Anti-emetics Flashcards

1
Q

Classes of anti-emetics

A

Corticosteroids, serotonin 5-HT3 antagonist, Neurokinin-R antagoinst, Dopamine-R antagonist, anticholinergics, antihistamine/anticholinergic, antipsychotics, benzodiazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Corticosteriods

A

Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MoA of corticosteroids

A

Basis of anti-emetic effect unknown

Used with 5-HT3 antagonist for acute & delayed CINV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SE of corticosteroids

A

Unlikely with short-term use.

Long term use (>2w) –> iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome (rounded face, muscle wasting, easy bruising, immunosuppression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5-HT3 antagonist

A

Ondansetron (1G), Palonosetron (2G)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MoA of 5-HT3 antagonist

A

Acts on GIT 5-HT3 receptors –> prevents activation of vomiting centre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Use of 5-HT3 antagonist

A

Use with corticosteroid, NK-R antagonist

Prevents acute CINV not delayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SE of 5-HT3 antagonist

A

Generally well-tolerated but may cause h/a, dizziness, constipation
Ondansetron: dose reduction with hepatic insufficiency, small risk of arrhythmia
CYP450 metabolism — clearance may be affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neurokinin receptor antagonist

A

Aprepitant (use with CS, 5-HT3 antagonist for acute AND delayed CINV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MoA of NK-R antagonist

A

Act on NK-1 receptor in area postrema of CTZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SE of NK-R antagonist

A

Fatigue, dizziness, diarrhoea

CYP3A4 metabolism —can be affected by inhibitors such as verapamil, ritonavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dopamine receptor antagonist

A

Metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MoA of Dopa-R antagonist

A

D2 receptor antagonism blocks CTZ from detecting toxins –> Decreased N&V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SE of Dopa-R antagonist

A

Extrapyramidal SE: restlessness, Parkinsonian Sx especially in elderly
LT use can cause irreversible tardive dyskinesia
Elevated prolactin levels (gynaecomastia, galactorrhoea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anticholinergics

A

Hyoscine/Scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MoA of anticholinergics

A

Act on vestibular system and vomiting centre

17
Q

Use of anticholinergics

A

PREVENT motion sickness

18
Q

SE of anticholinergics

A

Typical anticholinergic effect such as urinary retention, dry mouth, BoV
SE can be reduced by transdermal patch than oral

19
Q

Mixed H1 antihistamine, anticholinergic

A

Diphenhydramine

20
Q

MoA of antihistamine/anticholinergic

A

H1 and M1 receptor antagonism –> acts on vestibular system and vomiting centre to stop motion sickness

21
Q

Use of antihistamine/anticholinergic

A

TREAT motion sickness

Due to sedative effect of antihistamine, useful for CINV

22
Q

SE of antihistamine/anticholinergic

A

Sedation (antihistamine component), anticholinergic effects

23
Q

Antipsychotics

A

Prochlorperazine (D/Musc/H anta), Droperidol (D/weak H), olanzapine

24
Q

Use of olanzapine

A

For delayed CINV

25
Q

MoA of antipsychotics

A

D2 receptor antagonism @ CTZ
Musc antagonism @ vestibular system, vomiting centre
Weak H1 antagonism

26
Q

SE of antipsychotics

A

Sedation, EPSE (less with olanzapine), prolonged QT interval (Droperidol)

27
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Lorazepam, diazepam

28
Q

MoA of BZD

A

Bind to allosteric site of GABA receptor –> Cl conductance, potentiate GABA action

29
Q

SE of BZD

A

Sedation, respiratory depression if OD

30
Q

Contraindication of BZD

A

Pregnancy (especially 1st trimester due to increased risk of cleft palate)