Anti-Epileptics Flashcards

1
Q

What are seizures?

A
  • self sustaining and self timing episodes of synchronized neural hyperactivity that can be detected by EEG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes seizures or epilepsy?

A
  • brain trauma - enough neurons die which can lead to excitotoxicity
  • brain tumours
  • stroke, CV events –> brain starved of O2 –> cell death –> release of glutamate
  • brain infection, meningitis, fever - body makes antibody receptors against the brain
  • medications
  • alcohol withdrawal
  • hormone fluctuations
  • idiopathic epilepsy: hereditary but the cause is unknown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does the EEG pattern differ between a normal pattern, absence seizure and tonic clonic?

A

normal
- no synchrony between neurons firing
- sum of neurons is low amplitude

absence seizure
- typical spike and wave pattern but there is synchrony between neurons so there is a larger sum
- all electrodes along cortex picking up seizures

tonic clonic
- a lot of neural activity and no synchrony, very high constant spiking through whole cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Absence seizures

A
  • general
  • briefly unconciosu, blank stare, no memory of attack
  • less than 30 seconds
  • 3 per second spike and wave throughpout whole brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

tonic clonic seizures

A
  • general
  • unconscious, dramatic convulsions, no memory of attack
  • lasts less than 5 minutes (more then 5 is status elepticus)
  • constant spiking throughout whole cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Simple partial seizure

A
  • conscious (cortex still working), memory of attack, sensory/motor/emotion symptoms representative of where it is
  • duration varies
  • localized spiking in neocotical or limbic area of brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Complex partial seizure

A
  • conscious but unresponsive, automastisms, no memory of attack
  • begins locoalized but spreads over time - can become tonic clonic with no intervention
  • duration varies
  • localized then spreading spiking in one or both temporal lobes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the adverse outcomes of not managing epilepsy?

A
  • difficulty learning
  • breathing in food and saliva into lungs during seizure which causes aspiration pneumonia
  • injury from falls, biting and driving during seizure
  • permanent brain damage
  • death from seizure
  • death from suicide from depression associated with epilepsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the mechanism by which seizures cause cell death through glutamate

A

seizures cause the release of glutamate which acts on
- NMDA receptors: opens receptor operated Ca channels
- AMPA: upon membrane depolarization, AMPA can be triggered to open voltage gated Ca channels even though they usually doesn’t let Ca through
- metabotropic receptors: GPCRs release Ca from endoplasmic reticulum

this increases Ca inside the cell which activates Ca dependent enzymes which results in
- lipid peroxidation
- proteolysis
- free radical formation
- DNA damage
- damage to mitochondria –> impairs respiration

this results in cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the classes of glutamate receptors

A
  • AMPA
  • NMDA
  • metabotropic receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does activation differ in epilepsy?

A
  • in normal balance IPSPs and EPSPs are regulated
  • usually want to promote inhibition or decrease inhibition
  • can act on sodium potassium ion channel to promote excitation and promote hyperpolarization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the NT ion channel therapeutic targets?

A

GABA - inhibitory
Glutamate and acetylcholine - excitattory
- can regulate the synaptic enzymes
- regulated by levels of activity of neuron, production, packing, release and clearance of NTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Voltage gated ion channels as therapeutic targets to reduce neuron excitability

A
  • sodium ion channels: role in propagation of AP, blocking Na channels blocks electrical activation
  • K ion channels: repolarization/hyperpolarization of membrane along the neuron and at terminal
  • Ca channels: trigger NT release,
  • Cl channels: can block them so resting potential is lower so it will not be excited as easily
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4 possible MOA for different anti-seizure medication

A
  1. modulate voltage dependent sodium channels to make them less active –> less able to propagate AP which decrease excitability
  2. modulate GABAa or GABAergic transmission –> increase GABA which is inhibitory which makes the cell less excitable
  3. negative modulate voltage gated calcium channels –> role in NT release so if you negatively modulate it the cell will be less excitable, calcium channels in the thalamus are very important in absence seizures
  4. broad spectrum drugs with multiple targets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drugs modulate voltage dependent sodium channels at the glutamate synapse?

A

Block VGNaC, presynaptic
- phenytoin (very prescribed)
- carbamazepine
- lamotrigine
- felbamate

  • valproate –> acts through multiple targets and acts epigenetically to regulate gene expression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What drugs facilliate GABAa and GABAergic transmission?

A

agonist: topiramate (promote GABAa activation, post synaptic)

PAM: barbiturates –> phenylbarbitol, benzodiazepines –> diazepam, clonazapam, lorazopam (promote GABAa activation, post synaptic)

Prevents GABA reuptake: tiagabine (blocks GAT-1, presynaptic)

Blocks degradation of GABA: vigabatrin (antagonist of GABA-T enzyme that degrades GABA, presynaptic)

Increases GABA synthesis: gabapentin, pregobalin

17
Q

What drugs negatively modulate voltage gated calcium channels - inhibit/block and which Ca channels at glutamate synapse?

A

Block VGCC, presynaptic
- ethosuximide: inhibits VGCC in the thalamus –> T type Ca channel –> first line treatment for absence seizures
- gabapentin: blocks VGCCs
- lamotrigine

18
Q

Which drugs block post synaptic AMPA receptors at the glutamate synapse?

A

phenobarbital, topiramate, lamotrigine

19
Q

What broad spectrum drugs with multiple targets can be used as anti seizure medication?

A
  • lamotrigine*
  • carbamazepine*
  • zonisamide
  • topiramate
  • valproate

*drugs used to treat bipolar disorder (antipsychotics) –> this may mean that the genes that predispose someone to BP also put them at risk of epilepsy

20
Q

Which drugs are used for the different kinds of seizures?

A

Partial
- simple complex and tonic-clonic seizures
- phenytoin, carbamazepine, gabapentin

Generalized
- tonic clonic, myoclonic, atonic, absence
- only absence is treated with ETHOSUXIMIDE
- all treated with valproic acid

all seizures are then treated with
- lamotrigine, felbamate, topiramate

21
Q

Drug interactions of phenytoin, phenobarbital and valproate

A
  • alcohol is contra indication for all

phenytoin
- decreases effectiveness of oral contraceptives, anticoagulants, carbamazepine, steroidal anti inflammatory drugs because it increases their metabolism
- potential inducer of CYPs
- pharmacokinetics affected by drugs that displace it from serum albumin including antiseizure drugs –> this would make it have a stronger effect bc it is more bioavailable

phenobarbital
- same drug interactions as phenytoin (not phamacokinetics)
- inducer of CYPs

valproate
- increases serum levels of phenytoin
- valproate and aspirin/warfarin cause reduce clotting and spontaneous blleding
- inhibitor of CYPs

22
Q

Common adverse effects of anti seizure medication

A
  • somnolescence - decreased acitvty of neurons in reticular formation
  • GI upset: actions on ANS - depressed activity of cholinergc neurons activating GI tract
  • cognitive impairment and memory problems: depressed activity of cortical neurons
  • physical dependence/withdrawal: CNS adapts to depressive actions of drugs, abrupt discontinuation can cause seizures
23
Q

What does anesthesia represent?

A
  • immobility to the point of no reflexive movements
  • amnesia
  • consciosuness
24
Q

How is immobility acheived in anesthesia

A
  • spinal reflexes cause twitching and muscle jerks in response to cut –> use muscle relaxants
  • immobility and loss of reflexes is easy to measure and monitor for proper level of anesthesia
  • neural inhibition of spinal cord
25
Q

How is amnesia acheived in anesthesia?

A
  • want to prevent explicit memory of surgery and implicit memory (collected from sensory systems that doesn’t reach consciousness - not remebered byt recorded)
  • reduce firing in hippocampus, amygdala, prefrontal cortex, sensory and motor cortex
26
Q

How is consciousness changed in anesthesia?

A
  • personal awarness is mediated by cortex, thalamus and reticular formation
  • anesthetics prevents a person from remebering at an unconcsious level
27
Q

A) To achieve surgical anesthesia a drug must:

B) is this acheivable?

A
  • render patient unconsious
  • immobilie patient to suppress reflex movements and relax skeletal muscles
  • have amnestic properties

B) no one drug can do all these things

28
Q

How are anesthetics administered? What drugs are used? What do they act on?

A
  • inhaled or injected, usually a combination is used
  • low dose of injected is used and then topped off with inhaled
  • inhaled are easier to reverse and adjust dose

injected
- propofol (rapidly metabolized so reverse of OD is easy), thiopental, diazepam, lorazepam –> GABA agonists
- ketamine –> blocks NMDA receptor –> dissociative anesthetic

inhaled
- sevoflurane, desflurane, isoflurane, helothane –> GABA agonists
- nitrous oxide

29
Q

What is a common anesthetic regimen?

A
  • BNZ prior to surgery to reduce anxiety and it is a muscle relaxant and sedative –> diazepam, lorazepam
  • propofol IV to induce anesthesia - rapidly metabolized by liver and can be continuous infused
  • inhaled anesthetic to maintain surgical plane of anesthesia –> sevoflurane
  • opioid to provide analgesia (too much can cause stiff chest, contribute to tolerance, and lessen effectiveness of post op opioids)