Antenatal Screening Flashcards

1
Q

Describe morning sickness

A

Affects around 80-85% of women

Worse in conditions where Human Chorionic gonadotrophin is higher eg. twins, molar pregnancy

Can progress to hyperemesis gravidarum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Severe nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, often requiring hospital admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe cardiac pregnancy problems

A

Cardiac output increases by 30-50%

HR increases from 70-90bpm

Palpitations are common

At term blood flow to uterus must exceed 1L/min

Blood pressure drops in second trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why does the blood pressure drop in the second trimester?

A
  • expansion of uteroplacental circulation
  • fall in systemic vascular resistance
  • reduction in blood viscosity
  • reduction in sensitivity to angiotensin

BP usually returns to normal in third trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe urinary problems in pregnancy

A

Increased urine output

  • renal plasma flow raises by 25-50%
  • GFR increases by 50%
  • some urea and creatinine decrease

UTI

  • increase in urinary stasis
  • hydronephrosis physiological in third trimester and make pyelonephritis more common
  • can be assoc. with preterm labour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe haematology in pregnancy

A

Plasma volume increases by ~50% and RBC mass by ~25%

Results in drop in haemoglobin by dilution from 133-121g/L

Iron requirements are increased 1g during pregnancy

WBC increases slightly to 9000-12000/uL

Platelet count falls by dilution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Respiratory changes in pregnancy

A

Progesterone reduces CO2

  • raised tidal volume
  • raised resp rate
  • raised plasma pH

O2 consumption rasied by 20%

Plasma PO2 unchanged

Hyperaemia of resp mucus membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe GI changes in pregnancy

A

Oesophageal peristalsis is reduced

Gastric emptying slows

Cardiac sphincter relaxes

GI motility is reduced due to raised progesterone and reduced motilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is involved in the ideal pre-pregnancy counselling?

A

General health measures

  • improve diet
  • optimise BMI
  • reduce alcohol consumption

Smoking cessation advice

Folic acid; 400mcg

Optimise maternal health, consider psychiatric health, previous pregnancy problems

Stop/change unsuitable drugs

Occasionally advise AGAINST pregnancy; i.e. diabetes or epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What previous pregnancy problems should be considered when counselling women about getting pregnant?

A

Maternal
- Counsel regarding risk of recurrence; c-section, DVT, pre-eclampsia

  • actions to reduce recurrence risk; thromboprophylaxis, low dose aspirin

Fetal
- counsel regarding recurrence risk; pre-term delivery, intrauterine growth restriction, fetal abnormality

  • actions to reduce recurrence risk; treat infection, high dose folic acid, low dose aspirin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is carried out in a routine antenatal examination?

A

Routine enquiry; feeling well, movements? (after 20 weeks)

BP; detect evolving hypertension

Urinalysis; protein in urine sign of pre-eclampsia

Abdominal palpation; assess SFH, estimate size of baby, estimate liquid vol, determine foetal presentation, listen to foetal heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is symphyseal fundal height?

A

aka SFH

Measured from top of uterus to pubic symphysis and roughly corresponds to gestation age when measured in cms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe screening for infection in pregnant women

A
  • Hep B; if infected can provide passive and active immunisation for baby
  • Syphilis; easily treated with penicillin
  • HIV; maternal treatment and careful planning reduces vertical transmission
  • MSSU; UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe screening for anaemia and isoimmunisation in pregnancy

A

Iron deficiency anaemia

Isoimmunisation

  • rhesus disease
  • anti-c, anti-Kell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the purpose of the first visit US scan?

A
  • ensure pregnancy viable
  • multiple pregnancy
  • identify abnormalities incompatible with life
  • offer and carry out Down’s Syndrome Screening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a detailed anomaly scan used for?

A
  • systemic structural review of baby
  • not possible to identify all problems
  • can identify problems that need intrauterine or postnatal treatment
17
Q

Describe Down’s Syndrome Screening

A

Overall risk is 1 in 100

Usual cut-off for ‘high risk’ is 1 in 150

Maternal age increases risk;

  • 1 in 1667 at 20yrs
  • 1 in 30 at 45yrs

Various screening tests available; women and partners must be aware that screening only provides RISK

Further testing to determine if definitively affected

18
Q

Describe first trimester screening for Down’s Syndrome

A

Carried out at 10-14 weeks gestation

Uses maternal risk factors;

  • serum b-hCG
  • PAPP-A

Use foetal nuchal translucency

19
Q

What is PAPP-A?

A

Pregnancy Associated Plasma Protein A

Used for detecting risk of Down’s Syndrome in foetus

20
Q

What is the detection rate for Down’s Syndrome using screening?

A

Trisomy 21 of ~90%

21
Q

When is NT measurement taken?

A

Between Crown Rump Lengths of 45-84mm

22
Q

When is further testing offered in response to Down’s Syndrome screening results?

A

If risk is > 1 in 150

Options are

  • CVS
  • amniocentesis
  • non-invasive prenatal testing
23
Q

When is CVS carried out?

A

Between 10-14 weeks

~1-2% risk of miscarriage

24
Q

When is amniocentesis carried out?

A

15 weeks onwards

~1% risk of miscarriage

25
Q

What is non-invasive prenatal testing?

A

Maternal blood taken

  • can detect foetal cell free DNA
  • can look for chromosomal trisomies
  • if high risk invasive testing still recommended to confirm
26
Q

What is the second trimester US used for?

A

To detect foetal abnormality

Good test for major structural abnormalities but poor for chromosomal abnormalities