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Anatomy I Flashcards

1
Q 
Cranial-caudal and left-right axes define which of the following kinds of planes?
A. coronal
B. sagittal
C. parasagittal
D. transverse
A

A. coronal

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2
Q

A median-sagittal plane is described by which of the following two intersecting axes?
A. cranial caudal and the left-right axes
B. cranial caudal and the anterior-posterior axes
C. left-right and the anterior-posterior axes
D. none of the above

A

B. cranial caudal and the anterior-posterior axes

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3
Q

While standing in the anatomical position, the palms of the hand are supinated.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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4
Q 
Which of the following organs would NOT be seen in a midsagittal section of the human body?
A. heart
B. lungs
C. intestine
D. transverse colon
E. brain
A

B. lungs

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5
Q 
The anterior-posterior axis serves for the axis of rotation for which of the following movement pairs?
A. Flexion-extension
B. Abduction-adduction
C. Circumduction
D. Pronation-supination
A

B. Abduction-adduction

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6
Q 
The axis of rotation for flexion and extension is...?
A. longitudinal or cranial-caudal
B. left-right or transverse
C. anterior-posterior
D. none of the above
A

B. left-right or transverse

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7
Q 
The epidermis can best be described as what class of
epithelium?
A. Stratified cuboidal
B. Simple columnar
C. Stratified squamous
D. Transitional
A

C. Stratified squamous

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8
Q 
Which of the following pairs of terms describes the epidermis?
A. vascularized--innervated
B. avascular--not innervated
C. vasacularized--not innervated
D. avascular--innervated
A

D. avascular–innervated

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9
Q 
"Oil glands" (sebaceous glands) secreting their product directly into the hair follicle are classified with regard to their method of secretion by which of the following terms?
A. Sudoriferous
B. Eccrine
C. Merocrine
D. Holocrine
E. Apocrine
A

D. Holocrine

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10
Q

White fibrous (dense regular) connective tissue is characterized by highly ordered bundles of collagen fibers separated by narrow compressed nuclei. This type of connective tissue would be most characteristic of which of the following anatomical structures?
A. The matrix of organs such as the spleen and lymph nodes
B. Tendons and ligaments
C. Tunica adventitia of blood vessels
D. Umbilical cord

A

B. Tendons and ligaments

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11
Q 
Wharton’s jelly is an example of which category of connective tissue?
A. Special
B. Areolar
C. Embryonic
D. Adult
E. Cartilaginous
A

C. Embryonic

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12
Q 
Which of the following types of glycosaminoglycans is the largest of the GAGS, is the only GAG which lacks sulfate groups, and is present in nearly all connective tissues?
A. Hyaluronic acid
B. Heparin
C. Chondroitin sulfate
D. Keratan sulfate
A

A. Hyaluronic acid

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13
Q 
Cells that initially lay down cartilage matrix are best identified as which of the following?
A. Chondroclasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Chondroblasts
D. Chondrocytes
E. Fibroblasts
A

C. Chondroblasts

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14
Q 
Which of the following groups of cells are capable of breaking down bone matrix?
A. Chondroclasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Chondroblasts
D. Chondrocytes
E. Fibroblasts
A

B. Osteoclasts

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15
Q 
Which of the following would NOT be classified as a long bone?
A. femur
B. humerus
C. ulna
D. calcaneus
E. radius
A

D. calcaneus

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16
Q 
The patella is an example of which of the following types of bones?
A. short
B. long
C. irregular
D. sesamoid
A

D. sesamoid

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17
Q 
The joint between a tooth and its socket is best described by which of the following?
A. condyloid
B. suture
C. fibrous
D. syndesmosis
E. both B and C
A

C. fibrous

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18
Q 
Which of the following types of joints is an example of a
diarthrosis joint?
A. condyloid
B. suture
C. gomphosis
D. syndesmosis
E. both B and C
A

A. condyloid

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19
Q 
In a diarthrosis, which component is more vascularized than the others?
A. outer fibrous capsule
B. articular cartilage
C. ligaments
D. synovial membrane
A

D. synovial membrane

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20
Q

During arm (humerus) abduction, the serratus anterior clamps the scapula against the thoracic wall, thereby providing a stable base for the movement of the glenohumeral joint. While engaged in this activity, the serratus anterior muscle would best
be described by which of the following terms?
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Fixator
D. Synergist

A

C. Fixator

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21
Q 
Sequentially flexing, abducting, extending, and adducting your arm (brachium) in such a manner that the elbow describes a circular pattern is referred to by which of the following terms?
A. Rotation
B. Supination
C. Circumduction
D. Reposition
E. Protraction
A

C. Circumduction

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22
Q 
A muscle contraction that results in the lengthening of a muscle would best be described as which of the following?
A. concentric
B. eccentric
C. isometric
D. both A and B
E. both B and C
A

B. eccentric

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23
Q 
The connective tissue membrane that surrounds each fascicle of a skeletal muscle and physically supports blood vessels and nerves supplying the fascicles is referred to by which of the following terms?
A. Perimysium
B. Endomysium
C. Epimysium
D. Endotendineum
A

A. Perimysium

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24
Q 
During the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, which band(s) DOES/DO shorten?
A. The I band only
B. The A band only
C. The H band only
D. Both the I and the A bands
E. Both the I bands and the H bands
A

E. Both the I bands and the H bands

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25
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding fast twitch muscle fibers?
A. Fast-twitch fibers have fewer mitochondria than slow-switch fibers.
B. Fast-twitch fibers have less myoglobin than slow-switch fibers.
C. Fast-twitch fibers are more fatigue-resistant than slow-switch fibers.
D. Fast-twitch fibers primarily utilize glycolysis rather than oxidative phosphorylation.
E. Fast-twitch fibers have more ATPase than slow-switch fibers.

A

C. Fast-twitch fibers are more fatigue-resistant than slow-switch fibers.

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26
Q 
Which muscle is contained within the superficial cervical fascia?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Platysma
C. Pectoralis major
D. Pectoralis minor
E. Axillary muscle
A

B. Platysma

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27
Q 
The axilla is generally described as a truncated pyramid with a quadrangular base. The anterior and posterior borders can be palpated and are created by muscles. The anterior border (anterior axillary fold) of the base of the axilla is formed by which of the following muscles or muscle groups?
A. Pectoralis major
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Latissimus dorsi and teres major
D. Pectoralis minor
E. Pectoralis major and pectoralis minor
A

A. Pectoralis major

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28
Q

The cranial end of the embryonic neural tube becomes
subdivided into five subdivisions, each of which forms specific parts of the adult brain. The thalamus is derived from which of the following subdivisions?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon

A

B. Diencephalon

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29
Q 
Which of the following terms refers to an aggregation of nerve cell bodies, dendrites, and synapses in the central nervous system?
A. synapse
B. ganglion
C. nerve
D. nucleus
A

D. nucleus

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30
Q 
A bundle of axons in the central nervous system is referred to by which of the following terms?
A. Nucleus
B. Tract
C. Ganglion
D. Nerve
E. Gray matter
A

B. Tract

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31
Q 
Pre-ganglionic autonomic fibers are carried in the:
A. White rami communicantes
B. Gray rami communicantes
C. Dorsal spinal roots
D. Spinal nerves
E. Both B and D
A

A. White rami communicantes

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32
Q 
How many cervical vertebrae are present in the human vertebral column?
A. five
B. six
C. seven
D. eight
E. nine
A

C. seven

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33
Q 
How many pairs of cervical spinal nerves are present in the human?
A. five
B. six
C. seven
D. eight
E. nine
A

D. eight

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34
Q 
Which of the following are/is NOT found in the axillary sheath?
A. Axillary artery
B. Axillary vein
C. Axillary lymph nodes
D. Cords of brachial plexus
A

C. Axillary lymph nodes

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35
Q 
The roots of C7 and T1 unite to form the:
A. Middle trunk
B. Lower trunk
C. Upper trunk
D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

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36
Q 
The lateral cord is formed by the union of the anterior divisions of which of the following trunks?
A. middle trunk
B. upper (superior) trunk
C. lower (lower) trunk
D. Both A and C
E. Both A and B
A

E. Both A and B

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37
Q 
The anterior compartment of the arm (brachium) contains the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Which of the following nerves of the brachial plexus supplies the anterior brachium?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Axillary nerve
A

D. Musculocutaneous nerve

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38
Q 
This posterior compartment of the brachium (arm) contains the triceps complex. Which of the following nerves supplies the muscles of the posterior compartment of the brachium?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Axillary nerve
A

C. Radial nerve

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39
Q

Which of the following nerves carries fibers only from spinal cord levels C8, and T1?
A. radial
B. ulnar
C. musculocutaneous
D. axillary
E. lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm

A

B. ulnar

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40
Q 
Which of the following nerves are terminal branches of the
posterior cord of the brachial plexus?
A. Median and ulnar
B. Radial and ulnar
C. Axillary and radial
D. Long thoracic and medial
E. Ulnar and axillary
A

C. Axillary and radial

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41
Q 
The suprascapular nerve is a direct branch from which of the following subdivisions of the brachial plexus?
A. Root of C5
B. Superior trunk
C. Middle trunk
D. Lateral cord
E. Medial cord
A

B. Superior trunk

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42
Q 
The sternal angle marks the union of the manubrium and sternebrae. It can be used to identify the location of which of the following landmarks?
A. Clavicular-manubrium joint
B. Site of the first ribs
C. Site of the second ribs
D. Site of the third ribs
E. The apex of the heart
A

C. Site of the second ribs

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43
Q

The head of the radius articulates with which of the following landmarks?
A. Capitulum of the humerus
B. Scaphoid and lunate bones of the carpus
C. Trochlea of the humerus
D. Fovea of the trochlear process

A

A. Capitulum of the humerus

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44
Q

Which of the following descriptions best describes the
attachments of the interosseous membrane of the forearm?
A. Medial side of radius and medial side of ulna
B. Medial side of radius and lateral side of ulna
C. Lateral side of radius and lateral side of ulna
D. Lateral side of radius and medial side of ulna

A

B. Medial side of radius and lateral side of ulna

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45
Q 
Origins of which of the following muscles lie superior and inferior to the spiral (radial) groove of the humerus?
A. Biceps
B. Brachialis
C. Triceps
D. Deltoid
A

C. Triceps

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46
Q 
Which of the following landmarks on the scapula serves as the site of origin for the long head of the biceps brachii?
A. Infraglenoid tubercle
B. Supraglenoid tubercle
C. Scapular tuberosity
D. Coracoid process
A

B. Supraglenoid tubercle

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47
Q

Paresthesia over the shoulder and the proximal arm and
weakness of arm abduction may be indicative of injury to which of the following nerves?
A. Musculocutaneous
B. Radial
C. Axillary
D. Ulnar
E. Median

A

C. Axillary

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48
Q 
Nerve supply to the latissimus dorsi is through which of the
following nerves?
A. lateral pectoral nerve
B. medial pectoral nerve
C. long thoracic nerve
D. spinal accessory nerve
E. thoracodorsal nerve.
A

E. thoracodorsal nerve.

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49
Q 
Which of the following muscles is not part of the rotator cuff mechanism?
A. Teres major
B. Subscapularis
C. Teres minor
D. Supraspinatus
E. Infraspinatus
A

A. Teres major

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50
Q

Which of the following serves as the insertion site of the
supraspinatus muscle?
A. Lesser tubercle
B. Inferior facet of the greater tubercle
C. Middle facet of the greater tubercle
D. Superior facet of the greater tubercle
E. Crest of the lesser tubercle

A

D. Superior facet of the greater tubercle

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51
Q 
Which of the following muscles is most important in rotating the greater tubercle from under the acromion during full arm elevation?
A. Teres minor
B. Infraspinatus
C. Supraspinatus
D. Subscapularis
E. Pectoralis minor
A

B. Infraspinatus

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52
Q 
Which of the following muscles is necessary for the first few degrees of arm elevation?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Subscapularis
C. Teres major
D. Teres minor
E. Supraspinatus
A

E. Supraspinatus

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53
Q 
Improper use of axillary crutches (crutch palsy) may damage which of the following nerves?
A. Radial
B. Axillary
C. Median
D. Ulnar
E. Musculocutaneous
A

A. Radial

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54
Q 
Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for the prevention of "winging" of the scapula?
A. Pectoralis major
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Rhomboideus major
D. Serratus anterior
E. Serratus posterior superior
A

D. Serratus anterior

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55
Q 
"Winging of the scapula" may be the result of injury to which of the following nerves?
A. Thoracodorsal
B. Axillary
C. Long thoracic
D. Thoracoacromial
E. Suprascapular
A

C. Long thoracic

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56
Q 
Which of the following arterial branches does NOT come off the third part (distal part) of the axillary artery?
A. Subscapular artery
B. Posterior circumflex humeral
C. Anterior circumflex humeral
D. Superior (supreme) thoracic artery
A

D. Superior (supreme) thoracic artery

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57
Q 
The circumflex scapular artery is a branch of which of the following?
A. Thyrocervical trunk
B. Costocervical trunk
C. Thoracoacromial trunk
D. Subscapular artery
E. None of the above
A

D. Subscapular artery

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58
Q 
Which of the following nerves supplies the anterior brachium?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Axillary nerve
A

D. Musculocutaneous nerve

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59
Q 
Which of the following muscles is a single-joint muscle and would not be involved in active/passive insufficiency?
A. Long head of the biceps
B. Short head of the biceps
C. Long head of the triceps
D. Flexor digitorum superficialis
E. Brachialis
A

E. Brachialis

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60
Q 
Which of the following muscles attaches to the coracoid
process?
A. Short head of the biceps brachii
B. Triceps lateralis;
C. Pectoralis major;
D. Long head of the biceps brachii;
E. Subclavius.
A

A. Short head of the biceps brachii

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61
Q

Structures that are both medial to the biceps tendon and deep to the bicipital aponeurosis include which of the following?
A. Brachial artery only
B. Median nerve only
C. Median cubital vein only
D. Both the brachial artery and the median nerve

A

D. Both the brachial artery and the median nerve

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62
Q 
In the arm, the posterior ulnar recurrent artery forms an
anastomosis with which of the following?
A. Superior radial collateral
B. Inferior radial collateral
C. Deep brachial
D. Superior ulnar collateral
E. Inferior ulnar collateral
A

D. Superior ulnar collateral

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63
Q 
Which of the following represents the medial boundary of the cubital fossa?
A. Brachioradialis muscle
B. Pronator teres muscle
C. Brachialis muscle
D. Biceps tendon
E. Pronator quadratus muscle
A

B. Pronator teres muscle

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64
Q 
Which of the following nerves enters the forearm by passing between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris?
A. Ulnar
B. Median
C. Radial
D. Musculocutaneous
E. Axillary
A

A. Ulnar

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65
Q 
Which of the following nerves penetrates the coracobrachialis muscle?
A. Ulnar
B. Median
C. Radial
D. Musculocutaneous
E. Axillary
A

D. Musculocutaneous

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66
Q 
Which of the following muscles does not receive innervation from the median nerve?
A. Flexor carpi ulnaris
B. Palmaris longus
C. Pronator teres
D. Flexor carpi radialis
E. Flexor digitorum profundus
A

A. Flexor carpi ulnaris

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67
Q 
Insertion of the extensor carpi radialis brevis is on the:
A. Base of the second metacarpal
B. Tubercle of the scaphoid
C. Base of the third metacarpal
D. Hamulus of the hamate
A

C. Base of the third metacarpal

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68
Q 
Which of the following muscles of the anterior antebrachial compartment does not take its origin from the humerus?
A. Palmaris longus
B. Flexor digitorum profundus
C. Pronator teres
D. Flexor carpi radialis
E. Flexor carpi ulnaris
A

B. Flexor digitorum profundus

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69
Q

Which of the following nerves innervate(s) the flexor digitorum profundus muscle?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Both the ulnar nerve and the median nerve
D. Neither the ulnar nerve or the median nerve

A

C. Both the ulnar nerve and the median nerve

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70
Q 
The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of which of the following?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Posterior cord
A

C. Median nerve

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71
Q 
The common interosseous artery is a branch off which of the following arteries?
A. Brachial
B. Ulnar
C. Radial
D. Radial recurrent
E. Anterior interosseous
72
Q

A cubitus varus deformity results in a(n) ? in the normal
carrying angle (5°) and may be caused by a stretching of the ? collateral ligament.
A. Decrease, medial
B. Decrease, lateral
C. Increase, medial
D. Increase, lateral

A

B. Decrease, lateral

73
Q 
Which of the following nerves passes around the medial
epicondyle of the humerus?
A. Ulnar
B. Median
C. Radial
D. Musculocutaneous
E. Axillary
74
Q 
Which of the following nerves wraps around the neck of the radius?
A. Ulnar
B. Median
C. Radial
D. Musculocutaneous
E. Axillary
75
Q

Which of the following statement(s) is true?
A. The radial nerve travels medial to the radial artery in the forearm.
B. The ulnar nerve accompanies the ulnar artery in the forearm.
C. The anterior ulnar recurrent artery anastomoses with the superior ulnar collateral.
D. The recurrent radial artery anastomoses with the ascending deep brachial artery.

A

B. The ulnar nerve accompanies the ulnar artery in the forearm.

76
Q 
The radial artery in the "anatomical snuff box" may be injured when which of the following bones is fractured?
A. Lunate
B. Scaphoid
C. Capitate
D. Hamate
E. Triquetral
A

B. Scaphoid

77
Q 
The boundaries of the anatomical snuff box include all of the following except:
A. Abductor pollicis brevis
B. Extensor pollicis longus
C. Extensor pollicis brevis
D. Abductor pollicis longus
A

A. Abductor pollicis brevis

78
Q 
The skin over the hypothenar eminence is supplied by which of the following nerves?
A. Superficial radial
B. Deep radial
C. Ulnar
D. Median
E. Posterior interosseous
79
Q 
The skin on the lateral dorsal half of the hand, proximal to the digits is supplied by which of the following nerves?
A. Superficial radial
B. Deep radial
C. Ulnar
D. Median
E. Posterior interosseous
A

A. Superficial radial

80
Q 
Which of the following structures passes through Guyon’s canal?
A. Median nerve only
B. Radial artery only
C. Ulnar nerve only
D. Ulnar artery only
E. Both the ulnar nerve and artery
A

E. Both the ulnar nerve and artery

81
Q

Which of the following nerves innervate(s) the adductor pollicis muscle?
A. Ulnar nerve only
B. Median nerve only
C. Both the ulnar nerve and the median nerve
D. Neither the ulnar nerve or the median nerve

A

A. Ulnar nerve only

82
Q

Which of the following nerves innervate(s) the dorsal interossei muscles?
A. Ulnar nerve only
B. Median nerve only
C. Both the ulnar nerve and the median nerve
D. Neither the ulnar nerve or the median nerve

A

A. Ulnar nerve only

all interossei innervated by Ulnar nerve

83
Q 
Laceration of the recurrent branch of the median nerve will paralyze which of the following muscles of the thumb?
A. Flexor pollicis brevis
B. Abductor pollicis longus
C. Adductor pollicis brevis
D. Extensor pollicis brevis
E. Extensor pollicis longus
A

A. Flexor pollicis brevis

84
Q 
Following injury to a nerve at the wrist, the thumb is laterally rotated and adducted. The hand has a flattened appearance and is "ape-like." Which of the following nerves is damaged?
A. Ulnar
B. Axillary
C. Radial
D. Median
85
Q

Which of the following statements is/are correct concerning the dorsal interossei?
A. They are innervated by the ulnar nerve.
B. They are adductors of digits 2, 3, and 4.
C. They are unipennate.
D. The middle finger (digit 3) is not supplied by these muscles.

A

A. They are innervated by the ulnar nerve.

86
Q 
An inability to oppose the thumb to the little finger can result from damage to which of the following nerves?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Anterior interosseous nerve
C. Deep radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Median nerve
A

E. Median nerve

87
Q

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the lumbricals?
A. They are all innervated by the median nerve.
B. They are extensors of the MP joints and IP joints of digits 2-5.
C. They insert on the ulnar side of the extensor expansion of their respective digit.
D. Each arises from the radial side of a deep flexor tendon.

A

D. Each arises from the radial side of a deep flexor tendon.

88
Q

Which of the following nerves innervate(s) the lumbrical
muscles?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Both the ulnar nerve and the median nerve
D. Neither the ulnar nerve or the median nerve

A

C. Both the ulnar nerve and the median nerve

89
Q

A 57 year old female patient presents with tenderness and swelling in the inferolateral quadrant of her right breast. Upon examination, her clinician notices enlarged lymph nodes in the patient’s right axilla. What is the main pathway of lymphatic drainage for the breast?
A. Most lymph from the breast drains to pectoral and then axillary lymph nodes.
B. Most lymph form the breast drains to pectoral and then parasternal lymph nodes.
C. Most lymph from the breast drains to parasternal and then abdominal lymph nodes

A

A. Most lymph from the breast drains to pectoral and then axillary lymph nodes.

90
Q

You are working away in the anatomy lab one afternoon,
completing a dissection assignment for the upper limb. You reflect the pectoralis major muscle and notice two distinct nerve branches. One of the nerve branches is positioned superior and medial, emerging just above the superior edge of the muscle just deep to pectoralis major, which you think is pectoralis minor. The other branch is positioned inferior and lateral, and pierces what you think may be the pectoralis minor muscle.
What is the name of the nerve that is apparently piercing
pectoralis minor?
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Medial pectoral nerve
C. Lateral pectoral nerve
D. Parasternal nerve
E. Supreme thoracic nerve

A

B. Medial pectoral nerve

91
Q 
A patient arrives at the emergency department of a large hospital with a kitchen knife protruding from his left anterior shoulder, just above his armpit. What artery is likely lacerated?
A. Subclavian a.
B. Axillary a.
C. Brachial a.
D. Cephalic a.
A

B. Axillary a.

92
Q

A patient arrives at the emergency department of a large hospital with a kitchen knife protruding from her left anterior shoulder, just above his armpit. The responding clinicians determine that the laceration is in the third part of the patient’s axillary a., just proximal to its large tributary, the subscapular artery. Although this injury potentially threatens the patient’s blood supply to her upper extremity, the clinicians are not overly
concerned because collateral blood supply to the rest of the upper limb is possible via what anastomosis?
A. Cubital
B. Brachial
C. Axillary
D. Scapular

A

D. Scapular

93
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the anatomy of a typical rib is CORRECT?
A. The sternal end of each rib lies at a higher level than the vertebral end.
B. The tubercle of a typical rib articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra with the same number.
C. Ribs 1-7 are referred to as vertebrochondral ribs.
D. The costal groove contains from superior to inferior: nerve, artery, vein.
E. The head of a typical rib articulates with the demifacets of its own number vertebra and the vertebra below.

A

B. The tubercle of a typical rib articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra with the same number.

94
Q 
The proximal attachment of the serratus anterior muscle is the external is the external surfaces of the lateral parts of ribs 1-9. The distal attachment is the anterior surface of the medial border of the scapula. Damage to the nerve that supplies this muscle results in “winging” of the scapula. Which of the following innervates the serratus anterior muscle?
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Lateral pectoral nerve
C. Median pectoral nerve
D. Intercostal nerves 1-9
A

A. Long thoracic nerve

95
Q 
Which of the following structures would be penetrated first by a needle passing through the anterior chest wall just to the left of the sternum?
A. External intercostal muscle
B. Internal intercostal muscle
C. Transverse thoracis muscle
D. Long thoracic nerve
A

B. Internal intercostal muscle

96
Q 
Mammary glands would NOT receive blood from which of the following arteries?
A. Internal thoracic
B. Nearby intercostal arteries
C. Thoracoacromial artery
D. Lateral thoracic artery
A

C. Thoracoacromial artery

97
Q 
Which of the following inserts onto the tubercle of the first rib between the shallow groove for the subclavian artery and vein?
A. Middle scalene
B. Anterior scalene
C. Posterior scalene
D. Sternocleidomastoid
A

B. Anterior scalene

98
Q 
Which of the following heart sounds is best heard in the second intercostal space along the right side of the sternum?
A. Pulmonary
B. Bicuspid
C. Tricuspid
D. Aortic
99
Q 
The true intrinsic muscles of the back are innervated by dorsal (posterior) rami and are divided into three groups. Which of the following groups of true intrinsic back muscles includes the splenius capitis and splenius cervicus?
A. Spinotransversalis
B. Sacrospinalis
C. Erector spinae
D. Transversospinalis
A

A. Spinotransversalis

100
Q

The thoracolumbar fascia is a triangular-shaped sheet of tough connective tissue covering the lower back. It is the partial site of origin of the latissimus dorsi and abdominal oblique muscles. This fascia can be divided into three layer or laminae. Which of the laminae attaches to the lumbar spinous processes?
A. Posterior
B. Middle
C. Anterior
D. All three layers attach to the lumbar spinous processes.

A

A. Posterior

101
Q 
Which of the following muscle groups is part of the intrinsic musculature of the back?
A. Trapezius
B. Erector spinae group
C. Latissimus
D. Serratus posterior group
A

B. Erector spinae group

102
Q 
Which of the following muscle groups is lateral to the others listed below?
A. Longissimus group
B. Interspinales
C. Spinalis group
D. Transversospinalis group
E. Iliocostalis group
A

E. Iliocostalis group

103
Q

Anterior sacral foramina allow the passage of which of the
following?
A. Dorsal rami of sacral spinal nerves
B. Ventral rami of sacral spinal nerves
C. The lower thoracic nerves via the cauda equina
D. The upper lumbar nerves via the cauda equina

A

B. Ventral rami of sacral spinal nerves

104
Q 
A typical thoracic vertebra includes all of the following
components except:
A. A heart-shaped body
B. Inferior articular facets
C. Superior costal demifacets
D. Transverse foramina
A

D. Transverse foramina

105
Q 
The sacral promontory is formed by which of the following structures?
A. The centrum of L1
B. The spinous process of L1
C. The centrum of S1
D. The spinous process of S2
A

C. The centrum of S1

106
Q 
Which of the following ligaments extends along the roof of the neural canal?
A. Anterior longitudinal ligament
B. Posterior longitudinal ligament
C. Ligamentum flavum
D. Supraspinous ligament
A

C. Ligamentum flavum

107
Q

Transverse foramina are characteristic which of the following?
A. All cervical
B. Only the first six cervical
C. All cervical vertebrae plus the first thoracic vertebra
D. Only cervical vertebrae 2-7

A

A. All cervical

108
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding
vertebrae?
A. Transverse processes arise from the vertebra at the
intersection of the lamina and the pedicel.
B. The spinous process of a vertebrae arises from the
intersection of the two pedicels.
C. Mammillary bodies are associated with the anterior
articulating processes of the lower thoracic vertebrae.
D. The articular facets of the typical thoracic vertebrae are
organized in a sagittal plane.

A

A. Transverse processes arise from the vertebra at the

intersection of the lamina and the pedicel.

109
Q 
How many cervical vertebrae are present in the human vertebral column?
A. Five
B. Six
C. Seven
D. As many as you want
110
Q 
An exaggeration of a secondary vertebral column curve is
characterized by which of the following?
A. Mostly occurs in the thoracic region
B. Is referred to as (hyper-)kypophysis
C. Mostly occurs in the cervical region
D. Is referred to as (hyper-)lordosis
A

D. Is referred to as (hyper-)lordosis

111
Q 
In the cervical region which of the following ligaments is referred to as the ligamentum nuchae?
A. Anterior longitudinal ligament
B. Posterior longitudinal ligament
C. Ligamentum flavum
D. Supraspinous ligament
A

D. Supraspinous ligament

112
Q

The anterior longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column has which of the following characteristics?
A. It anchors the emerging spinal nerves in place.
B. It limits the direction of nucleus pulposus extrusion during disk herniation.
C. It narrows anteriorly to the intervertebral disc.
D. It limits flexion.

A

B. It limits the direction of nucleus pulposus extrusion during disk herniation.

113
Q

Which of the following statements characterizes the denticulate ligaments?
A. They are found in the oral cavity and are part of the
gomphoses.
B. They attach the serratus anterior to the ribs.
C. They help to stabilize the spinal cord.
D. They extend between the pia mater and the arachnoid layer.

A

C. They help to stabilize the spinal cord.

114
Q 
The spinal cord proper ends at which of the following levels?
A. L5/S1
B. S5
C. L2
D. L4
115
Q 
How many pairs of cervical spinal nerves are present in the human?
A. Five
B. Six
C. Seven
D. Eight
116
Q 
Which of the following spaces or membranes around the spinal cord is superficial to all the others listed?
A. Dura mater
B. Pia mater
C. Epidural space
D. Arachnoid layer
A

C. Epidural space

117
Q 
Which of the following levels of the spinal cord form the cervical enlargement?
A. C1-C5
B. C3-C6
C. C3-T1
D. C5-T2
118
Q

Lateral horns of the spinal cord are found in which of the
following regions?
A. Cervical through upper sacral
B. Lower cervical through the upper lumbar
C. Upper cervical through the lower thoracicc
D. Thoracic through the upper lumbar

A

D. Thoracic through the upper lumbar

119
Q 
Cell bodies of the alpha motor neurons originate from which of the following regions of the spinal cord?
A. Posterior columns
B. Lateral columns
C. Lateral horns
D. Anterior horns
A

D. Anterior horns

120
Q 
Which of the following characteristics is NOT characteristic of autonomic preganglionic neurons?
A. Always myelinated
B. Originate from ganglia
C. Utilize acetylcholine
D. Synapse in ganglia
A

B. Originate from ganglia

121
Q 
The stellate ganglion is formed from which of the following fused ganglia?
A. All three cervical plus T1
B. T1 through T5
C. Middle and inferior cervical plus T1
D. Inferior cervical plus T1
A

D. Inferior cervical plus T1

122
Q 
Splanchnic nerves are composed of preganglionic fibers and visceral sensory fibers. They supply abdominal viscera. The greater splanchnic nerve synapses in which of the following regions?
A. Wall of upper GI tract
B. Aorticorenal ganglion
C. Celiac ganglion
D. Superior mesenteric ganglion
A

C. Celiac ganglion

123
Q

The parasympathetic supply to the thoracic cavity is via which of the following?
A. Paravertebral chain ganglion pairs T1-T5
B. Splanchnic nerves
C. Vagus nerves
D. Stellate ganglion

A

C. Vagus nerves

124
Q

The medial arcuate ligaments of the diaphragm form the
lumbocostal arches and anteriorly cross which of the following muscles?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Quadratus lumborum
C. Psoas major
D. Transversus thoracis

A

C. Psoas major

125
Q 
The vagus nerves pass through the diaphragm at which vertebral level?
A. T6
B. T8
C. T10
D. T12
126
Q 
The aortic opening of the diaphragm is located at which
vertebral level?
A. T6
B. T8
C. T10
D. T12
127
Q 
Which of the following structures is/are found in both the
superior and the inferior mediastinum?
A. Thymus
B. Vagus nerves
C. Heart
D. Trachea
E. Phrenic nerves
128
Q 
The heart is found in which of the following locations?
A. Anterior superior mediastinum
B. Middle superior mediastinum
C. Anterior inferior mediastinum
D. Middle inferior mediastinum
E. Posterior inferior mediastinum
A

D. Middle inferior mediastinum

129
Q 
Which of the following structures would NOT be found in the superior mediastinum?
A. Esophagus
B. Azygos vein
C. Vagus nerves
D. Thymus
E. Trachea
A

B. Azygos vein

130
Q 
In aspirating material from the right costodiaphragmatic recess, care must be taken to not penetrate which of the following?
A. Spleen
B. The lower lobe of the right lung
C. The middle lobe of the right lung
D. The liver
E. The right ventricle of the heart
A

D. The liver

131
Q 
Which of the following lobes would not be found in the right lung?
A. Upper (superior)
B. Middle
C. Lower (inferior)
D. Lingula
A

D. Lingula

132
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT with regard to pulmonary veins?
A. Pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to the left atrium and are intersegmental.
B. Pulmonary veins return deoxygenated blood from the lung interstitium to the right atrium and are intersegmental.
C. Pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to the left atrium and are intrasegmental.
D. Pulmonary veins return deoxygenated blood from the lung to the interstitium to the right atrium and are intrasegmental.

A

A. Pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to the left atrium and are intersegmental.

133
Q 
Which level of the tracheobronchial tree branchings supply bronchopulmonary segments?
A. Primary bronchi
B. Secondary bronchi
C. Tertiary bronchi
D. Respiratory bronchioles
E. Terminal bronchioles
A

C. Tertiary bronchi

134
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the vascular supply to the bronchopulmonary tree?
A. Bronchial arteries that supply the left lung are branches off the thoracic aorta.
B. Bronchial veins on the right drain into the azygos vein.
C. Bronchial arteries supplying the right lung are branches off the thoracic aorta.
D. Bronchial veins on the left drain into the accessory
hemiazygos vein.

A

C. Bronchial arteries supplying the right lung are branches off the thoracic aorta.

135
Q 
Which of the following structures lies anterior to the arch of the aorta?
A. Left primary bronchus
B. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Left phrenic nerve
D. Trachea
A

C. Left phrenic nerve

136
Q

The posterior descending artery is a branch of the right coronary artery.
A. TRUE
B. False

137
Q

Arteries supplying the AV and SA nodes are branches from the right coronary artery.
A. TRUE
B. False

138
Q 
Which of the following is normally NOT a direct branch off the aortic arch?
A. Brachiocephalic
B. Left common carotid
C. Left subclavian
D. Right subclavian
A

D. Right subclavian

139
Q 
Which of the following veins is involved in draining the left posterior intercostal spaces?
A. Left internal thoracic
B. Azygos vein
C. Hemiazygos vein
D. Lateral thoracic vein
A

C. Hemiazygos vein

140
Q 
Which of the following structures would NOT be found in both the left and right ventricles?
A. Papillary muscles
B. Moderator band
C. Chordae tendinae
D. Trabeculae carnae
A

B. Moderator band

141
Q 
Which of the following represents the proximal attachment of the inguinal ligament?
A. ASIS
B. AIIS
C. greater trochanter
D. intertrochanteric crest
E. pubic tubercle
142
Q 
The deep inguinal ring is formed by an evagination of the fascia of which of the following muscles?
A. transversus
B. internal oblique
C. external oblique
D. sartorius
E. rectus femoris
A

A. transversus

143
Q 
The inguinal ligament is attached to the ASIS and the pubic tubercle and is the inferior border of the aponeurosis of which of the following muscles?
A. transversus
B. internal oblique
C. external oblique
D. sartorius
E. rectus femoris
A

C. external oblique

144
Q 
Remnants of the umbilical arteries are associated with which of the following landmarks on the posterior aspect of the anterior abdominal wall?
A. falciform ligament
B. medial umbilical folds
C. median umbilical fold
D. lateral umbilical folds
E. ligamentum teres
A

B. medial umbilical folds

145
Q 
Which of the following "ligaments" extends from the umbilicus to the liver?
A. lesser omentum
B. ligamentum teres
C. falciform 
D. greater omentum
E. epiploic
A

C. falciform

146
Q 
The ligamentum teres hepatis is enclosed within which of the following ligaments?
A. gastrosplenic ligament
B. gastrohepatic ligament
C. hepatoduodenal ligament
D. falciform ligament
E. coronary ligament
A

D. falciform ligament

147
Q 
When full, the urinary bladder would be found in which of the following regions of the abdomen?
A. right hypochondriac
B. epigastric
C. hypogastric
D. right lateral
A

C. hypogastric

148
Q 
Which of the following types of hernias occurs primarily to older men, does not pass through the inguinal canal, and does not extend into the scrotum?
A. direct inguinal hernia
B. indirect inguinal hernia
C. femoral hernia
D. umbilical hernia
A

A. direct inguinal hernia

149
Q 
The porta hepatis lies between which two liver lobes?
A. right and left
B. right and caudate
C. left and caudate
D. right and quadrate
E. caudate and quadrate
A

E. caudate and quadrate

150
Q 
The lesser omentum separates which two lobes of the liver?
A. right and left
B. right and caudate
C. quadrate and caudate
D. left and caudate
A

D. left and caudate

151
Q 
Which of the following is the largest lobe of the liver?
A. right 
B. left
C. quadrate
D. caudate
E. median
152
Q 
Which of the following is the largest visceral organ in the body?
A. liver
B. spleen
C. stomach
D. kidney
A

A. liver

Spleen = largest LYMPHATIC organ

153
Q 
The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric vein and which of the following?
A. inferior mesenteric vein
B. splenic vein
C. left gastroepiploic vein
D. right gastroepiploic vein
E. gastroduodenal vein
A

B. splenic vein

154
Q

Which of the following is true of the hepatic portal vein?
A. it is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric veins
B. it receives venous blood from most of the gastrointestinal tract
C. it passes to the liver through the falciform ligament
D. it forms anterior to the head of the pancrease
E. it terminates directly into the inferior vena cava

A

B. it receives venous blood from most of the gastrointestinal tract

155
Q 
Which of the following is NOT part of the portal triad?
A. hepatic portal vein
B. common hepatic duct
C. inferior vena cava
D. common hepatic artery
A

C. inferior vena cava

156
Q 
A strong sphincter is associated with which of the following structures?
A. fundus of the stomach
B. body of the spleen
C. spleen
D. pylorus of the stomach
A

D. pylorus of the stomach

157
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of the hepatoduodenal ligament?
A. it is part of the greater omentum
B. it is part of the lesser omentum
C. it contains the round ligament of the liver
D. it attaches to the bare area of the liver
E. it attaches to the neck of the gallbladder

A

B. it is part of the lesser omentum

158
Q 
Which of the following parts of the GI tract is not suspended by the mesentary?
A. transverse colon
B. sigmoid colon
C. ileum
D. jejunum
E. duodenum
A

E. duodenum

159
Q 
The neck of the pancreas is crossed by which of the following structures?
A. splenic artery
B. left gastric artery
C. common hepatic artery
D. abdominal aorta
E. superior mesenteric artery
A

E. superior mesenteric artery

160
Q 
The proximal end of the duodenum begins at which of the following levels?
A. T11
B. L1
C. L2
D. L3
E. L4
A

B. L1

L2 is where it ends

161
Q 
The junction between the sigmoid colon and rectum is anterior to which of the following landmarks?
A. S2
B. S3
C. S4
D. pelvic brim
E. arcuate line
162
Q 
The small intestine is approximately 21 feet in length. Which of the following is the longest of the three subdivisions of the small intestine?
A. jejunum
B. duodenum
C. ileum
D. rectum
163
Q 
Taenia coli are assocaited with which of the following structures?
A. ileum
B. duodenum
C. jejunum
D. sigmoid colon
A

D. sigmoid colon

164
Q 
The abdominal aorta gives off three pairs of visceral branches. Which of the following would NOT be included in this group?
A. renal
B. gonadal
C. middle suprarenal
D. phrenic
A

D. phrenic

165
Q 
The superior suprarenal arteries are branches of which of the following vessels?
A. inferior phrenic 
B. abdominal aorta
C. renal
D. superior mesenteric
E. inferior mesenteric
A

A. inferior phrenic

166
Q

The short gastric arteries are branches of the left gastric artery?
A. True
B. False

167
Q 
Which of the following arteries is not a direct branch of the celiac trunk?
A. splenic 
B. right gastric
C. common hepatic
D. left gastric
A

B. right gastric

168
Q 
The vagus nerves pass through the diaphragm at which of the following levels?
A. T6
B. T8
C. T10
D. T12
169
Q 
The lesser curvature of the stomach is supplied by the:
A. left gastric artery
B. splenic artery
C. common hepatic artery
D. greater epiploic artery
E. none of the above
A

A. left gastric artery

170
Q 
The ascending colon is supplied by which of the following?
A. celiac trunk
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. inferior mesenteric artery
D. middle colic artery
E. median sacral artery
A

B. superior mesenteric artery

171
Q 
The inferior suprarental arteries are branches of which of the following arteries?
A. inferior phrenic
B. common hepatic
C. left gastric
D. abdominal aorta
E. renal
172
Q 
The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta into the common iliacs is associated with which of the following landmarks?
A. L3
B. L4
C. L5
D. S1
E. S2
173
Q 
The inguinal ligament attaches to which of the following structures?
A. ASIS and AIIS
B. AIIS and ischial spine
C. ASIS and pubic tubercle
D. ASIS and inferior pubic ramus
A

C. ASIS and pubic tubercle

174
Q 
The inferior vena cava passes through the diaphragm at which vertebral level?
A. T6
B. T8
C. T10
D. T12
175
Q 
The greater splanchnic nerves pass through the diaphragm at which vertebral level?
A. T6
B. T8
C. T10
D. T12
176
Q 
The paired diaphragmatic crura are connected superiorly by which of the following structure(s)?
A. pyloric sphincter
B. median arcuate ligament
C. medial arcuate ligament
D. lateral arcuate ligament
A

B. median arcuate ligament

177
Q 
The right lateral arcuate ligament is formed from the deep fascia of which of the following structures?
A. psoas major
B. quadratus lumborum
C. falciform ligament
D. right renal
A

B. quadratus lumborum

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