Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm 2 > Antibiotics > Flashcards

Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

Should PO PCNs be taken with or without food? What’s the exception?

A

Without food. Especially Natural PCN VK.

Exception - Augmentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage of systemic antimicrobial agents teach the anterior segment of the eye?

A

1-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which drugs are inhibitors of cell wall synthesis?

A

Beta-Lactams (PCN, Cephalosporins), Vancomycin and Bacitracin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the mechanism of resistance for PCN?

A

Penicillinase - enzymes produced by bacteria that destroy PCN by cleaving the beta-lactase ring of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the chemical/drug used to overcome penicillin resistance?

A

Clavulanic Acid - decoy drug that binds to penicillinase and allows PCN to kill the bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PCN only distributes into the brain during ________.

A

inflammation. PCN will only penetrate the CNS if the pt has meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which PCNs were formulated to delay absorption of the drug?

A

Benzathine and Procaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

By what injection and how long will Benzathine stay in the body?

A

By IM injection in gluteus Maximus, for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

By what injection and how long will Procaine stay in the body?

A

By IM injection in gluteus Maximus, for 1-2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the use for Benzathine and Procaine

A

STDs… non-compliant pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Natural PCN VK is administered how?

A

PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Natural PCN G is administered how?

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nafcillin and Dicloxacillin are what type of PCN medication?

A

Antistaphylococcal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

______ dose amoxicillin covers Strep Pneumonia

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ampicillin/Sulbactam are used in what type of infections?

A

Mixed Nosocomial (hospital) infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Amoxicillin/Clavulanate (Augmentin) is used in patients that have ________ organisms

A

Beta-Lactamase producing organisms. (I.e. H. Influenzae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Antistaphylococcal PCNs are the drug for choice for _______

A

MSSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the uses for anti-staphylococcal PCNs?

A

Skin and soft tissue infections - usually community required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name the anti-pseudomonas PCNs… which of the 4 diseases do they cover… what are they used for?

A

Ticarcillin (Ticar) and Piperacillin (Pipracil)… pseudomonas aeruginosa … nasty gram neg bugs or with diabetes patients with nasty infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the beta-lactamase inhibitors of anti-pseudomonal PCNs….

A

Ticarcillin + Clavulanate = Timentin

Piperacillin + Tazobactam = Zosyn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Timentin and Zosyn used for?

A

Used in nosocomial infections with mixed etiology (i.e. diabetic foot infection, neutropenic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the ADR of PCNs?

A

Hypersensitivity w/ cross reaction to cephalosporins

Diarrhea - especially augmentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the percentage of the pt being hypersensitive to cephalosporins if they’re hypersensitive to PCNs?

A

3-10% chance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What generation of cephalosporins can penetrate the CNS through the BBB?

A

3rd Generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cephazolin (Ancef) is most commonly used as a _______.

A

Surgical prophylaxis drug.. it’s used to stop skin grafts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most common 1st gen. cephalosporin prescribed?

A

Cephalexin (Keflex).. use it pt has a PCN allergy

27
Q

Cefaclor (Ceclor) is what generation cephalosporin and treats gram negative or positive bacteria?

A

2nd generation, gram positive

28
Q

Cefoxitin (Mefoxin) treats gram neg. or positive bacteria? Is the enteral or parental?

A

gram negative, only parental 2nd generation cephalosporin

29
Q

Cefuroxime Axetil (Ceftin) provides what type of coverage?

A

Anaerobic Coverage

30
Q

3rd generation Ceftriaxone (rocephin) and cefotaxime (flaforan) cover which of the 4 diseases?

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae, some STD

31
Q

3rd generation Ceftazidime (fortaz, tazicef) cover which of the 4 diseases?

A

Psuedomonas Aeruginosa

32
Q

What are the adverse drug rxns of cephalosporins

A

Hypersensitivity, Diarrhea, Cross reaction with PCN allergic pts

33
Q

What is oral vancomycin used for?

A

Gut infection

34
Q

Administering vancomycin by IV can help with which of the 4 diseases?

A

MRSA- both CA and HA.. but would rather use it for HA

35
Q

What are the adverse drug reactions to Vancomycin?

A

Hypersensitivity, Red Man Syndrome, Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity

36
Q

Is Bacitracin used systemically or ophthalmically?

A

Ophthalmic, comes in ointment and suspension

37
Q

How many times should a pt apply Bacitracin daily?

A

1-3 times a day

38
Q

What is the ocular use for Bacitracin?

A

Conjunctivitis

39
Q

Fluroquinoles are known for what type of ocular issue?

A

Retinal Detachments

40
Q

Name the 3 Systemic Respiratory FQs. Which of the 4 diseases do they treat?

A

Levofloxacin (Levaquin), Moxifloxacin (Avelox) and Gemifloxacin (Factive).

They treat streptococcus pneumoniae.

41
Q

Name the 2 systemic FQs. Which of the 4 diseases do they treat?

A

Ofloxacin (Floxin) and Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

Psuedomonas Aeruginosa

42
Q

Which ophthalmic FQ has the best ophthalmic penetration? why?

A

Besifloxacin 0.6% susp. (Besivance)… more fat soluble

43
Q

What are the risk factors associated with the development of FQ resistance?

A

Pt is over 65 years of age, history of COPD, previous treatment with FQ

44
Q

In what type of pts should we avoid use of FQs? Why?

A

Pregnant and breastfeeding women, kids less than 18 years.

FQs can cause cartilage damage and arthopathy

45
Q

Which group of agents can cause tendonitis, tendon rupture and retinal detachment?

A

FQs!

46
Q

What are the drug/food interactions of FQs?

A

Ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin have food/milk chelation interactions.. absorption will be decreased if taken with cationic food/beverages

47
Q

Tetracyclines are (better or worse) than FQs

A

Worse

48
Q

All tetracyclines are ______ absorbed after PO ingestin. Why?

A

incompletely.

Tetracyclines are destroyed by acid in the stomach.. has chelation drug interactions

49
Q

T or F: Doxycycline has an anti-inflammatory mechanism?

A

True. Must take with food

50
Q

List the ADRs of Tetracyclines.

A

Gastric Discomfort (esp. doxycycline).. Binds to calcium in the teeth and bone (do not use in pregnant/breastfeeding women or children under 8)…Phototoxicity

51
Q

Name the 3 Systemic Macrolides

A

Azithromycin (Zithromax/Z-Pak), Clarithromycin (Biaxin) and Erythromycin

52
Q

Ophthalmic Azithromycin is good for what ocular disease?

A

Bacterial conjunctivitis - instill 1 drop 2x a day

53
Q

Which systemic macrolide is applied to every baby when they’re born?

A

Erythromycin

54
Q

Which macrolide is the worst on the stomach?

A

Erythromycine (worst)&raquo_space; clrithro > azithromycin

55
Q

What 2 macrolides are CYP450 3A4 inhibors

A

Clarithromycin and Erythromycin… problem occurs when taking 2 drugs in the same route

56
Q

High concentrations of Aminoglycosides are known to cause what type of toxicity?

A

Nephrotoxicity (kidney) and Ototoxicity (inner ear)

57
Q

Tobramycin and Gentamycin cover which of the 4 diseases?

A

Psuedomonas Aeruginosa

58
Q

Sulfa agent, Co-trimoxazole, covers which of the 4 diseases?

A

CA MRSA

59
Q

What are the ADRs of Sulfa-Agents?

A

Steven’s Johnson Syndrome, Toxic epidermal necrolysis, phototoxicity, aplastic anemia, thrombocytopenia

60
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl) covers which of the 4 diseases?

A

Anaerobes

61
Q

Which of the following drugs should be avoided while consuming alcohol which can cause a disulfiram rxn?

A

Metronidazole

62
Q

Clindamycin (Cleocin) covers which of the 4 diseases

A

CA MRSA, and its a great choice for cellulitis

63
Q

Vigamox 2.5mL/bottle = _____ drops?

A

~20 drops/mL = 50 drops

64
Q

When should a doctor use fortified antibiotics?

A

For sight-threatening infections (i.e. keratitis and corneal ulcers)

Pharm 2 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions