
warfarin (Coumadin) MOA
vitamin K antagonist med that suppresses production of factors VII, IX, X, and prothrombin
35
warfarin (Coumadin) indications
- DVT and PE prevention - thromboembolism prevention in pts with prosthetic heart valves - prevention of thrombosis in pts w/ a-fib
36
warfarin (Coumadin) AEs
- bleeding - teratogenic
37
warfarin (Coumadin) nursing considerations
- educate/monitor for s/s bleeding - monitor PT and INR - numerous med interactions - longer half-life than heparin - antidote = vitamin K and leafy greens
38
dabigatran (Pradaxa) MOA
direct thrombin inhibitor that directly inhibits actions of free and bound thrombin
39
dabigatran (Pradaxa) indications
- DVT and PE treatment - VTE prevention in THA and TKA - prevention of thrombus in a-fib pts
40
dabigatran (Pradaxa) AEs
- bleeding - GI upset
41
dabigatran (Pradaxa) nursing considerations
- monitor and educate on s/s of bleeding - antidote = idarucizumab
42
rivaroxaban (Xarelto) MOA
direct factor Xa inhibitor that directly inhibits Xa and therefore thrombin production
43
rivaroxaban (Xarelto) indications
- DVT and PE treatment - VTE prevention in THA and TKA - thrombosis prevention in a-fib pts
44
rivaroxaban (Xarelto) AEs
- bleeding - spinal/epidural hematoma
45
rivaroxaban (Xarelto) nursing considerations
- educate/monitor for s/s bleeding - caution with renal and/or hepatic impairment - antidote = andexxa
46
alteplase (t-PA) MOA
thrombolytic class med that forms complexes with plasminogen to convert to plasmin as well as degrade fibrinogen and other clotting factors
47
alteplase (t-PA) indications
- acute MI, stroke, PE - low dose for CVC thats blocked
48
alteplase (t-PA) AEs
bleeding (particularly ICH)
49
alteplase (t-PA) nursing considerations
- many interactions and contraindications - monitor for bleeding - efficacy if given within 2-4 hours of symptom onset
50
albuterol (Ventolin) and salmeterol (Serevent) MOA
beta-2 adrenergic agonist used for symptomatic relief via bronchodilation
51
albuterol (Ventolin) and salmeterol (Serevent) indications
- relief of acute bronchospasm in asthma - prevention of EIB - combo of ICS/LABA for COPD
52
albuterol (Ventolin) and salmeterol (Serevent) AEs
- SABA = tachycardia, angina, tremors - LABA = severe asthma and asthma-related death
53
albuterol (Ventolin) and salmeterol (Serevent) nursing considerations
- pt education on symptomatic relief from therapy - LABA often used with glucocorticoid (never monotherapy!) - assess use of SABA for control
54
theophylline (Theo-24) MOA
symptomatic relief via bronchodilation due to blockade of receptors for adenosine and anti-inflammatory effects
55
theophylline (Theo-24) indications
- PO for maintenance of asthma and COPD - IV for asthma emergencies
56
theophylline (Theo-24) AEs
theophylline toxicity (ranges from GI upset to v-fib and convulsions)
57
theophylline (Theo-24) nursing considerations
- narrow therapeutic range - lidocaine for v-fib - diazepam for convulsions
58
tiotropium (Spiriva) MOA
blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors in bronchi to prevent bronchoconstriction
59
tiotropium (Spiriva) AEs
minimal, but usually dry mouth and irritation of pharynx (potential for anticholinergic effects)
60
tiotropium (Spiriva) nursing considerations
often combined with albuterol nebulizer as PRN med to use both mechanisms for maximal relief
61
budesonide (Pulmicort) MOA
suppresses inflammation by decreased synthesis and release of inflammatory modulators, decreased and activity of inflammatory cells, decreased edema of airway mucosa
62
budesonide (Pulmicort) indications
- maintenance therapy in asthma - combination ICS/LABA in COPD
63
budesonide (Pulmicort) AEs
- inhaled = candidiasis and dysphonia - PO = rare in acute use; adrenal suppression, hyperglycemia, osteoporosis w/ prolonged use
64
budesonide (Pulmicort) nursing considerations
- pt education on inhaled drug delivery - tapering with long-term PO use (monitor for adrenal suppression)
65
Cromolyn MOA
mast cell stabilizer that prevents release of histamine and other mediators by stabilizing cytoplasmic membrane of mast cells
66
Cromolyn indications
- maintenance of mild to moderate asthma - prevention of EIB - relief of allergic rhinitis
67
Cromolyn AEs
- generally well tolerated - inhalation can cause cough or bronchospasm
68
Cromolyn nursing considerations
- pt education on place in therapy - use 15 minutes prior to precipitating factors
69
montelukast (Singulair) MOA
leukotriene receptor blocker that occupied leukotriene receptors in airway and proinflammatory cells to block receptor activation
70
montelukast (Singulair) indications
- asthma maintenance and prophylaxis - prevention of EIB - allergic rhinitis relief
71
montelukast (Singulair) AEs
generally well-tolerated
72
montelukast (Singulair) nursing considerations
- pt education on place in therapy - cheaper than inhalers
73
fluticasone (Flonase) MOA
glucocorticoid used to prevent or suppress major allergic rhinitis symptoms due to anti-inflammatory actions
74
fluticasone (Flonase) indications
prevention of allergic rhinitis
75
fluticasone (Flonase) AEs
- drying of nasal mucosa - burning/itching sensation - nosebleed - systemic effects rare (adrenal suppression)
76
fluticasone (Flonase) nursing considerations
- pt education on greatest relief if given daily rather than PRN - relief can take a week+ to develop
77
loratadine (Claritin) MOA
antihistamine used to prevent or suppress major symptoms due to their action against histamine
78
loratadine (Claritin) indications
allergic rhinitis
79
loratadine (Claritin) AEs
- generally mild - possible sedation and anticholinergic effects
80
loratadine (Claritin) nursing considerations
- avoid first gen antihistamine if requiring alertness - med most effective if take prophylactically - can cause somnolence in intranasal preparations
81
phenylephrine (Sudafed PE) MOA
sympathomometric decongestant that activates alpha-1 receptors on nasal blood receptors to cause vasoconstriction
82
phenylephrine (Sudafed PE) nursing considerations
- monitor V/S - don’t use for more than 3-5 days - commonly confused with pseudoephedrine
83
Non-opioid antitussives MOA
- dextromethorphan = acts on sigma opioid receptors to suppress cough reflex - diphenhydramine = unclear - benzonatate (Tessalon) = decreases sensitivity of respiratory tract stretch receptors
84
Non-opioid antitussives AEs
- dextromethorphan = high doses have potential for causing euphoria - benzonatate = usually mild; can cause seizures, dysrhythmia, and overdose
85
Opioid antitussives MOA
poorly understood in context of cough, thought to increase cough threshold in CNS
86
Opioid antitussives AEs
- respiratory depression - constipation - abuse
87
Opioid antitussives nursing considerations
- monitor respiratory status - naloxone is reversal agent

NURS 3303 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions