Anesthesia Module Flashcards

1
Q

Following ETCO2- what wrong

A

esophageal intubation

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2
Q

what are signs of light anesthetic plane

A
  1. Eye position central
  2. Palpebral reflex present
  3. Increased jaw tone
  4. Increase HR, BP, RR
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3
Q

how do you manage light plane of anesthesia

A
  1. Increase inhalant dose
  2. Give IV drug
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4
Q

what are some signs of too deep in anesthetic plane

A
  1. Eye position central
  2. No palpebral reflex
  3. No jaw tone
  4. Bradycardia, hypotension, hypoventilation, hypothermia
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5
Q

how do you solve being too deep in anesthetic plane

A

decrease inhalant

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6
Q

what is the formulae for minute ventilation

A

Minute ventilation= RR X TV

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7
Q

what is normal ETCO2

A

35-45mmHg

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8
Q

what is ETCO for hypocapnia and what is ventilation status

A

<35mmHg, hyperventilation

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9
Q

what is consequence of hypocapnia

A

vasoconstriction of cerebral vessels= ischemia, respiratory alkalosis

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10
Q

what is ETCO2 for hypercapnia and what is ventilation status

A

> 45mmHg, severe >65mmHg
Hypoventilation

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11
Q

what is consequence of hypercapnia

A

vasodilation of cerebral vessels= increase ICP
Worsening of hyperkalemia
Respiratory acidosis
Coma

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12
Q

what are some causes of hypocapnia

A
  1. Reps: increase ventilation
  2. Hypothermia
  3. Leaking cuff, high oxygen flow
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13
Q

what are some causes and tx for hyperventilation

A
  1. Inadequate depth: tx: increase inhalant +/- IPPV
  2. Inadequate analgesia: provide analgesia
  3. Hyperthermia: stop heating, or cool down
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14
Q

t or f: rapid RR is same as hyperventilation

A

False

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15
Q

if you notice rapid RR and give a breath and CO2 increases then likely there is __ventilation and animal is __

A

dead space ventilation, hypoventilating

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16
Q

what are some causes of hypercapnia

A
  1. Resp- decreased ventilation
  2. Inadequate O2 flow, equipment dead space
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17
Q

what are some causes and tx for hypoventilation

A
  1. Excessive depth- decrease inhalant
  2. Obstruction- remove
  3. Obesity- provide IPPV
  4. Dorsal recumbency: provide IPPV
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18
Q

what are some indications for IPPV

A
  1. Improve tidal volume therefore remove CO2
  2. ETCO2 >60mmHg
  3. Light plane
  4. Panting
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19
Q

what wrong, possible causes, what do

A

wrong: increased based during inspiration, hypercapnia >45
Cause: rebreathing, excessive depth- decrease inhalant, check equipment, provide IPPV

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20
Q

what wrong, causes, what do

A

rapid RR
Causes: hyperventilating, hypothermia, leaking cuff, high O2 flow
Do: increase inhalant, check for leaks, provide analgesia

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21
Q

what wrong and cause

A

loss of alveolar plateau
Cause: leaking

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22
Q

what is equation for BP

A

cardiac output X systemic vascular resistance

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23
Q

what is cardiac output equation

A

stroke volume X HR

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24
Q

what does stroke volume depend on

A

preload, contractility, afterload

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25
Q

blood pressure is an indirect measurement of __

A

cardiac output

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26
Q

what are some causes of hypotension

A
  1. Hypovolemia
  2. Drugs
    - decreased contractility- inhalant
    - decrease SVR/vasodilation- acepromazine, proprofol, alfaxalone
    - increased afterload/ vasoconstriction and bradycardia- dexmed
  3. IPPV
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27
Q

what do you do to tx hypotension with bradycardia

A
  1. Decrease inhalant if possible
  2. Anticholingeric-atropine or glycopyrolate
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28
Q

how do you tx hypotension with tachycardia or normocardia

A
  1. Decrease inhalant
  2. Give fluid bolus
  3. Dobutamine or dopamine CRI if unresponsive to fluids
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29
Q

how does PPV effect BP

A

positive pressure= pressure on vena cava—> decreased venous return—> decrease CO—> decreased BP

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30
Q

hypothermia is <__F

A

97

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31
Q

what are some side effects of hypothermia

A
  1. Increased risk of anesthetic overdose- decrease MAC
    2, bradycardia- unresponsive to anticholinergics
  2. Prolonged recovery
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32
Q

hyperthermia is most patients under anesthesia >__F

A

101

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33
Q

whaat are some causes of hyperthermia

A
  1. Heating pad too high
  2. Response to drugs (opioids)
  3. Heavily muscled/furry
  4. Malignant hyperthermia
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34
Q

if SPO2 below 95%, try giving __ to see if it improves

A

manual breath

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35
Q

What is standard protocol for pediatric dogs <16 weeks

A

IM pre-med
1. Ace
2. Hydromorphone
3. Atropine

Induction:
1. Propofol

Local:
1. Lidocaine

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36
Q

what is standard protocol for adult dogs

A

IM pre-med
1. Ace
2. Hydromorphone
3. Dexmed

SC NSAID:
1. Meloxicam

Induction:
1. Propfooll

Local:
1. Lidocaine

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37
Q

what is standard protocol for cats

A

IM pre-med
1. Buprenorphine
2. Ketamine
3. Dexmed

Induction
1. Propfool

Local:
1. Lidocaine

38
Q

what is MOA of Hydromorphone

A

full-mu receptor agonist

39
Q

how long does analgesia last for Hydromorphone IV and IM

A

IV: 2hr
IM: 4hr

40
Q

what are the sedative and analgesia properties of Hydromorphone

A

good sedation, excellent analgesia

41
Q

what is reversal for Hydromorphone

42
Q

what is Hydromorphone used for

A
  1. Moderate to severe pain
  2. MAC sparing
  3. Pre-op sedation
43
Q

what are side effects of Hydromorphone

A
  1. Vomiting (non-painful animals)
  2. Regurgitation
  3. Ileus, constipation
  4. Hyperthermia
  5. Excitement/dysphoria
44
Q

what is MOA of buprenorphine

A

partial Mu receptor agonist opioid

45
Q

what is analgesic and sedation properties of buprenorphine

A

moderate analgesia, minimal sedation

46
Q

what is effect of buprenorphine on resp and cardio systems

A

minimal resp and cardio depression

47
Q

t or f: buprenorphine has ceiling effect- increasing dose leads to smaller and smaller gains in analgesia but increase in side effects

48
Q

What is onset of action time for buprenorphine

49
Q

what is duration of action for buprenorphine

50
Q

what is buprenorphine used for

A
  1. Mild to moderately painful procedures
  2. Post-op analgesic
  3. Good post op choice for cats
51
Q

what is buprenorphine not useful for

A
  1. Sedation when given alone
  2. Intra-op- slow onset, not titratable
  3. Severe pain
52
Q

what drugs are in “kitty magic” pre-med

A

dexmed, ketamine, buprenorphine

53
Q

what are the routes of administration for dexmedetomidine

54
Q

what is MOA for dexmedetomidine

A

alpha 2 agonist

55
Q

what are the sedative, analgesic, and muscle relaxation properties for dexmedetomidine

A
  1. Dose dependent sedation
  2. Analgesic properties
  3. Excellent muscle relaxation
56
Q

what is reversal for dexmedetomidine

A

atipamezole/ antisedan

57
Q

what are the side effects of dexmedetomidine

A
  1. Biphasic BP effect
    - phase 1: vasoconstriction/ hypertension and reflex bradycardia
    - phase 2: vasodilation/ hypotension and bradycardia or normal HR
  2. Decrease cardiac output
  3. Cardiac arrhythmias- AV block
58
Q

what is dexmedetomidine used for

A
  1. Chemical restraint
  2. Sedation
  3. Pre-med of healthy patients
  4. Post-op sedation
59
Q

what are some contraindications and what patients should you be careful with when using dexmedetomidine

A

CI: sick animals, cardiac disease
Careful: geriatric, renal dz

60
Q

what is acepromazine good at

A

anxiolytic, sedative

61
Q

What is onset of action for IM ace

A

30-45 minutes

62
Q

what is duration of action for ace

A

up to 6hrs

63
Q

why is ace good for recovery

A

post-op anxiety, smooth recovery

64
Q

Acepromazine has no __ properties

65
Q

what are some side effects of acepromazine

A
  1. Vasodilation- alpha 1 receptor antagonist- hypotension
  2. Respiratory depression
  3. Depression of myocardium and vascular smooth muscle
66
Q

ketamine IM added to pre-med protocol helps increase __

A

chemical restraint

67
Q

t or f: ketamine provides some analgesia

68
Q

what are the effects of ketamine on cardio and resp systems

A
  1. Cardio: increase HR, BP, increase risk tachyarrhythmias
  2. Resp: minimal, retain pharyngeal and laryngeal reflexes
69
Q

when should you not use ketamine

A
  1. When increase HR is harmful- cats with HCM
  2. Severe heart dz, cardiac arrhythmias
  3. Severe renal injury
  4. Liver dysfunction
70
Q

propofol may decrease __activity

71
Q

t or f: propofol has analgesic effects

72
Q

what are some side effects of propofol

A
  1. Hypotension due to vasodilation
  2. Post-induction apnea
73
Q

how do you avoid post-induction apnea with propofol

A

slow IV injection over 60 seconds

74
Q

what IV antibiotic is used in sx lab

75
Q

what is MOA of NSAIDS

A

COX inhibitor- inhibits prostaglandins

76
Q

what agents are useful if patient is bradycardia and hypotensive

A

atropine and glycopyrolate

77
Q

which crosses BBB and placenta: atropine or glyco

78
Q

what is the drug of choice for CPR: atropine or glyco

79
Q

which has a slower onset but less profound tachycardia: glyco or atropine

80
Q

what is toxic dose for lidocaine

81
Q

what is recommended dose for dogs and cats for lidocaine, what dose will we use in lab

A

dog: 6mg/kg
Cat: 4mg/kg
Lab: 2mg/kg

82
Q

what species should you not give lidocaine IV

83
Q

what is MOA of cerenia

A

neurokinin 1 receptor antagonist

84
Q

what are the properties of cerenia

A

anti-emetic, anti-nausea

85
Q

how do you convert mcg to mg

A

mcg/1000=mg

86
Q

how do you convert % to mg/ml

87
Q

dexmed dose example:
Weight: 8kg
Dose: 5mcg/kg
Concentration: 0.5mg/ml

A

(5mcg/kg)/1000= 0.005mg/kg
0.005mg/kg (8kg)=0.04 mg

(0.04mg)/ (0.5mg/mL)=0.08 mL

88
Q

lidocaine dose example
Weight: 15kg
Dose: 2mg/kg
Concentration: 2%

A

2% X 10= 20mg/ml

15kg (2mg/kg) =30mg

30mg/ (20mg/kg) - 1.5mL

89
Q

what is fluid rate for dogs and cats

A

cats: 3ml/kg/hr
Dogs: 5ml/kg/hr

90
Q

fluid rate ex:
Dog Weight: 15kg

A

15kg (5ml/kg/hr)- 75ml/hr

91
Q

what is fluid bolus size

92
Q

fluid bolus ex:
Dog weight: 15kg

A

fluid bolus size: 5ml/kg
15kg(5ml/kg)=75 mL

Calculate rate to deliver fluid bolus over 10 minutes
75mL (6)=450 mL/hr