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Anki PLC Q's > Anki PLC Q's List 4 > Flashcards

Anki PLC Q's List 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Is ‘taking without consent’ a ‘summary only’ or ‘indictable’ offence?

A

summary only

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2
Q

Is fraud a ‘summary only’ or ‘indictable’ offence?

A

indictable

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3
Q

Is ‘making off without payment a ‘summary only’ or ‘indictable’ offence?

A

indictable

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4
Q

Is there a power under s.17 of PACE to enter a premises for the purpose of arresting for the Road Traffic Act offence of failing to stop for an officer in uniform?

A

yes this is a specified (summary) offence

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5
Q

Is there a power under s.17 of PACE to enter a premises for the purpose of arresting for the Road Traffic Act offence of failing to stop at an accident?

A

no

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6
Q

Does s.17 of PACE allow police to enter a premises to arrest for a s.4 Public Order Act offence?

A

yes it is a specified (summary) offence

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7
Q

Does s.17 of PACE give police a power of entry in relation to executing an arrest warrant for a summary only offence such as disqualified driving?

A

yes any arrest warrant arising from criminal proceedings

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8
Q

Which term describes the relationship an arrested person must have to the premises to be searched using s.18 PACE powers?

A

‘occupied or controlled by’

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9
Q

May a premises search under s.32 ever be lawfully commenced by an officer who returns to the address after booking the suspect into police custody?

A

no this power is to be used upon arrest rather than some time latersee R v Badham 1987

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10
Q

Where property has been unlawfully seized from an address, may police retain the property under s.22 of PACE on the basis that it is in fact evidence in relation to an offence?

A

No see R. v. Chief Constable of Lancashire ex parte Parker 1997

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11
Q

Where documents have been unlawfully seized from an address and police make copies of these since they are of evidential value, are such copies automatically inadmissible as evidence?

A

no this would be at the discretion of the judge see s.78 PACE (and R. v. Chief Constable of Lancashire ex parte Parker 1997)

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12
Q

S.22 of PACE designates certain key purposes for which property may be retained by police. Which of these is not one of those purposes?

A

for forensic examination for use as evidence for further investigation for intelligence purposes for intelligence purposes

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13
Q

When applying for an ‘all premises’ search warrant under s.15 of PACE, there is a safeguard requiring the justice of the peace to be satisfied that something is not reasonably practicable. What is that?

A

to specify all the premises occupied or controlled

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14
Q

According to s.16 of PACE, in which circumstances would the written authority of an Inspector (or above) be necessary before entering and searching a premises using an ‘all premises’ warrant?

A

when that premises is not specified on the warrant

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15
Q

Once sufficient grounds have been established to show that entry to and search of a premises is a necessary step in an investigation, at least one of four further condition must be met before a section 8 PACE search warrant may be issued. One of those could even apply when a person could be present who would allow entry. What is that condition?

A

reasonable grounds for believing the search would be frustrated/prejudiced unless immediate entry could be secureds.8 (3)(d)

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16
Q

Once sufficient grounds have been established to show that entry to and search of a premises is a necessary step in an investigation, at least one of four further condition must be met before a section 8 PACE search warrant may be issued. One of those could even apply when there was no particular urgency or risk to the investigation and a cooperative person entitled to grant access to the premises could be communicated with to arrange entry. What is this condition?

A

reasonable grounds to believe that it is not practicable to communicate with any person able to grant access to the evidence.

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17
Q

Once sufficient grounds have been established to show that entry to and search of a premises is a necessary step in an investigation, at least one of four further condition must be met before a section 8 PACE search warrant may be issued. One of those could even apply when there was no particular urgency or risk to the investigation and a person entitled to grant access to both the premises and the evidence could be communicated with to request access. What is this condition?

A

when there are grounds to believe entry would not be granted

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18
Q

Which term could be defined as a large social grouping in the same geographical territory and subject to the same political authority and cultural expectations?

A

society

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19
Q

Which type of personal authority could be defined as authority from knowledge?

A

epistemic

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20
Q

Which type of personal authority has the alternative label of charismatic authority?

A

natural

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21
Q

Which type of personal authority could be defined as authority that exists as a matter of convention (rather than right)?

A

de facto

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22
Q

Which type of personal authority could be defined as authority as a matter of legal right?

A

de jure (which means from right)

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23
Q

Which type of personal authority could be defined as authority that arises from a moral high ground?

A

moral

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24
Q

Which type of personal authority is derived from personality and demeanour?

A

natural

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25
Q

Which term could be defined as all the people living in a specific locality?

A

a community

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26
Q

Which term describes locations where police officers are trained by placing them in situations involving members of the public and in public locations?

A

community learning sites

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27
Q

Which term could be defined as the connectedness and solidarity among groups in society?

A

social cohesion

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28
Q

Which term could be defined as the unfair treatment of a person or group based on stereotyping or prejudice?

A

discrimination

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29
Q

Which term could be defined as an assumption or belief based upon inadequate supporting information?

A

prejudice

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30
Q

Which element of prejudice might be described as the emotional element of the prejudice, i.e. the feelings of the person with the prejudice?

A

the affective element

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31
Q

Why are the Disability Discrimination Act, the Race Relations Act and various other pieces of anti-discrimination legislation no longer in force?

A

they have been replaced by the Equality Act 2010

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32
Q

What are the 9 protected characteristics of the Equality Act 2010?

A

Race, Sex, Sexual Orientation, Age, Transgender, Disability, Religion/Belief, Pregnancy/Maternity, Marriage/Civil Partnership status

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33
Q

Which element of the PESTEL model would include the change of policing practices as a result of a court ruling on the use of bail?

A

Legal (changes in society)

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34
Q

Which element of the PESTEL model would include the change of policing practices as a result of widespread use use of smartphones during riots?

A

Technological changes in society

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35
Q

Which element of the PESTEL model would include the police response to the threat of increased theft during a period of lower benefits and wages whilst prices rise?

A

Economic changes in society

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36
Q

What is the definition of a ‘racist incident’ as used by the Macpherson Report?

A

one perceived to be racist by the victim or any other person

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37
Q

What is the definition of a hate crime as defined by ACPO?

A

a criminal offence perceived by the victim or any other person as motivated by prejudice or hate

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38
Q

May an incident be classified as a racist incident when this is against the wishes of the victim?

A

yes

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39
Q

May an indoor verbal abuse incident ever be classified as a ‘hate crime’ when there is no indication of any criminal offence?

A

no it may be a hate incident though

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40
Q

Would it ever be appropriate to record an incident as a racial incident when there was no observable demonstration of any prejudice?

A

yes it is the perception of the person thinking it is a racist incident that counts

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41
Q

Which term is defined as the difference between the fear of crime and the actual level of crime?

A

the reassurance gap

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42
Q

Which term is defined as any criminal incident that causes a change in the public’s behaviour or perception of security?

A

a signal crime

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43
Q

Which term is defined as any act that breaches social order conventions and signifies the presence of other risks?

A

signal disorder

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44
Q

Signal crime and signal disorder are deemed to consist of three elements. What are they?

A

Expression content and effect

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45
Q

Which element of a signal crime involves either experiencing it first hand, reading or hearing about it expression
Which element of a signal crime is described as the meaning of the incident to the person concerned?”

A

content

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46
Q

Which element of a signal crime is defined as the change brought about by the incident and how, as a result of perceived threats, people feel and behave?

A

the effect

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47
Q

What is the ‘S’ of the SARA approach to community problem solving?

A

‘Scan’ (and spot problems)

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48
Q

What is the first ‘A’ of the SARA approach to community problem solving?

A

Analyse (to gain a deeper understanding)

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49
Q

What is the ‘R’ of the SARA approach to community problem solving?

A

Respond

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50
Q

What is the second ‘A’ of the SARA approach to community problem solving?

A

Assess (results and outcomes)

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51
Q

Was the establishment of the NPIA brought about by the Police and Magistrates Court Act 1994 or the Police and Justice Act 2006?

A

Police and Justice Act 2006

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52
Q

Was the formation of more compact Police Authorities brought about by the Police and Magistrates Court Act 1994 or the Police and Justice Act 2006?

A

Police and Magistrates Courts Act 1994

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53
Q

Was the granting of powers to the Home Secretary for setting national policing priorities for the first time brought about by the Police and Magistrates Court Act 1994 or the Police and Justice Act 2006?

A

Police and Magistrates Court Act 1994

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54
Q

Was the extension of a Special Constable’s powers to the whole of the UK brought about by the Police and Magistrates Court Act 1994 or the Police and Justice Act 2006?

A

Police and Justice Act 2006

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55
Q

Was the standardisation of PCSO powers brought about by the Police and Magistrates Court Act 1994 or the Police and Justice Act 2006?

A

Police and Justice Act 2006

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56
Q

Was the removal of the need to gain the consent of the Chief Constable before the appointment of civilian Police Authority staff brought about by the Police and Magistrates Court Act 1994 or the Police and Justice Act 2006?

A

Police and Justice Act 2006

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57
Q

The Human Rights Act places requirements upon the police with regard to actions that interfere with human rights. These are summarised in the mnemonic PLAN. What does the P stand for?

A

Proportionality

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58
Q

The Human Rights Act places requirements upon the police with regard to actions that interfere with human rights. These are summarised in the mnemonic PLAN. What does the L stand for?

A

Legality

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59
Q

The Human Rights Act places requirements upon the police with regard to actions that interfere with human rights. These are summarised in the mnemonic PLAN. What does the A stand for?

A

Accountability

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60
Q

The Human Rights Act places requirements upon the police with regard to actions that interfere with human rights. These are summarised in the mnemonic PLAN. What does the N stand for?

A

Necessity

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61
Q

Which category of Human Rights Act articles may be legitimately infringed on the basis of public safety or national security?

A

Qualified rights

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62
Q

Which category of Human Rights Act articles may not be legitimately infringed on the basis of public safety or national security?

A

Absolute rights

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63
Q

What must any infringement of a Qualified Right seek to achieve or promote?

A

A legitimate aim

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64
Q

Which Human Rights Act term refers to neither party in either civil or criminal trials being procedurally disadvantaged?

A

Equality of Arms

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65
Q

Which Human Rights Act term refers to the European Court of Human Rights ability to allow some differing interpretations of the Convention between different states, and the requirement for judges to take into account cultural, historical and philosophical differences?

A

Margin of Appreciation

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66
Q

Which Human Rights Act term refers to the duty of states to ensure that individual rights are adhered to by government authorities?

A

Positive Obligation

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67
Q

Which Human Rights Act term, when applied to a police interference with a right, implies a pressing social need and proportionality to a legitimate aim?

A

necessity

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69
Q

Which legislation permits the use of reasonable force by anyone in the prevention of crime, effecting or assisting in the lawful arrest of offenders etc?

A

s.3 of the Criminal Law Act 1967

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70
Q

Certain Human Rights Act articles are legal safeguards to those having force used upon them by the police. Which of those articles relate to lethal force in particular?

A

2 Right to life

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71
Q

Certain Human Rights Act articles are legal safeguards to those having force used upon them by the police. Which of those articles relates to forcing someone into police custody particular?

A

5 - Liberty and security

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72
Q

Certain Human Rights Act articles are legal safeguards to those having force used upon them by the police. Which of those articles relates to forcing someone to do some kind of work?

A

4 - Prohibition of slavery and servitude

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73
Q

Certain Human Rights Act articles are legal safeguards to those having force used upon them by the police. Which of those articles relates to using force as a punishment or to extract confessions?

A

3 - Prohibition of torture or inhuman or degrading treatment

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74
Q

Certain Human Rights Act articles are legal safeguards to those having force used upon them by the police. Which of those articles relates to the use of force to enter and search someone’s home?

A

8- Right to private and family life

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75
Q

Certain Human Rights Act articles are legal safeguards to those having force used upon them by the police. Which of those articles relates to the use of force to confiscate leaflets being distributed?

A

10 Right to freedom of expression

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76
Q

Certain Human Rights Act articles are legal safeguards to those having force used upon them by the police. Which of those articles relates to the use of force to disperse groups?

A

11 - right to freedom of assembly

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77
Q

Would a private property developer be considered a public authority for the purposes of the Human Rights Act?

A

no

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78
Q

Would a newspaper corporation be considered a public authority for the purposes of the Human Rights Act?

A

no privately owned acting in a private capacity

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79
Q

Would a court be considered a public authority for the purposes of the Human Rights Act?

A

yes

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80
Q

Would a privately owned company collecting household waste on behalf of the local authority be considered a public authority for the purposes of the Human Rights Act?

A

yes

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81
Q

Would a private security company that transports prisoners be considered a public authority for the purposes of the Human Rights Act?

A

yes

82
Q

Is a breach of the Human Rights Act considered a criminal offence in its own right?

A

no

83
Q

May person who is not the victim (directly or indirectly) of a human rights breach ever bring proceedings against a public authority?

A

no

84
Q

Which of the Police’s common purposes and values relates to situations of public disorder?

A

to keep the Queen’s peace

85
Q

Which of the Police’s common purposes is missing from this list?

A

-to uphold the law fairly and firmly-to pursue and bring to justice those who break the law-to keep the Queen’s peace-to protect help and reassure the community to prevent crime

86
Q

Which of the Police’s common purposes is missing from this list?

A

-to prevent crime-to pursue and bring to justice those who break the law-to keep the Queen’s peace-to protect help and reassure the community to uphold the law fairly and firmly

87
Q

Which of the Police’s common purposes is missing from this list?

A

-to uphold the law fairly and firmly-to prevent crime-to keep the Queen’s peace-to protect help and reassure the community to pursue and bring to justice those who break the law

88
Q

May a breach of the Human Rights Act ever be used as a defence in criminal proceedings?

A

yes

89
Q

Which Public Inquiry report contributed to the introduction of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act?

A

The Scarman Report

90
Q

Which Public Inquiry report lead to reform in police family-liaison roles for serious crime?

A

The Macpherson Report

91
Q

Which Public Inquiry report lead to the Introduction of a National Child Database?

A

The Laming Report

92
Q

Which Public Inquiry report lead to the introduction of independent reviews of complaints against the police?

A

The Scarman Report

93
Q

Which Public Inquiry report recommended a Ministerial priority to increase trust and confidence in policing amongst minority ethnic communities”?”

A

The Macpherson Report

94
Q

Which Public Inquiry report advised that the Police should lead in child protection criminal investigations?

A

The Laming Report

95
Q

Which Public Inquiry report lead to a legal requirement for police to consult local communities for the first time?

A

The Scarman Report

96
Q

Which Public Inquiry report encouraged the police to challenge the decisions of other agencies in some circumstances?

A

The Laming Report

97
Q

Which Public Inquiry report introduced a definition of ‘critical incidents’?

A

The Macpherson report The workshop slides attribute this to the Scarman report (incorrectly)

98
Q

When a person, having entered a vehicle, attempts to take it without consent or other lawful authority, what offence would they be guilty of?

A

Vehicle interference

99
Q

May the offence of ‘vehicle interference’ be proved on the basis of interference with intent to steal property inside the vehicle?

A

yes

100
Q

May the offence of ‘vehicle interference’ be proved on the basis of interference with intent to take a goods trailer attached to the vehicle without consent?

A

no

101
Q

May the offence of ‘vehicle interference’ be proved on the basis of interference with intent to steal property inside a car’s goods trailer?

A

yes

102
Q

May the offence of ‘vehicle interference’ be proved on the basis of interference with intent to steal a vehicle’s trailer?

A

yes

103
Q

May the offence of ‘vehicle interference’ be proved if there is no evidence that any vehicle, trailer or property thereon was actually touched?

A

no this falls outside the ordinary meaning of ‘interferes’

104
Q

May the offence of ‘going equipped’ be proved when the only article involved is intended solely for the concealment of identity during a theft?

A

yes this would be for use in the course of stealing

105
Q

May the offence of ‘going equipped’ be proved when the only article involved is intended solely to assist in getting away after a theft?

A

yes this would be “for use in the course of or in connection with”

106
Q

What restrictions/requirements do the Motor Vehicles (Driving Licences) Regulations 1999 place upon provisional licence holders when driving a car?

A

(3) must not draw a trailermust display clearly visible L plates front and backmust be supervised by a ‘qualified driver’

107
Q

Motor Vehicles (Driving Licences) Regulations 1999 allows supervision of provisional licence holder by ‘qualified drivers.’ What is the experience requirement of this qualification?

A

to have held a licence for that type of vehicle for a minimum of 3 years

108
Q

Other than the requirements for other classes of vehicles, what additional restriction does the Motor Vehicles (Driving Licences) Regulations 1999 place upon the riding of learner motorcycles by provisional licence holders?

A

No other person may be carried

109
Q

The Motor Vehicles (Driving Licences) Regulations 1999 allow provisional licence holders to ride learner motorcycles unsupervised in which circumstances?

A

When the learner has a valid Compulsory Basic Training certificate

110
Q

What is the minimum legal insurance requirement for users of motor vehicles?

A

insurance against 3rd party risks of injury and property damage

111
Q

In which locations do the minimum legal insurance requirements for users of motor vehicles apply?

A

Road and other public places

112
Q

S.144A of the Road traffic Act 1988 makes it an offence of keeping vehicle which does not meet insurance requirements. If an uninsured vehicle is identified, who may be guilty of this offence?

A

The registered keeper only

113
Q

May the S.144A of the Road traffic Act 1988 offence of keeping vehicle which does not meet insurance requirements apply to vehicles that are not registered under the Vehicle Excise and Registration Act?

A

no

114
Q

S.144A of the Road traffic Act 1988 makes it an offence of keeping vehicle which does not meet insurance requirements. Would a policy that did not specify the registration mark of the vehicle in question ever fulfil the insurance requirement?

A

no

115
Q

When a driver of an uninsured vehicle does is not the owner or hirer, in which circumstances, if any, would there be a defence to a ‘no insurance’ charge?

A

Driven in course of employment AND no reason to believe it was uninsured

116
Q

When a person drives a friend’s car for social reasons and turns out to be uninsured to do so, in what circumstances, if any, is there a statutory defence to the charge of no insurance?

A

none

117
Q

Which categories of vehicles are required to undergo annual tests for road-worthiness within three years of first registration?

A

PCVs (>8 passenger seats) Licensed Taxis and Ambulances

118
Q

Under which circumstances may an old vehicle without a test certificate be legally driven to a location for testing purposes?

A

When such testing has been pre-arranged

119
Q

Under which circumstances may an old vehicle without a test certificate be legally driven (without assistance) to a location for purposes other than testing?

A

(2) delivery by prior arrangement for work to be done on it or being brought back from that

120
Q

Under which circumstances may an old vehicle without a test certificate be legally towed, when this is unrelated to testing the vehicle or working on it?

A

taking it to be broken up

121
Q

For how long may a vehicle with a test certificate that is part its due date continue to be driven, if at all?

A

one calendar month

122
Q

For how long may a vehicle with an insurance certificate that is part its renewal date continue to be driven, if at all?

A

not at all

123
Q

What is the Road Traffic Act’s definition of a trailer?

A

a vehicle drawn by a motor vehicle

124
Q

When a trailer is drawn by a motor vehicle, does the Road Traffic Act consider it a motor vehicle?

A

yes

125
Q

When a mechanically propelled vehicle is in need of extensive repairs to become driveable again, does it remain a mechanically propelled vehicle?

A

yes until there is no reasonable prospect of ever being mobile againBinks v Dept. of Environment McEacharn v. Hurst

126
Q

Is a highway on which the public are only permitted access on foot considered a road by the Road Traffic Act?

A

yes

127
Q

May the offence of ‘improper use of mobile phone whilst driving’ apply in circumstances where the car is stationary, the driver having pulled in at the roadside to take the call more safely, before continuing?

A

yes

128
Q

Is there ever a statutory defence to the charge of ‘improper use of mobile phone whilst driving’ on the basis of a genuine emergency requiring a call to someone other than the emergency services?

A

yes if unsafe to cease driving

129
Q

When a police officer requires the owning user of a vehicle to produce the registration document for it, what timed exemption, if any, exists for failing to produce there and then?

A

production within 7 days or as soon as reasonably practicables.28A Vehicle Registration and Licensing Act

130
Q

Apart from using or keeping a vehicle with an obscured registration mark, what else does section 43 of the Vehicle Excise and Registration Act prohibit in relation to registration marks?

A

rendering or allowing the registration mark to become not easily distinguishable

131
Q

When considering construction and use offences, is the driver of the vehicle always considered to be using the vehicle?

A

yes

132
Q

When considering construction and use offences, when would the owner of the vehicle be considered to be using the vehicle?

A

when the vehicle is being driven for the owner’s purpose (or by the owner)

133
Q

When considering construction and use offences, is the passenger of the vehicle generally considered to be using the vehicle?

A

no

134
Q

When considering construction and use offences, when would the passenger considered to be using the vehicle?

A

when the passenger owns the car and arranges the travel for their own benefit

135
Q

When considering motoring offences, do ‘permitting’ offences generally require knowledge that the vehicle’s use would be unlawful?

A

yes

136
Q

When considering motoring offences, does proof of ‘permitting’ offences generally require some form of positive action by the person permitting?

A

no implied permission could suffice

137
Q

When considering motoring offences, what sort of relationship, if any, must be proved between the person causing and the driver?

A

one of some control or dominance over the driver (e.g. their manager)

138
Q

When considering motoring offences, does proof of ‘causing’ offences generally require some form of positive action by the person causing the driver to commit an offence?

A

yes such as demanding that the vehicle be driven

139
Q

When considering motoring offences, does proof of ‘causing’ offences require knowledge of the relevant facts regarding the use of the vehicle?

A

yes

140
Q

When considering motoring offences, apart from the driver, who is the category of ‘user’ generally restricted to?

A

the driver’s employer

141
Q

When considering motoring offences, does proof of an employer ‘using’ a vehicle generally require that this employer specifically authorised the employee driver was to use the vehicle in such a way?

A

no it would simply need to be a use in the ordinary course of employment

142
Q

When considering motoring offences, may an employer be deemed to be ‘using’ a vehicle when the employee driver owns it and is driving in the normal course of employment?

A

no the employer must own it

143
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 ‘Give Way’ sign an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

no

144
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 ‘Intermittent, red-light level crossing signal’ an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

yes

145
Q

Is the contravention of a blue regulation 10 ‘‘traffic direction indicator sign an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?”

A

no

146
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 Red Traffic Light an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

yes

147
Q

Is the contravention of regulation 10 yellow bus stop markings an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

no non-endorsable FPN

148
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 ‘Height prohibition’ sign an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

yes

149
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 motorway flashing red X matrix sign an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

yes

150
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 box junction an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

no non-endorsable

151
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 white zigzag lines on a pedestrian crossing an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

yes

152
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 double white lines (separating traffic moving in opposite directions) an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

yes

153
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 ‘Bus route’ sign an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

no non-endorsable

154
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 ‘Keep left’ sign an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

no non-endorsable

155
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 Temporary red traffic light an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

yes

156
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 ‘Priority to oncoming traffic’ sign an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

no non-endorsable

157
Q

Is the contravention of a regulation 10 uniformed police officer’s traffic direction an endorsable fixed penalty notice offence?

A

yes

158
Q

When a car passes a ‘give way sign’ into a road, under what circumstances would this be a contravention of the requirements for that sign?

A

If a vehicle on that road has to change course or speed to avoid a collision

159
Q

Is it an offence to fail to stop at a stop sign if there was no traffic on the road being joined?

A

yes

160
Q

Is overtaking by a motorcycle within a double white line system a contravention the relevant regulations if the double lines are not crossed?

A

no

161
Q

Is crossing the lines in solid double white line system a contravention the relevant regulations if done so to turn right?

A

no

162
Q

Is crossing the lines in solid double white line system a contravention the relevant regulations if done so to overtake a slow moving bus?

A

yes

163
Q

Is crossing the lines in solid double white line system a contravention the relevant regulations if done so to overtake a slow moving pedal cycle?

A

no

164
Q

Is stopping within a solid double white line system a contravention the relevant regulations if done so to drop of a child passenger?

A

no

165
Q

Is crossing the lines in solid double white line system a contravention the relevant regulations if done so to allow the driver a rest?

A

yes

166
Q

How does the particular offence of a driver failing to stop for a police officer in uniform relate to PACE?

A

It is a specified summary offence for which there is a power of entry under s.17

167
Q

Is it an offence to overtake anywhere within the limits of a zebra crossing if there are no pedestrians using the crossing?

A

no only on the approach to the crossing

168
Q

Is it an offence for a car driver to voluntarily stop within the limits of a zebra crossing if there are no pedestrians using the crossing?

A

yes

169
Q

At what point is a pedestrian required to be given precedence over vehicular traffic on a zebra crossing?

A

once the pedestrian is on the carriageway

170
Q

What is the maximum number of Fixed Penalty Notices that can be issued to a driver on a single occasion?

A

3

171
Q

What is the maximum number of Endorsable Fixed Penalty Notices that can be issued to a driver on a single occasion?

A

one but 2 non-endorsables could be issued with it

172
Q

May an endorsable FPN be issued to a driver with 9 points in their licence?

A

no this would always take the driver to at least 12 points which the police are not empowered to do

173
Q

What must be the general basis which triggers a police officer’s power to issue a Fixed Penalty Notice on the spot?

A

Reason to believe that the person being issued the notice has committed or is committing a fixed penalty offence

174
Q

Does a police officer issuing a Fixed Penalty Notice have to be in uniform?

A

yes

175
Q

How long does a driver have, when issued a non-endorsable Fixed Penalty Notice (on the spot), to elect to be tried in court?

A

28 days

176
Q

What happens in the case of a driver failing to elect to be dealt with at court or pay the charge for a fixed penalty notice within 28 days?

A

The fine is registered as a court fine and increased by half

177
Q

What are the penalties associated with an FPN for driving without insurance?

A

6 penalty points and a œ200 fine

178
Q

What is the most wheels a motorcycle may have?

A

3

179
Q

What is the highest unladen weight a vehicle to be classed as a motorcycle may have?

A

410kg

180
Q

What is the maximum cylinder capacity a vehicle to be classed as a moped may have?

A

50cc

181
Q

What is the maximum cylinder capacity a vehicle to be classed as a learner motor cycle may have?

A

125cc

182
Q

What is the maximum design speed a vehicle to be classified as a moped may have?

A

50kph (unless pre 1977 with pedals)

183
Q

Which term means any motor vehicle or trailer constructed or adapted for the carriage of haulage of goods or burden of any description?

A

goods vehicle

184
Q

What is the most persons (inc driver) a vehicle may be adapted to carry if it is to be possible to class it as a medium goods vehicle?

A

9

185
Q

What range of maximum weights applies to medium goods vehicles?

A

3.5 to 7.5 tonnes

186
Q

What term is given to a goods vehicle with an operating weight exceeding 7.5 tonnes?

A

Heavy commercial vehicle

187
Q

Which term would apply to a goods vehicle, with a trailer attached so that part of the trailer is superimposed on the drawing vehicle, with at least 20% of the distributed weight borne by the drawing vehicle?

A

articulated vehicle

188
Q

For a vehicle to be classified as a large bus it must be constructed or adapted to carry at least how many seated passengers in addition to the driver?

A

17

189
Q

Apart from the driver, what is the seat number range of a minibus?

A

9 to 16

190
Q

May a vehicle be classified as an invalid carriage if it is adapted rather than constructed for the use of a person suffering from a disability?

A

no

191
Q

May a vehicle be classified as an invalid carriage if it is designed for the use of more than one person?

A

no

192
Q

Is a mobility scooter generally considered an invalid carriage?

A

yes (they fall within both the RTA88 and the Invalid Carriages on Highways regs 88 definitions)

193
Q

Which term means a vehicle’s own weight when not carrying any goods or burden?

A

unladen weight

194
Q

Which term refers to the weight that a vehicle is not designed or adapted to exceed when driven on a road, as often recorded on a plate on the vehicle?

A

Maximum Gross Weight or Maximum Authorised Mass(actual definition is a bit more complex)

195
Q

Which term refers to the maximum laden weight for the motor vehicle together with any trailer which may be drawn by it train weight
Does the offence of being found drunk and incapable apply to public places within buildings that are not licensed premises?”

A

yes

196
Q

Does the offence of being found drunk and incapable apply to persons inside dwellings?

A

no

197
Q

Does the offence of being found drunk and incapable apply to premises not accessible to the public that are not dwellings?

A

no

198
Q

May a charge of ‘possession of a controlled drug with intent to supply’ be proven on the basis of intending to pass a small amount of the drug on to a friend with no exchange of money involved?

A

yes

199
Q

May a charge of ‘being concerned in the supply of a controlled drug’ apply to someone on the basis that they provided packaging materials for such a supply?

A

yes

Anki PLC Q's (4 decks)

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