Animal Phys final Flashcards

1
Q

The study of physiology includes the study of __________________, which is understanding how the body’s processes work, and the study of ______________, which is understanding of why the body’s processes work the way they do.

A

Mechanism, origin

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2
Q

Which of the following parts of the mammalian cell is essential for all protein synthesis?

A

Ribosome

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3
Q

Which of the following statements correctly identifies the difference between a channel and transporter?

A

-channel does not require solute binding
- transporter requires solute
binding

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4
Q

Which of the following is not considered to be an example of a cell receptor?

A

Voltage-gated channel

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5
Q

Which of the following correctly describes how digesta that is in the mouth is prevented from entering the airways during swallowing in mammals?

A

The epiglottis closes over the trachea during swallowing

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6
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the process of starch digestion and absorption
in the small intestine.

A

Starch is degraded by pancreatic amylase to maltose,

  • brush border enzyme maltase to glucose,
  • absorbed through carrier-mediated transport
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7
Q

This hormone is released from the small intestine in response to the presence of undigested fat and protein in the intestinal lumen and it stimulates the release of bile and pancreatic enzymes.

A

CCK

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8
Q

In non-ruminants, __________________ is the major propulsive motility pattern, whereas ____________________ is the major retentive motility pattern.
a) Adaptive relaxation, Segmentation

A

Peristalsis, Segmentation

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9
Q

Both ruminants and non-ruminants produce saliva to aid in the digestive processes. Which of the following is not a role of saliva that is unique to ruminant species?

A

Saliva moistens the bolus and aids in swallowing

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10
Q

Directly from the reticulum, the digesta can move into one of three other parts of the ruminant gastrointestinal tract. Which of the following correctly lists an organ where the digesta can go directly from the reticulm, as well as the correct reason as to why the digesta would move to that organ?

A

Omasum- to continue through the remainder of the ruminant gastrointestinal
tract

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11
Q

This part of the ruminant foregut has similar secretions and function to the non-ruminant stomach.

A

Abomasum

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12
Q

Unlike ruminants, hindgut fermenters, such as the horse, are able to absorb __________________, but not ____________________.

A

Glucose from starch, amino acids from microbial protein

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13
Q

Which of the following dietary energy sources can be used to make ATP both aerobically and anaerobically?

A

Glucose

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14
Q

Which of the following is not a mandatory condition needed to measure an animal’s basal metabolic rate?

A

The animal is full grown

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15
Q

This part of the body is the key control point for maintaining body temperature

A

Hypothalamus

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16
Q

In ruminants, __ is the process where partially digested feed from the rumen
is returned to the mouth for rechewing

A

Rumination

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17
Q

___ is the process where the

gases produced during fermentation are expelled from the rumen.

A

Eructation

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18
Q

is the only method of heat transfer that can only be used as a way to
dissipate heat from the animal

A

Evaporation

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19
Q

Compared to a chicken, a horse will have a ____ whole-body metabolic rate and a
_____ weight-specific metabolic rate.

A

Greater, Lower

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20
Q

The major component of the plasma membrane is phospholipids

A

True

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21
Q

Homeostasis is when the animal allows its internal environment to change in response to changes in the external environment

A

False

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22
Q

The crop of the chicken is the major site of microbial fermentation in birds

A

False

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23
Q

Lysozyme is an enzyme produced by the small intestine that is necessary for the
activation of trypsinogen to trypsin

A

False

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24
Q

Bile is necessary for protein digestion

A

False

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25
Q

Creatine phosphate can be used to sustain ATP production over long periods of time.

A

False

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26
Q

The enzymatic digestive processes for this nutrient begin in the mouth for non- carnivore, non-ruminant mammals

A

Starch

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27
Q

The chemical and enzymatic digestion of this nutrient starts in the non- ruminant stomach

A

Protein

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28
Q

The major end product of digestion for this nutrient, which is available for the animal to absorb, is volatile fatty acids

A

Cellulose (fiber)

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29
Q

Mammals do not produce an enzyme that is capable of digesting this nutrient

A

Cellulose (fiber)

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30
Q

The major end products of digestion for this nutrient are fatty acids

A

Fat

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31
Q

fewer visible red blood cells in this sample and the fluid in the beaker is tinted red (figure shows cells after 5 and 15 minutes of incubation)

A

Water

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32
Q

Red blood cells appear as biconcave disks

A

0.9% saline

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33
Q

ed blood cells appear smaller than in Tube 1 and are more shriveled (figure shows cells after 5 and 15 minutes of incubation)

A

2.0% saline

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34
Q

mechanism of transport across the membrane does this case study deal with primarily? Include the name of the type of transport and the substance that is being transported. (2 points)

A

Osmosis, Water

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35
Q

Which one of the solutions would you recommend administering intravenously to the sick animal?

A

.9% saline

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36
Q

Name the three accessory organs

A

Pancreas, Salivary glands, Liver/gallbladder

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37
Q

Enzyme in salivary gland

A

Amylase

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38
Q

Enzyme in stomach

A

Pepsinogen

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39
Q

Enzyme in pancreas

A

Amylase, Lipase, Zymogens (or Trypsin/ogen, etc.)

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40
Q

Enzyme in liver/gallbladder

A

None

41
Q

Name 2 other important roles of the bacteria that live in the cow’s rumen

A
  • Synthesis of microbial protein

- Synthesis of B vitamins and Vitamin K

42
Q

Give 2 examples of physiological mechanisms that homeotherms can apply to maintain their core body temperatures at temperatures that are colder than their thermoneutral zone

A

Shivering, nonshivering

43
Q

Give 2 examples of physiological mechanisms that homeotherms can apply to maintain their core body temperature at temperatures that exceed the thermoneutral zone

A

Sweating, panting

44
Q

Give 2 examples of physiological things that homeotherms can do to maintain their core body temperature as the ambient temperature cools down within the thermoneutral zone (2 points)

A

Vasoconstriction, fluff coat

45
Q

Which classification of hormones are modified amino acids?

A

Amine hormones

46
Q

When peptide hormones bind to their receptors, which of the following statements correctly describes the typical mode of action of these hormones?

A
  • increase in the production of secondary messengers,

- activation/deactivation of enzymes (or proteins) that are already present

47
Q

Which division of the nervous system includes the somatic and autonomic nervous systems?

A

Peripheral nervous system

48
Q

The motor cortex and the somatosensory cortex are found in which part of the brain?

A

Cerebral Cortex

49
Q

This region of the neuron is responsible for neurotransmitter release into the synapse.

A

Axon Terminal

50
Q

This membrane protein is essential for the establishment and maintenance of resting membrane potential.

A

Na+/K+-ATPase

51
Q

Degenerative Myelopathy (DM) is a condition in dogs where the myelin sheath is destroyed (ie. disappears) over time. What effect would you expect DM to have on the rate that an action potential can spread along the axon of a neuron?

A

The speed would decrease

52
Q

Which of the following would not be considered to be a part of the synapse between two neurons?

A

Axon of the post-synaptic neuron

53
Q

In this type of synapse, there is a direct effect on the membrane potential of the post- synaptic cell, resulting in the hyperpolarization of the post-synaptic cell.

A

Type 2 ionotropic synapse

54
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a difference between the somatic and autonomic branches of the peripheral nervous system?

A
  • somatic nervous system uses acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter at the target tissue
  • autonomic nervous system may use either norephinephrine or acetylcholine
55
Q

What is the name for the specialized plasma membrane that surrounds each individual muscle fiber?

A

Sarcolemma

56
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the proteins that form the thin filament?

A

Actin, Troponin, Tropomyosin

57
Q

In order for muscle contraction to occur, ATP binds to which of the myofilament proteins?

A

Myosin

58
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes what happens to the sarcomere during muscle contraction?

A

There is an increase in overlap of the thick and the thin filaments, resulting in a
shortening of each sarcomere

59
Q

This muscle fiber type is a fast twitch muscle, has an intermediate number of mitochondria and can make its ATP through both aerobic and glycolytic (anerobic) means.

A

Type IIA

60
Q
Degenerative Myelopathy (DM) is a condition in dogs where there is a degradation of the
myelin sheath surrounding the axons in the spinal cord. Because the spinal cord is part of the \_\_\_ nervous system, the type of glial cell that DM affects is the \_\_.
A

Central, Oligodendrocytes

61
Q

An action potential is able to spread along the axon of the neuron because as sodium ions enter the neuron through open Na+ channels, they depolarize adjacent segments of the axon, allowing voltage ___ to be met and an action potential to be generated in this “new” segment of the axon.

A

Threshold

62
Q

Once an action potential reaches the axon terminal, the axon terminal membrane depolarizes to a certain threshold, resulting in the opening of voltage-gated ___ channels, which is necessary for the release of neurotransmitter.

A

Calcium

63
Q

In skeletal nerves, the sensory neurons enter the spinal cord through the __ side, whereas the motor neurons leave the spinal cord through the __ side.

A

Dorsal, Ventral

64
Q

All hormones must travel through the bloodstream in order to reach their target
organ.

A

True

65
Q

Action potentials are able to spread in both directions along the axon (both
towards the cell body and towards the axon terminal)

A

False

66
Q

Peptide neurotransmitters are made in the cell body of the neuron, whereas small
molecule neurotransmitters may be made in the axon terminal of the neuron.

A

True

67
Q

Both the somatic and autonomic nervous systems require 2 neurons to go from the central nervous system to the target tissue for the motor response.

A

False

68
Q

When a flexor muscle contracts, the joint angle increases

A

False

69
Q

select the mechanism of transduction that is used to convert the sensory information into an electrical signal.
Vision?

A

Metabotropic only

70
Q

select the mechanism of transduction that is used to convert the sensory information into an electrical signal.
Hearing?

A

Ionotropic only

71
Q

select the mechanism of transduction that is used to convert the sensory information into an electrical signal.
Taste?

A

Depends

72
Q

select the mechanism of transduction that is used to convert the sensory information into an electrical signal.
Smell?

A

Metabotropic only

73
Q

select the mechanism of transduction that is used to convert the sensory information into an electrical signal.
Touch

A

Ionotropic only

74
Q

example of a cranial nerve

Motor

A

Accessory

75
Q

example of a cranial nerve

Sensory

A

Optic

76
Q

example of a cranial nerve

Motor and Sensory

A

Trigeminal

77
Q

Structure of peptide hormone

A

Chain of amino acids

78
Q

Structure of steroid hormone

A

Modification of cholesterol

79
Q

water soluble or fat soluble?

Peptide hormone

A

Water soluble

80
Q

water soluble or fat soluble?

Steroid hormone

A

Fat soluble

81
Q

Location of the hormone receptor in/on the target cell

Peptide hormone

A

Cell membrane/surface

82
Q

Location of the hormone receptor in/on the target cell

Steroid hormone

A

Intracellular

83
Q

effects produced generally acute or chronic?

Peptide hormone

A

Acute

84
Q

effects produced generally acute or chronic?

Steroid hormone

A

Chronic

85
Q

example of a peptide hormone

A

insulin

86
Q

example of a steroid hormone

A

estrogen

87
Q

Explain how it is possible that the same compound (ie. Norepinephrine) may be classified as both a hormone and a neurotransmitter.

A
  • on what cell type released the compound
  • where the compound is released
  • where the target tissue is relative to the releasing tissue
88
Q

Why is summation necessary?

A

change in membrane potential from a single “batch” of neurotransmitter binding to the receptors is insufficient to generate an action potential

89
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

When a single neuron is stimulated multiple times in rapid succession to continue releasing NT

90
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

When multiple pre-synaptic neurons in the same area (post-synaptic neurons) are stimulated at the same time to release NT

91
Q

Ionotropic Receptor are ligand-gated channels

A

opens ion channels resulting in a direct effect on membrane potential

92
Q

Metabotropic Receptor are G-protein coupled receptors causes an increase in secondary messenger formation which can cause metabolic changes in the cell (1 point) and could have an indirect effect on membrane potential (1 point)

A
  • increase in secondary messenger formation

- cause metabolic changes in the cell and could have an indirect effect on membrane potential

93
Q

What neurotransmitter is released into the neuromuscular junction to trigger muscle
contraction?

A

Acetylcholine

94
Q

When the neurotransmitter binds to its receptor on the skeletal muscle, what channel is directly opened (due to neurotransmitter binding) and what ion moves into the muscle cytoplasm from outside of the muscle fiber?

A

Na+/K+-ligand gated channel and Na+

95
Q

What effect does the ion movement have on the membrane potential of the muscle?

A

increases membrane potential

96
Q

What characteristic (structure) of the sarcolemma allows changes in membrane potential to be experienced deep within the muscle fiber

A

T tubule

97
Q

As a result of the changes in membrane potential which ion channels open, where are they located, does this ion move into or out of the muscle’s cytoplasm and where does this ion come from

A
  • Voltage-gated calcium channels -t-tubule and sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • Ca2+ moves into the cytoplasm from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
98
Q

Explain how the ion interacts with the myofilaments to allow for muscle contraction

A
  • Binds to the troponin portion of the thin filament
  • tropomyosin to shift off of the myosin binding site on the actin
  • actin to bind to myosin