Antiarrhythmics Flashcards

1
Q

Anti-arrhythmics are drugs that modify cardiac conduction, they are used to treat arrhythmias and are classified according to the Vaughan-William’s system.

A

This classification divides these drugs into four classes according to their effects on cardiac action potential. Anti-arrhythmics have complex actions and classes may overlap.

It is important to note, that this classification system has become increasingly inadequate with improved understandings of drug mechanisms and development of new antiarrhythmics.

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2
Q

What are arrhythmias?

A

Arrhythmias are disorders of rate and rhythm of the heart, which arise due to either abnormal generation or conduction of electrical impulses.

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3
Q

Increased automaticity - arrhythmias

Occurs when tissue other than the SA node develops spontaneous depolarization that supersedes the SA node itself.

The origin may be:

A

Conduction pathway - i.e. specialised autorhythmic cells.

Contractile tissue - contractile cells may gain autorhythmic function for various reasons, e.g. ischaemia.

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4
Q

Re-entry -

A

Begins when an electrical impulse reaches a branch in which one pathway is refractory (i.e it is not yet repolarised and as such cannot depolarise). The impulse simply passes down the conducting pathway and may meet the distal part of the refractory tissue once it has repolarised. The impulse may then be transmitted retrogradely through the this tissue.

A circuit is established. These circuits termed re-entry circuits may act as a pacemaker and trigger aberrant rhythms.

Re-entry is thought to be the cause of most clinically relevant arrhythmias.

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5
Q

… is thought to be the cause of most clinically relevant arrhythmias.

A

Re-entry is thought to be the cause of most clinically relevant arrhythmias.

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6
Q

Triggered activity

Arrhythmias

A

Damage to the myocardium may lead to oscillations of membrane potentials at the end of the action potential, termed afterdepolarisations.
These afterdepolarisations may occur during (early) or following (delayed) repolarisation.

Digoxin toxicity results in arrhythmias due to this mechanism.

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7
Q

Class IA antiarrhythmics and Sotalol may cause prolonged QT with an increased risk of … ventricular tachycardia (torsades des pointes).

A

Class IA antiarrhythmics and Sotalol may cause prolonged QT with an increased risk of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (torsades des pointes).

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8
Q

Class I antiarrhythmics slow depolarisation and with it conduction. These drugs act to reduce sodium entry through inhibition of fast sodium channels. The subtypes have variable effects on cardiac action potential.

A
  1. Class IA

Phase 0: Depress
Action potential: increases the duration of the action potential through inhibition of potassium channels.
Examples: Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide.
Rarely used in the UK due to adverse effects.
2. Class IB

Phase 0: Depress
Action potential: decreases the duration of the action potential
Examples: Lidocaine, Phenytoin.
3. Class IC

Phase 0: Markedly depress
Action potential: no effect
Examples: Flecainide.

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9
Q

Adverse effects of class I antiarrhythmics

A

Nausea & vomiting
Negative inotropic effect
Proarrhythmic effects
CNS toxicity (Class IB and IC in particular)
SLE-like syndrome (Procainamide)
Cinchonism (condition caused by Quinidine overdose)

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10
Q

Class II antiarrhythmics are antagonists of catecholamines at beta-adrenoceptors. They possess both negative inotropic and negative chronotropic properties.

They act on the AV node to reduce conduction and have variable selective action on beta-1 receptors (predominantly found in the heart) and beta-2 receptors (predominantly found in the lungs).

Examples: Propranolol, Bisoprolol.

Name the class

A

Beta blockers which act to reduce sympathetic activity.

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11
Q

Mechanism of action of beta blocker

A

Antagonists of catecholamines at beta-adrenoceptors, possessing both negative inotropic and negative chronotropic effects; that is they reduce heart rate and the strength of contractions.

They act on the SA node to reduce the rate of spontaneous depolarisation (and so reducing the heart rate) by decreasing the slope of phase 4. In essence, slowing the spontaneous depolarisation of the pacemaker potential. They also act on the AV node to reduce conduction.

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12
Q

Adverse effects of beta blockers?

A
Postural hypotension
Bradycardia
AV nodal block (heart block)
Bronchoconstriction (a particular consideration in severe asthma and COPD)
Hypoglycaemia
Erectile dysfunction
Insomnia, sleep disturbance
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13
Q

Class III antiarrhythmics - A mixed category of drugs which prolong action potential, typically by blocking potassium channels.

Examples?

A

Class III is a mixed category composed of drugs that prolong cardiac action potential, typically via blocking potassium channels.

Examples: Amiodarone, Sotalol.

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14
Q

Which antiarrhythmics prolong the action potential?

A

A mixed category of drugs which prolong action potential, typically by blocking potassium channels.
Class III is a mixed category composed of drugs that prolong cardiac action potential, typically via blocking potassium channels.

Examples: Amiodarone, Sotalol.

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15
Q

Mechanism of action of class III antiarrhythmics

A

Block potassium channels, which are responsible for the completion of repolarisation (phase 3) in contractile cells. Blockade leads to an extension of the refractory period, through the prolongation of phase 2.

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16
Q

Amiodarone adverse effects

A
Nausea
Constipation
Thyroid dysfunction (see our Hyperthyroidism and Hypothyroidism notes)
Peripheral neuropathy
Photosensitivity
Lung fibrosis
Proarrhythmic effects
Hepatitis / cirrhosis
Potentiates the effects of both digoxin and warfarin.
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17
Q

Non-dihydropyridine CCBs that act to reduce conduction at the AV node.

A
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18
Q

It is the … which are more cardioselective and exhibit anti-arrhythmic effects.

A

It is the non-dihydropyridines which are more cardioselective and exhibit anti-arrhythmic effects.

19
Q

Mechanism of action - calcium channel blockers

A

Non-dihydropyridines CCBs block L-type calcium channels. In autorhythmic cells, these channels bring the pacemaker potential past the threshold and cause spontaneous depolarisation (phase 4 and phase 0). L-type channels are more important in the completion of phase 4 in the AV node than in the SA node (here, depolarisation is more reliant on T-type calcium channels and funny channels).

Similar to beta blockers, non-dihydropyridine CCBs are both negative inotropes and negative chronotropes.

20
Q

Which calcium channel blocker has anti-hypertensive properties? (Dihydropyridine or non-dihydropyridine?)

A

Dihydropyridine - e.g. nifedipine, amlodopine

21
Q

Which calcium channel blocker has anti-arrhythmic properties? (Dihydropyridine or non-dihydropyridine?)

A

non-dihydropyridine

E.g. verapamil, diltiazem

22
Q

Adverse effects of non-dihydropyridine CCBs? (Anti-arrhythmic)

A
Bradycardia
AV nodal block (heart block)
Negative inotropic effect
Constipation
Gum hyperplasia
Headaches, flushing, peripheral oedema - features associated with dihydropyridines (less common with non-dihydropyridines).
23
Q

A number of antiarrhythmics do no fit in the Vaughan-Williams classification. (List 4)

A
24
Q

Digoxin overview

A

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside derived from the foxglove plant. It inhibits a Na+/ K+ -ATPase pump on cardiomyocytes. This pump acts to take sodium out of the cell and pump potassium back, in a ratio of 3:2. This helps drive calcium out of the cell via an exchanger.

This reduction in extracellular calcium results in an increase in intracellular calcium levels. As such, the contraction is more forceful (digoxin is a positive inotrope).

Primarily excreted by the kidneys, care is needed in patients with renal impairment. Digoxin may cause ECG changes including ST depression and T-wave changes. Digoxin toxicity may cause PR prolongation and lead to arrhythmias. In addition, hypokalaemia potentiates the effects of digoxin.

Adverse events are common due to its narrow therapeutic window, these include:

Nausea and vomiting
Visual disturbances (yellow halos, changes to colour perception - see van Gogh’s ‘Starry night’)
Insomnia and sleep disturbance
Proarrhythmic effects
Gynaecomastia (disputed)
25
Q

Adenosine adverse effects

A

Adverse effects:

Sense of impending doom
Bradycardia, AV block
Flushing
Headache
Bronchospasm (avoid use in asthmatics)
26
Q

Adenosine overview

A

Adenosine, a purine nucleoside, acts on the SA node to reduce heart rate and the AV node to slow conduction. It is used primarily to treat supraventricular tachycardias, particularly those with an AV nodal re-entry circuit. It is rapidly metabolised with a half-life of less than 10 seconds.

Adverse effects:

Sense of impending doom
Bradycardia, AV block
Flushing
Headache
Bronchospasm (avoid use in asthmatics)
27
Q

Overview of atropine

A

Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist that can be derived from the deadly nightshade plant. Atropine inhibits vagal activity alleviating parasympathetic depression of SA node activity, and as such the heart rate increases. It can be used to treat sinus bradycardia and AV block.

Adverse effects:

Nausea
Blurred vision
Dilated pupils, photophobia
Dry mouth

28
Q

Magnesium sulfate as a antiarrhtymic?

When is it used? (2)

A

The antiarrhythmic mechanism is poorly understood. Used in the treatment of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (torsades des pointes) and digoxin toxicity dysrhythmias (although is contraindicated in AV block or bradycardia).

29
Q

What can be used to treat sinus bradycardia and AV block?

A

Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist that can be derived from the deadly nightshade plant. Atropine inhibits vagal activity alleviating parasympathetic depression of SA node activity, and as such the heart rate increases. It can be used to treat sinus bradycardia and AV block.

30
Q

It is used primarily to treat supraventricular tachycardias, particularly those with an AV nodal re-entry circuit. It is rapidly metabolised with a half-life of less than 10 seconds. - what is this?

A

Adenosine !
It is used primarily to treat supraventricular tachycardias, particularly those with an AV nodal re-entry circuit. It is rapidly metabolised with a half-life of less than 10 seconds.

31
Q

What antiarrhythmic causes a sense of impending doom?

A
Adenosine 
Sense of impending doom
Bradycardia, AV block
Flushing
Headache
Bronchospasm (avoid use in asthmatics)
32
Q

Digoxin may cause ECG changes including…

A

Digoxin may cause ECG changes including ST depression and T-wave changes. Digoxin toxicity may cause PR prolongation and lead to arrhythmias. In addition, hypokalaemia potentiates the effects of digoxin.

33
Q
Which of the following is not typically associated with verapamil therapy? 
A	Gingival hyperplasia
B	Constipation
C	Hypotension
D	Headaches
E     Xanthopsia
A

Xanthopsia refers to yellowing of vision, which can be a side-effect of digoxin therapy.

34
Q

Which of the following medications is considered a type IV antiarrhythmic on the Vaughan-Williams classification?

A	Amiodarone
B	Propranolol
C	Flecainide
D	Verapamil
E	Lidocaine
A

Verapamil, which is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is a type IV anti arrhythmic.
The Vaughan-Williams classification groups antiarrhythmic drugs into 4 main categories (I-IV). The general mechanisms of each category can be considered by the predominant channel of action.

Class I - block sodium channels
Class II - beta-blockers
Class III - block potassium channels
Class IV - block calcium channels

This can be remembered by the mnemonic ‘Some Block Potassium Channels’.

35
Q

‘Some Block Potassium Channels’.

The Vaughan-Williams classification groups antiarrhythmic drugs into 4 main categories (I-IV)

A

IV). The general mechanisms of each category can be considered by the predominant channel of action.

Class I - block sodium channels
Class II - beta-blockers
Class III - block potassium channels
Class IV - block calcium channels

36
Q

Which of the following trials suggests that flecainide is pro-arrhythmic in patients with pre-existing heart disease?

A	PLATO
B	DIG
C	CONSENSUS
D	ALLHAT
E	CAST
A

The Cardiac Arrhythmia Suppression Trial (CAST) looked at Class IC drugs in the post-myocardial infarction setting.

The trial concluded that there was increased mortality with Class IC antiarrhythmics (e.g. flecainide) in these patients compared to placebo.
This was potentially due to increased pro-arrhythmic effects of class IC agents. As such, they are not used in patients with coronary artery disease. The follow-up CAST II trial showed similar results.

The DIG trial assessed the use of digoxin in heart failure. The CONSENSUS trial assessed the role of enalapril in heart failure. The ALLHAT was a ground-breaking study into the use of different anti-hypertensives in the control of hypertension. The PLATO trial showed that ticagrelor was superior to clopidogrel in the management of acute coronary syndrome.

37
Q

Which of the following blood tests should be completed prior to the initiation of amiodarone?

A	Urea and electrolytes
B	Thyroid function tests
C	Bone profile
D	Full blood count
E	Magnesium
A

Prior to the initiation of amiodarone therapy, bloods for liver function tests (LFTs) and thyroid function tests (TFTs) are required.
Serial blood tests are then required every 6 months.

38
Q

On the Vaughan-Williams classification, amiodarone is which predominant class?

A	Class I
B	Class II
C	Class III
D	Class IV
E	Class V
A
Amiodarone is thought to have wide-ranging effects on cardiomyocytes. However, its predominant mechanism is on potassium channels.
This means amiodarone is categorised as a class III antiarrhythmic agent. By blocking potassium channels, these drugs prolong the action potential.
39
Q

Which of the following antiarrhythmics is most likely to cause prolongation of the QTc?

A	Propranolol
B	Digoxin
C	Verapamil
D	Sotalol
E	Flecainide
A

Sotalol may lead to prolongation of the QTc and should be administered alongside cardiac monitoring (ECG) with measurement of corrected QT interval.

40
Q

What is the pharmacological mechanism for type II antiarrhythmic agents?

A	Inhibition of sodium channels
B	Inhibition of potassium channels
C	Inhibition of adrenergic receptors
D	Inhibition of calcium channels
E	Inhibition of chloride channels
A

Type II antiarrhythmic agents work via the inhibition of beta-adrenergic receptors.
Inhibition exerts both negative inotropy and chronotropy. They also delay conduction through the AV node. They can be useful in the treatment of atrial fibrillation.

41
Q

An 82-year-old woman is bought in by ambulance with reduced consciousness. She is hypotensive and has a blood pressure of 85 mmHg systolic. She is found to be in second-degree heart block and is subsequently given a bolus of atropine.

What is the mechanism of action of atropine?

A Non-selective beta-adrenoreceptor agonist
B Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist
C Reversible muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist
D Calcium channel receptor antagonist
E Relaxation of smooth muscle

A

Atropine is a reversible muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist that blocks the action of the vagus nerve on the sinoatrial node (SAN) and atrioventricular node (AVN).
Atropine transiently blocks the action of the vagus nerve (i.e. parasympathetic nervous system) leading to increased SAN electrical activity and increased conduction through the AVN. This results in an increase in heart rate.

Isoprenaline may also be given in bradyarrhythmias that is a non-selective beta-adrenoreceptor agonist that has both positive inotropic and chronotropic effects on the heart

42
Q

Which of the following is the antiarrhythmic of choice in patients with regular ventricular tachycardia?

A	Atenolol
B    Amiodarone
C	Flecainide
D	Verapamil
E     Adenosine
A

According to the the Resuscitation Council guidelines, the management of regular ventricular tachycardia should be with amiodarone.
An infusion of 300 mg (IV) of amiodarone can be given over 30-60 minutes, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over the next 24 hours.

It is important that anyone presenting with a tachyarrhythmia should be managed with respects to airway, breathing and circulation. Furthermore, any patient presenting with a tachyarrhythmia who has adverse features (e.g. shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure) should be DC cardioverted. If at any point they become unresponsive, then the advanced life support (ALS) algorithm should be followed.

43
Q

Which of the following terms best describes a delay in condition through the AV node?

A	Negative chronotropy
B	Negative dromotropy
C	Negative inotropy
D	Positive bathmotropy
E	Negative lusitropy
A

Dromotropy - conduction speed in the AV node
Chronotropy - alteration in heart rate
Inotropy - alteration in contractility
Bathmotropy - modification in excitability of cardiomyocytes
Lusitropy - refers to myocardial relaxation

44
Q

A 64-year-old gentleman presents to the acute medical unit with community-acquired pneumonia. While recovering on the ward, he develops palpitations and tachycardia. The nurse hands you an ECG that shows fast atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 140 bpm. He has a background of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease.

What would be the most appropriate pharmacological agent to slow his heart rate?

A	Amiodarone
B	Metoprolol
C	Verapamil
D	Adenosine
E	Adrenaline (1 in 10,000)
A

he treatment of a patient with fast atrial fibrillation should be with a beta-blocker (e.g. bisoprolol or metoprolol) or calcium-channel blocker (e.g. verapamil or diltiazem).
An alternative treatment option may be digoxin. This is useful in patients where there is concern about the heart function (e.g. reduced systolic blood pressure).

Importantly, if there is evidence of adverse features (e.g. shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure) then patients require DC cardioversion as per the Resuscitation Council guidance on the management of arrhythmias.

Adenosine is used in the treatment of regular supraventricular tachycardias. Adrenaline 1 in 10000 is used during advanced life support (ALS) and can be found on the crash trolley.