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HD2 > Anatomy Practical 3 > Flashcards

Anatomy Practical 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Define neurulation

A

Formation and closure of the neural tube

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2
Q

How does neurulation occur?

A
  • notochord induces above ectroderm to thicken and differentiate into the neuroectoderm = neural plate
  • neural plate dorsally folds = neural tube
  • neuroectoderm converging edges = neural crest cells which line up in 2 columns down the tube
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3
Q

What are the neuropores?

A
  • anterior and posterior on neural tube connecting lumen of neural tube and amniotic cavity
  • anterior neuropore forms adult brain
  • posterior neuropore forms adult spinal cord
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4
Q

What does the lumen of the neural tube develop into?

A

Brain ventricles and central canal of the spinal cord

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5
Q

When do the neuropores close?

A
  • anterior closes at 25-26 days

- posterior closes at 27-28 days

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6
Q

What do the neural crest cells become?

A

Peripheral nerves, endocrine glands, CT and specialized tissue

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7
Q

What do cranial neural crest cells differentiate into?

A
  • neurocranium
  • meninges
  • CT
  • cranial nerves

(enter pharyngeal arches and pouches = thymic cells)

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8
Q

What do the trunk neural crest cells differentiate into?

A

1) Melanocytes (produce pigment, travel through dermis in ectoderm colonising skin and hair follicles)
2) Migrate to sclerotome = DRG, Sympathetic neurons, PS nerves, adrenomedullary cells, Schwann cells (of gut/abdomen/pelvis)

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9
Q

What is spina bifida?

A
  • most common neural tube defect
  • if posterior neuropore does not close
  • neurogenetic
  • disability extent depends on where spina bifida is and ammout of nerve tissue involved
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10
Q

What does spina bifida include?

A
  • spina bifida cystica (myelomeningocele and meningocele)

- spina bifida occulta (mild, most common, 1 or more vertebrae malformed, small tuft of hair/dimple/birth mark)

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11
Q

What is myelomeningocele?

A
  • most serious form of spina bifida

- sac contains CSF and nerves and spinal cord parts

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12
Q

What is meningocele?

A
  • sac containing CSF and meninges

- less common and less severe

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13
Q

What defects do you get if the anterior neuropore fails to close?

A
  • encephalocele

- anencephaly

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14
Q

What is anencephaly?

A
  • born without parts of brain and skull
  • cerebrum fails to develop without skull
  • face and neck abnormalities
  • 11-14 weeks detected during gestation via US or maternal serum alpha fetoprotein as if high levels of alpha fetoprotein crosses placenta to mother indicates open neural tube defect
  • majority stillborn or die with few hours
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15
Q

What is encephalocele?

A
  • herniation of meninges and brain tissue outside cranium
  • usually midline
  • cranial meningocele = only meninges
  • encephalocele = brain tissue
  • ventriculocele = ventricle within herniated brain part
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16
Q

How do the brain vesicles form?

A
  • 3 primary at week 4

- 5 secondary at week 5

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17
Q

What are the primary vesicles?

A
  • prosencephalon (forebrain)
  • mesencephalon (midbrain)
  • rhombencephalon (hindbrain)
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18
Q

What are the secondary vesicles?

A
  • telencephalon
  • diencephalon
  • mesencephalon
  • metencephalon
  • myelencephalon
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19
Q

What brain structures come from which secondary vesicles?

A
  • telencephalon (cerebral hemispheres - white matter/cortex/basal nuclei)
  • diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, retina)
  • mesencephalon (midbrain)
  • metencephalon (pons, cerebellum)
  • myelncephalon (medulla oblangata)
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20
Q

Which ventricles come from which secondary vesicles?

A
  • telencephalon (lateral)
  • diencephalon (third)
  • mesencephalon (cerebral aqueduct)
  • metencephalon (4th ventricle)
  • myelencephalon (4th ventricle)
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21
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A
  • dilatation of cerebral ventricles
  • CSF drained into bloodstream via arachnoid villi
  • ventricle dilatation due to blockage of CSF or over-production of CSF
  • increased pressure in ventricle
  • congenital or acquired later in life via stroke/TBI/tumours/meningitis
  • manage: reduce brain pressure and restore normal CSF flow via shunts OR endoscopic third ventriculostomy
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22
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A
  • group of non-progressive neuromuscular disorders caused by brain damage
  • classified by severity, topographical distribution or motor function
  • damage to immature brain = vascular, hypoxic-ischaemic, teratogenic, genetic, infection, toxins, metabolic problems, trauma
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23
Q

What makes up the pharyngeal apparatus?

A
  • pharyngeal arches
  • pouches
  • grooves
  • membranes

(develop in week 4, arch and pouch 5 regress)

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24
Q

What are the pharyngeal arches?

A
  • 1-4 and 6 contain mesoderm and neural crest cells
  • mesoderm = muscles and arteries
  • neural crest cells = bone and CT
  • CN associated with each arch
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25
Q

What are the pharyngeal pouches?

A
  • evaginations of endoderm lining the foregut
  • oral cavity and oesophagus
  • internal
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26
Q

What are the pharyngeal grooves?

A
  • clefts
  • invaginations of ectoderm
  • between each pharyngeal arch
  • external
27
Q

What are the pharyngeal membranes?

A
  • consist of ecto, meso and endoderm and neural ncrest cells

- between each arch

28
Q

What CN and structures are derived from arch 1?

A

CN V
mesoderm = muscles of mastication, mylohyoid
neural crest cells = maxilla, mandible, zygomatic bone, squamous temporal bone, palatine bone, vomer

29
Q

What CN and structures are derived from arch 2?

A

CNVII
mesoderm = muscles of facial expression, stylohyoid
neural crest cells = stapes, styloid process, lesser horn of hyoid

30
Q

What CN and structures are derived from arch 3?

A

CN IX
mesoderm = stylopharyngeus
neural crest cells = greater horn of hyoid

31
Q

What CN and structures are derived from arch 4?

A

CN X

mesoderm = soft palate muscles, pharynx muscles expect stylopharyngeus, cricothyroid

32
Q

What CN and structures are derived from arch 6?

A

CN X - recurrent laryngeal

mesoderm = larynx intrinsic muscles except cricothyroid, upper oesophageal muscles, laryngeal cartilages

33
Q

Where does the digastric muscle originate from?

A
  • anterior belly from the 1st pharyngeal arch

- posterior belly from the 2nd pharyngeal arch

34
Q

What is microtia?

A
  • congenital deformity
  • underdeveloped/absent pinna (external ear)
  • conduction deafness
  • defect of 1st pharyngeal arch
35
Q

How does the thyroid gland develop?

A
  • midline of tongue endoderm forms thyroid diverticulum
  • migrates caudally anterior to laryngeal cartilages and hyoid bone
  • attached to tongue via thyroglossal duct which obliterates = foramen cecum
36
Q

What is the anterior 2/3 of the tongue derived from?

A
  • pharyngeal arch 1
37
Q

What is the innervation of the tongue?

A
  • anterior 2/3 (chorda tympani - branch of facial - for special taste sensation and lingual - branch of trigeminal V3 - for general sensation)
  • posterior 1/3 (glossopharyngeal for general and special sensation)
38
Q

What is the posterior 1/3 of the tongue derived from?

A

pharyngeal arches 2,3,4

39
Q

What forms the face?

A

3 swellings

  • frontonasal prominence
  • maxillary prominence
  • mandibular prominence
40
Q

How does the face develop?

A
  • nasal placodes develop on ventrolateral frontonasal prominence
  • invaginate into mesoderm = nasal pits = medial and lateral nasal prominences
  • nasolacrimal groove between maxillary prominence and lateral nasal prominence = nasolacrimal duct and lacrimal sac
  • intermaxillary segment forms when maxillary prominence pushes 2 medial nasal prominences together at midline
41
Q

What does the medial nasal prominence become?

A
  • forehead/upper lip/nasal septum/philtrum
42
Q

Which pharyngeal arch do the maxillary and mandibular prominences emerge from?

A
  • pharyngeal arch 1
43
Q

What does the intermaxillary segment form?

A
  • philtrum of lip
  • 4 incisors
  • primary palate
44
Q

How does the secondary palate develop?

A
  • from palatine shelves of maxillary prominences
  • project down then horizontally fusing along palatine raphe
  • primary and secondary palates fuse at incisive foramen
  • bones develop in primary and anterior part of secondary palate
45
Q

What is cleft lip?

A
  • failure of maxillary prominence to fuse with medial nasal prominence
  • underlying mesoderm fails to expand = persistent labial groove
46
Q

What is cleft palate?

A
  • palatine shelves fail to fuse with primary palate/each other and nasal septum/both
47
Q

What are the 5 dilatations along the primitive heart tube?

A
  • truncus arteriosus
  • bulbus cordis
  • primitive ventricle
  • primitive atrium
  • sinus venosus
48
Q

What do the 5 dilatations of the primitive heart tube become?

A
  • truncus arteriosus = pulmonary artery and aorta
  • bulbus cordis = smooth part of ventricles
  • primitive ventricle = trabeculated ventricles
  • primitive atria = trabeculated atria
  • sinus venosus = smooth part of right atria, coronary sinus, oblique vein of left atrium
49
Q

What is dextrocardia?

A
  • when the heart loops to the left rather than to the right
50
Q

What is situs invertus?

A
  • all organs are mirror imaged
51
Q

How does the foramen ovale close?

A
  • before birth higher pressure in RA than LA
  • neonates take first breath in so lungs expand
  • decreased pressure in pulmonary circuit
  • LA pressure > RA
  • forces septum primum against septum secundum closing foramen ovale
52
Q

What does the umbilical vein become after birth?

A

Ligamentum teres

53
Q

What organs make up the foregut?

A

pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, proximal duodenum

liver, gall bladder, bile duct, pancreas

54
Q

How does oesophageal atresia iccur?

A
  • tracheoesophageal septum deviates dorsally favouring the trachea so oesophagus ends as closed tube
55
Q

What is omphalocele?

A

extra abdominal herniation with peritoneum

56
Q

What is gastroschisis?

A
  • extra abdominal herniation without peritoneum covering

- related to Hirschprung’s disease

57
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum?

A
  • remains of embryonic vitello-intestinal duct
  • pancreatic and gastric ectopic tissue contains
  • 2 inches
  • 2 feet from ileocaexcal junction
58
Q

What is a rectovesical fistula?

A
  • abnormal connection between rectum and bladder
59
Q

What is a rectourethral fistula?

A
  • abnormal connection between rectum and urethra
60
Q

What is a rectovaginal fistula?

A
  • abnormal connection between rectum and vagina
61
Q

What does the nephrogenic cord develop into?

A
  • pronephros
  • mesonephros
  • metanephros
62
Q

What is a pelvic kidney?

A
  • kidney fails to migrate cranially
63
Q

What is a horseshoe kidney?

A
  • 2 metanephric masses fuse

- stuck when ascend at IMA

HD2 (22 decks)

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