Antibiotics

Question 1

Exacerbation of chronic bronchitis

Answer 1

amoxicillin or tetracycline or clarithromycin

Question 2

Uncomplicated community acquired pneumonia

Answer 2

amoxicillin or clarithromycin or doxycycline

flucloxacillin if staph suspected

Question 3

Atypical pneumonia

Answer 3

clarithromycin

Question 4

Hospital acquired pneumonia

Answer 4

• within 5 days of admission: co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime

- more than 5 days after admission: piperacillin with tazobactam or broad spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone

Question 5

Lower UTI

Answer 5

trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin

alt. amoxicillin or cephalosporin

Question 6

Acute pyelonephritis

Answer 6

broad spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone

Question 7

Acute prostatitis

Answer 7

quinolone or trimethoprim

Question 8

Impetigo

Answer 8

topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin or erythromycin if widespread

Question 9

Cellulitis

Answer 9

flucloxacillin

penicillin allergic: clarithromycin, erythromycin or doxycycline

Question 10

Cellulitis near eyes or nose

Answer 10

co-amoxiclav

clarithromycin and metronidazole if penicillin allergic

Question 11

Erysipelas

Answer 11

flucloxacillin

penicillin allergic: clarithromycin, erythromycin or doxycycline

Question 12

Animal or human bite

Answer 12

-co-amoxiclav

doxycycline and metronidazole if allergic

Question 13

Mastitis during breast-feeding

Answer 13

flucloxacillin

Question 14

Throat infections

Answer 14

phenoxymethylpenicillin

erythromycin

Question 15

Sinusitis

Answer 15

phenoxymethylpenicillin

Question 16

Otitis media

Answer 16

amoxicillin

erythromycin

Question 17

Otitis externa

Answer 17

flucloxacillin

erythromycin

Question 18

Periapical or periodontal abscess

Answer 18

amoxicillin

Question 19

Gingivitis: acute necrotising ulcerative

Answer 19

metronidazole

Question 20

Gonorrhoea

Answer 20

IM ceftriaxone

Question 21

Chlamydia

Answer 21

doxycycline or azithromycin

Question 22

PID

Answer 22

oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole or IM ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole

Question 23

Syphilis

Answer 23

benzathine benxylpenicillin or doxycycline or erythromycin

Question 24

Bacterial vaginosis

Answer 24

oral/topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin

Question 25

C diff

Answer 25

• 1st: oral vancomycin
• 2nd: oral fidaxomicin
• 3rd: oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole
• Recurrent within 12 weeks: oral fidaxomicin
• Recurrent after 12 weeks: oral fidaxomicin/vancomycin

Question 26

Campylobacter enteritis

Answer 26

clarithromycin

Question 27

Salmonella (non-typhoid)

Answer 27

ciprofloxacin

Question 28

Shigellosis

Answer 28

ciprofloxacin

Question 29

Metronidazole ADR

Answer 29

disulfiram like reaction with alcohol

Question 30

Rifampicin ADR

Answer 30

• potent CYP450 liver enzyme inducer
• hepatitis
• orange secretions
• flu-like symptoms

Question 31

Sulfonamide ADR

Answer 31

• hyperkalaemia
• headache
• rash (Steven Johnson syndrome)

Question 32

Tetracycline ADR

Answer 32

• teeth discolouration
• photosensitivity
• angioedema
• black hairy tongue

Question 33

Trimethoprim ADR

Answer 33

• myelosuppression
• transient rise in creatinine
• teratogenic risk in first trimester

Question 34

Vancomycin ADR

Answer 34

• nephrotoxicity
• ototoxicity
• thrombophlebitis
• red man syndrome (on rapid infusion)

Question 35

Chloroquine CONTRA

Answer 35

epilepsy

Question 36

Doxycycline ADR

Answer 36

• oesophagitis

- photosensitivity

Question 37

Most common cause of lactational mastitis?

Answer 37

staph aureus

Question 38

Most common cause of gas gangrene:

Answer 38

clostridium perfringens

Question 39

How is legionella pneumophilia best diagnosed?

Answer 39

urinary antigen

Question 40

Bacteria type strep pneumonia

Answer 40

gram positive diplococci

Question 41

Bacteria type e coli

Answer 41

gram negative bacilli

Question 42

Bacteria type H influenzae

Answer 42

gram negative coccobacilli

Question 43

Bacteria type listeria monocytogenes

Answer 43

gram positive rod

Question 44

When should vaccines be administered before a splenectomy?

Answer 44

2 weeks before

Question 45

How does miliary TB spread?

Answer 45

through pulmonary venous system

Question 46

How do you treat pubic lice?

Answer 46

malathion

Question 47

Which bacteria typically causes tonsillitis?

Answer 47

strep pyogenes

Question 48

Treament of salmonella/gastroenteritis:

Answer 48

ciprofloxacin

Question 49

Investigations before starting anti-TB meds:

Answer 49

LFTs, U&Es, vision testing, FBC

Question 50

What should be added if the pneumonia is secondary to influenza?

Answer 50

flucloxacillin

Question 51

Most common cause of viral encephalitis in adults:

Answer 51

herpes simplex virus

Question 52

Which bacteria is associated with reactivating herpes simplex and causing cold sores?

Answer 52

streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 53

Bacteria type staphylococci:

Answer 53

• gram positive
• facultative anaerobes
• produce catalase

Question 54

Staph aureus:

Answer 54

• coagulase positive

- skin infections, abscesses, osteomyelitis, TSS

Question 55

Staph epidermis:

Answer 55

• coagulase negative
• central line infections
• infective endocarditis

Question 56

Alpha haemolytic strep:

Answer 56

• streptococcus pneumonias

- streptococcus viridans

Question 57

Beta haemolytic strep

Answer 57

• group A: strep pyogenes, erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, type 2NF, pharyngitis/tonsillitis, immunological reactions - rheumatic fever or post strep GN
• group B: streptococcus agalactiae (neonatal meningitis and septicaemia)
• group D: enterococcus