Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Gyn Onc > Anatomy/Surgical Complications > Flashcards

Anatomy/Surgical Complications Flashcards

1
Q

What are the most common infections following splenectomy?

A

Pneumococcus, meningiococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common organism causing infection following splenectomy?

A

s. Pneumococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is LEAST important in management of pancreatic leak?

A

Surgery to repair the leak-avoid surgery on these patients

Answer choices include: ngt decompression, somatostatin, TPN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In electrosurgery, which causes the least amount of injury?

A

The lowest voltage causes the least amount of injury, therefore CUT is less injuring because it has less voltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A patient with a chronically obstructed ureter has <5% function at the time of en-bloc resection of recurrent cancer. What is the best next step?

A

Tie off the ureter at the pelvic brim.

Much less morbid than doing a nephrectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg IV and discontinuation of the trigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Dantrolene?

A

Binds to RYR 1, inhibits sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the dose of Dantrolene?

A

2.5mg/kg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the symptoms of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Hypercapnia, tachycardia, masseter muscle rigidity, eventual EKG changes and rhabdomyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the LEAST likely to trigger malignant hyperthermia?

A

Propofol

Most common are the -anes: halothane, sevoflurane, desflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is common with malignant hyperthermia?

A

Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the BEST repair for a 1cm laparoscopic trocar injury to the colon that has not been prepped?

A

Primary closure, avoid narrowing of the lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do you do if you make a clean transection of the ureter at the level of the uterine artery?

A

Ureteroneocystotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do you do if you clamp the ureter, immediately recognize the mistake, and release the clamp?

A

Stent the ureter to ensure it is patent, clamp can cause crush/pressure necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the next best step to treating a patient with a ureteral leak at the level of a urinary conduit?

A

IR Drainage of the abscess/urinoma, delayed removal of stent or reinsert if already removed, IR by PCN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What detrusor issue happens immediately postop in a rad hyst?

A

Detrusor hypertonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

To what depth should VIN be ablated in non hair-bearing areas?

A

1mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

To what depth should VIN be ablated in hair bearing areas?

A

3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the greatest risk factor for predisposing to leak during LAR Colorectal anastomosis?

A

Distance from the anal verge, <7 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which is most likely to decrease the wound drainage in groin dissection?

A

Sparing of the saphenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In Inguinal lymphadenectomy, do drains decrease or increase the complications?

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lovenox?

A

Binds to and accelerates antithrombin IIIa causing factor Xa inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the advantage of LMWH compared to heparin?

A

Fewer bleeding complications, greater ease of use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does HIT present?

A

Thrombosis, increasing clot despite heparin and low platelets, usually 5-14 days after heparin was administered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do you treat HIT?

A

Argatroban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the blood supply of the long gracilis flap?

A

Medial femoral circumflex artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is blood supply to the SHORT gracilis flap?

A

Terminal branches of the obturator artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which 3 vessels are present in the superficial inguinal triangle?

A

Superficial external pudendal
Superficial inferior epigastrics
Superficial circumflex iliacs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the borders of the superficial inguinal triangle?

A

Medial-lateral border of the rectus muscle
Lateral: inferior epigastric vessles
Inferior: inguinal ligament

30
Q

What are the borders of the femoral triangle?

A

Sartorius
Adductor longus
Inguinal ligament

31
Q

What is the most likely artery to be transected in RECTAL resection for ovarian cancer?

A

Superior rectal

32
Q

Rectal arterial flow

A

Inferior rectal from the pudendal
Middle rectal from the internal iliac
Superior rectal from the IMA

33
Q

What is the origin of the middle rectal artery?

A

The anterior branch of the internal iliac artery

34
Q

What are the 4 major branches of the SMA?

A

Inferior pancreaticoduodenal
Middle colic
Right colic
Ileocolic

35
Q

What level does the SMA arise from the aorta?

A

L1

36
Q

Which half of the colon does the SMA supply?

A

Right, cecum, ascending and 2/3 of the Transverse colon

37
Q

Which portions of the small bowel does the SMA supply?

A

Ileum, jejunum, distal duodenum

38
Q

At the time of reoperation, you notice the jejunum is necrotic. Which artery is likely compromised?

A

SMA or jejunal

39
Q

What are the arcades that anastomose the SMA and IMA along the bowel called?

A

Marginal artery of Drummond

40
Q

What is another anastomotic vessel between SMA and IMA?

A

Arc of riolan

41
Q

Where does the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery arise?

A

SMA

42
Q

What does the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery supply?

A

Pancreas and Duodenum

43
Q

What is the origin of the middle colic artery?

A

SMA

44
Q

What does the middle colic artery supply?

A

Transverse colon

45
Q

What portion of the colon does the IMA supply?

A

Descending, sigmoid, and rectum

46
Q

What are the major branches of the IMA?

A

Left colic
Sigmoid
Superior rectal

47
Q

What is the most likely to collateral to the IMA?

A

Internal iliac artery

48
Q

At what level does the IMA branch off of the aorta?

A

L4

49
Q

Which artery supplies the descending colon from the splenic flexure to the sigmoid colon?

A

Left colic

50
Q

Where does the left colic artery originate from?

A

IMA

51
Q

Which major artery supplies the rectum?

A

Superior rectal

52
Q

Where does the superior rectal artery originate from?

A

IMA

53
Q

What are the vessels of the anterior branch of the internal iliac artery?

A

Obturator, inferior gluteal, vaginal, inferior vesicle, middle rectal, internal pudendal, uterine

54
Q

What are the vessels of the posterior branch of the internal iliac artery?

A

Ileolumbar, lateral sacral, superior gluteal

55
Q

What supplies the omentum?

A

Gastroepiploic arteries

56
Q

Where does the left gastroepiploic artery originate from?

A

Splenic artery

57
Q

What does the external jugular drain into?

A

Subclavian vein

58
Q

Where does the IMV drain?

A

Splenic

59
Q

Where does the SMV drain?

A

Comes together with the splenic to make the portal

60
Q

What intraoperative injury causes wrist drop?

A

Radial nerve injury

61
Q

While performing a lymph node, dissection, you transect a nerve running over the iliopsoas. What motor deficit would the patient have?

A

Decreased extension of the knee and hip flexion

62
Q

What injury and a radical hysterectomy with pelvic nodes would present with numbness of the anterior and medial thigh?

A

Genitofemoral

63
Q

What are the nerve roots for the genitofemoral nerve?

A

L1-2

64
Q

Which injury results in difficulty walking and a tingling anterior thigh?

A

Femoral, lateral cutaneous femoral

65
Q

What are the roots of lateral cutaneous femoral?

A

L2-4

66
Q

Which injury would cause numbness of the symphysis pubis and groin?

A

Ilioinguinal

67
Q

What are the nerve roots for ilioinguinal nerve?

A

T12-L1

68
Q

Femoral nerve: motor innervation

A

To iliopsoas for hip flexors
To quadriceps for knee extension

69
Q

Course of the internal pudendal artery

A

Arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery, comes OUT of the greater sciatic foramen and back in through the lesser sciatic foramen into the pudendal canal of Alcock

70
Q

Branches of the internal pudendal artery

A

Inferior rectal
Perineal
Continues on as clitoral artery

71
Q

Pudendal nerve roots

A

S2-4, motor and sensory

72
Q

Pudendal Nerve branches

A

Inferior rectal: supplies anus and perineal skin
Perineal: small muscles of the superficial and deep spaces (motor) and labia minora and majora
Dorsal clitoral (sensory)

Gyn Onc (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions