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Anatomy > Anatomy Exam 1 Practice Quiz: Osteology, Syndesmology, Myology, Thoracic and Pelvic Limb > Flashcards

Anatomy Exam 1 Practice Quiz: Osteology, Syndesmology, Myology, Thoracic and Pelvic Limb Flashcards

1
Q

Define Osteology

A

The study of structure, bones

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2
Q

5 Functions of the Skeleton

A

Support
Protection
Locomotion
Mineral homeostasis ( Ca+ phosphorus)
Heamopoiesis

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3
Q

What condition are German Shepherds prone to?

A

Hip dysplasia

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4
Q

Define axial, appendicular, and splanchnic bones and give examples of each.

A

Axial- Head, Vertebral Column, Sternum, Ribs and Hyoid apparatus

Appendicular-Limbs

Splanchnic - os penis, ossa cordis

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5
Q

(True or False, if false explain why) The hyoid apparatus is a splanchnic bone.

A

False, Its an axial bone

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6
Q

What does chondral mean or give origin of the word chondro

A

Chondral means relating to cartilage

Chondro= cartilage

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7
Q

Name examples of long, short, irregular, sesamoid, flat bones.

A

Long–> femur, humerus
Short–> carpals, tarsals
Irregular–> vertebrae
Sesamoid—> patella
Flat bones–> pelvic, scapula, skull

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8
Q

Sesamoid bones are formed where?

A

Grow (ossification) in tendons for extra strength at stress points.

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9
Q

Give an example of endochondral.

A

Femur: the growth plate

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10
Q

Define intramembranous and give an example.

A

Differentiated directly into fibrous connective tissue

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11
Q

What is the name of the area that houses the growth plate?

A

Metaphysis

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12
Q

What happens if there is a fracture on the growth plate?

A

It result in shorter or crooked growth of the long bone

Prevents the growth of new bone

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13
Q

What are 2 things the sesamoid bones do in regards to the tendons and muscles associated with?

A

Change tendons insertion direction away from the moving bones edges

Increase leverage exerted by muscles

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14
Q

What parts of the scapula are easily palpable?

A

Acromion

Hamate and Suprahamte (cat)

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15
Q

What part of the scapula requires deep palpation?

A

Spine of the acromion, borders ( caudal, cranial, dorsal), supraglenoid tubercle

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16
Q

Name the regions of the thoracic limb from most proximal to distal (or vice versa).

A

Pectoral Girdle: Scapula, clavicle,
Brachium: Humerus
Antebrachium: ulna and radius

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17
Q

What is the point of the elbow called and give it’s clinical significance.

A

Olecranon

Clin sig: AT the 5th intercostal for heart auscultations

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18
Q

The forelimb is attached to the body via a group of muscles known as? COME BACK

A

Thoracic limb muscles

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19
Q

Name the 3 different parts of the phalanges.

A

proximal 1 proximal 2 proximal 3

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20
Q

How many metacarpals are there? Number them from most medial to most lateral.

A

I II III IV V

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21
Q

What are the 2 rows of bones in the carpus called? Differentiate them, and also properly name the proximal row from most medial to lateral.

A

Proximal Row: has three bones
Intermedioradial, and Accessory, Ulnar

Distal Row: from medial to lateral I-IV

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22
Q

What are the 2 regions on the medial side of the scapula?

A

Serrated face
Subscapular fossa

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23
Q

What region/part of the scapula receives the head of the humerus?

A

Glenoid Cavity

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24
Q

What is the origin of the biceps brachii?

A

The supraglenoid tubercle

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25
Q

If looking at a radiograph what could the clavicle be misinterpreted as?

A

As a chip fracture

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26
Q

In cats the clavicle is what? (compared to the dog)

A

its an actual bone that is bigger

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27
Q

What is the main different in the feline scapula versus the canine?

A

contains two processes : a hamate and suprahamte

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28
Q

What is the distally directed process in the cat’s acromion?

A

The Hamate
Whereas the suprahamate is caudally directed

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29
Q

What is the clinical importance of the greater tubercle?

A

To help find the shoulder joint

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30
Q

What tendon is close to the greater tubercle?

A

The tendon of the infraspinatus

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31
Q

What bone does the humerus articulate with to form the shoulder joint?

A

Scapula

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32
Q

What 2 bones does the humerus articulate with to form the elbow joint?

A

Radius and Ulna

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33
Q

Where is the intertubercular groove located?

A

Between the head of the humerus and greater tubercle

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34
Q

What structure receives the anconeal process of the ulna?

A

The Olecranon fossa

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35
Q

In the distal extremities the trochlea is on the ______ side

A

Medial

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36
Q

Above trochlea is the supratrochlear foramen. Does anything run through it in the canine?

A

No

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37
Q

What view can we see the olecranon fossa?

A

Caudal View

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38
Q

What important structures pass through the supracondylar foramen? (In Cat)

A

Median nerve and brachial artery

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39
Q

What side is the supracondylar foramen located on the feline´s humerus?

A

medial

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40
Q

In the proximal part of the forearm where is the ulna in regards to the radius (will help you determine if it’s a right or left antebrachium).

A

In the upper part (Proximal) of the forearm, the ulna located caudo-medial to the radius

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41
Q

IN the distal part of the forearm where is the ulna in regards to the radius?

A

In the lower part (distal), the ulna located laterally

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42
Q

What part of the radius articulates with the ulna proximally?

A

Articulates with ulna proximally by its caudal surface

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43
Q

What part of the radius articulates with the ulna distally?

A

Articulates with ulna distally by its lateral surface border

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44
Q

Name the 2 distal extremities of the radius? (which one is on the medial side? Which one is on the lateral side?)

A

Trochlea
1. Ulnar notch is lateral
2. styloid process is medial

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45
Q

Name the region of the ulna that articulates with the humerus.

A

By the trochlear notch

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46
Q

Name the part of the ulna that articulates with the radius (distally)

A

Radial Notch

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47
Q

What CARPAL bones does the ulna articulate with?

A

Accessory carpal bones

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48
Q

What landmark is used for auscultation? What ICS is it near or associated with?

A

Olecranon

5th intercostal

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49
Q

The front aspect of Manus is called what?

A

Dorsal

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50
Q

The caudal aspect of the manus is called what?

A

Palmar

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51
Q

What is the total number of carpal bones?

A

7

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52
Q

What is the common name for digit 1?

A

dewclaw

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53
Q

Name the parts of the phalanges, what are the joints called in between these phalanges?

A

Proximal, middle, distal
interphalangeal joints –> saddle synovial joints

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54
Q

Describe the difference in the structure of the phalanges of digit 1 vs the phalanges of digits 2-5.

A

The first digit has only two phalanges, proximal & distal

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55
Q

Name some clinical considerations that can affect the forelimb (5 types).

A

Fractures
Osteosarcoma (tumor)
Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy
Degenerative Joint Disease
Panosteitis

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56
Q

What is panosteitis?

A

Idiopathic inflammatory disease primarily affecting young dogs of large breeds
Characterized by inflammation , endosteal & periosteal new bone formation, especially those of the legs.
Lameness of one or more legs is often apparent
Considered a self-limiting disease

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57
Q

What does DJD stand for?

A

Degenerative Joint Disease

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58
Q

What does HOD stand for?

A

Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy

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59
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor in dogs (all ages and breeds are affected)?

A

Osteosarcoma

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60
Q

Describe this malignant tumor growth pattern (where does it start?)

A

Starts deep within the bone & grow outward (bone destroyed)

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61
Q

What are some signs that patients may have this malignant tumor?

A

Lameness
Pathologic fractures

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62
Q

Where do you commonly or frequently find osteosarcomas?

A

Long Bones

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63
Q

What does hypertrophic mean?

A

Means increase in size

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64
Q

What age and breed demographic is most commonly affected by HOD?

A

Bone disease affects young, rapidly growing large breeds

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65
Q

Why is it unusual for a fracture in the shoulder region?

A

Because of the surrounding muscles that protect it. (synsarcosis)

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66
Q

If the distal antebrachium is fractured or broken what bones would more than likely be damaged?

A

Fractures at the distal part usually involves both bones

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67
Q

Name the 2 clinical considerations in the manus.

A

Fractures
Osteosarcoma

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68
Q

What does the pelvic girdle consist of?

A

Os coxae
- ilium
- ischium
- pubis

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69
Q

What is the anatomical term for the hip bone and which bones fuse to form it?

A

os coxae
- Formed by the fusion of
Illium
Ischium
Pubis

Consists of two hip bones fused together, united mid-ventrally at the symphysis pelvis, and joined the sacrum dorsally

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70
Q

What is the pelvic symphysis?

A

Where the two hip bones fuse together

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71
Q

What are the palpable structures of the hip bone?

A

Tuber Coxae
Tuber ischii ( hip extensors)
Tuber sacrale
Greater trochanter
Iliac crest

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72
Q

Which structures are used to measure for hip dysplasia?

A

Tuber Ischii
Tuber Sacral
Greater Trochanter

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73
Q

What is the clinical significance for the iliac crest?

A

Is a site for bone marrow biopsy

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74
Q

The head of the femur articulates with what part of the hip bone?

A

acetabulum

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75
Q

What part of the bone does the tibial tuberosity reside? (caudal or cranial?)

A

Cranial

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76
Q

Name a clinical significance of the tibia and fibula.

A

Fractures of tibia & fibula

Tibial tuberosity fracture
(Affects quadriceps , stifle extensors)

Tibia & fibula fractures are very common
easily diagnosed with x-rays and always require surgical intervention.

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77
Q

What TARSAL bones does the tibia articulate with?

A

Talus

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78
Q

Name the tarsal bones from proximal to distal, medial to lateral at each level.

A

Proximal row
(calcaneus & talus)

Middle row
central tarsal

Distal row (1st, 2nd,3rd)
the 4th tarsal articulates directly to the calcaneus

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79
Q

List the metatarsal bone numbers from medial to lateral.

A

2,3,4,5

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80
Q

Name a clinical significance for the calcaneus and what dog breed is most affected by it?

A

Tarsal bone fractures

Fractures of the calcaneus (heel bone) are common in racing greyhounds but are infrequent among other breeds

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81
Q

What do articulated bones do together?

A

Allow movement
Unite bones firmly

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82
Q

Name the 3 types of conventional joints?

A

Synovial Joints
Cartilaginous joints
Fibrous joints

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83
Q

Name an unconventional joint.

A

Synsarcosis
- articulation through muscles

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84
Q

Is there any joint space in fibrous joints?

A

No joint space

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85
Q

In a fibrous joint what type of connective tissue unites the bones?

A

Dense fibrous connective tissue

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86
Q

Name the 3 categories of fibrous joints? Which one is associated with the tooth bony socket? Which one is found in the skull? Which one is in the distal articulation between the radius & ulna?

A

Gomphosis
- tooth articulates with the bony socket
Sutures
- skull
Syndesmoses
- is the distal articulation between the radius and ulna

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87
Q

What is another name for the bony tooth sockets (alveolar)? What is another name for the cartilaginous joint?

A

Gomphosis
Synchondroses

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88
Q

Is there any joint space in cartilaginous joint?

A

No

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89
Q

Name a few examples of bones united through cartilage? Is there movement in cartilaginous joints?

A

Diaphysis and epiphysis of long bones
Pelvic symphysis
bodies of vertebrae

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90
Q

Will see cartilaginous joints in the diaphysis & epiphysis in what development of life?

A

Juvenile

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91
Q

What is the function of the atlantoaxial joint?

A

Pivots the neck
- allows rotation of the head

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92
Q

Describe a synovial joint and name some examples.

A

A fluid filled cavity intervene between bones

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93
Q

What type of movement are synovial joints made for?

A

gliding, angular, rotational, or special movement

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94
Q

What is another name or the spheroidal synovial joint?

A

Ball and socket

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95
Q

Give an example of a hinge joint.

A

Elbow

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96
Q

Give an example of an ellipsoidal joint.

A

Radiocarpal

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97
Q

Give an example of a spheroidal joint.

A

hip
shoulder

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98
Q

Give an example of a saddle joint.

A

interphalangeal

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99
Q

Give an example of a condylar joint.

A

Femorotibial

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100
Q

Give an example of a pivot joint.

A

Atlantoaxial

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101
Q

What vertebral joint is a synovial joint?

A

Atlantoaxial
Atals + axial

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102
Q

Name the 4 components of the Joint capsule.

A

Articular cartilage
Synovial membrane
Fibrous capsule
Ligaments (fibrous)

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103
Q

Name the 2 components of the Joint cavity.

A

Articular cartilage
Synovial membrane

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104
Q

What does the synovial membrane produce?

A

Synovial fluid

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105
Q

When you perform an arthrocentesis, you are entering the _______?

A

Joint cavity

106
Q

What links the glenoid cavity of the scapula to the humerus head?

A

Spheroidal joint ( shoulder Joint)

107
Q

What movements are allowed in the shoulder joint?

A

Great Range of movements; rotation, abduction, adduction and circumduction movements are allowed

108
Q

What actions would you not see in the Shoulder joint in the animal patient?

A

Dislocation

Shoulder joint is surrounded & protected by muscles, where tendons act as collateral ligaments & add support to the joint

109
Q

If you have a problem with the biceps brachii more than likely you have a problem in what joint capsule?

A

Shoulder joint capsule

110
Q

What is bicipital tenosynovitis?

A
  • Inflammation of biceps tendon & the surrounding synovial sheath
  • Joint capsule envelops the
    tendon of the biceps brachii
  • Large breeds problem
  • Excessive stress
111
Q

What is OCD?

A

Osteochondrosis Dissecans

Developmental disorder(abnormal endochondral ossification)

  • Erosion of the articular cartilage of head of humerus
  • A piece of cartilage becomes partially or fully detached from the surface of the bone.
  • Affects young, fast growing large-breed
112
Q

Describe dislocation, luxation, subluxation.

A

Pop out of socket

113
Q

Why is a dislocated shoulder joint rare?

A

Shoulder joint is surrounded & protected by muscles, where tendons act as collateral ligaments & add support to the joint

114
Q

If you have faulty defect in articular cartilage what will happen?

A

arthritis

115
Q

If you look at a radiograph of a patient with bicipital tenosynovitis? Will it be radiolucent or radiopaque?

A

Radiopaque

116
Q

OCD occurs when erosion of _______ cartilage of the head of humerus.

A

Articular

117
Q

What joints can OCD affect?

A

stifle joints
shoulder joint

118
Q

What type of disorder is OCD?

A

Developmental disorder

119
Q

The elbow joint is a composite joint, what does that mean?

A

Two joints within the same capsule

(A) hinge joint
between the humerus and the radius &ulna

(B) pivot joint
Between the proximal ends of the radius and ulna

120
Q

When the elbow is extended fully what structure is used for arthrocentesis of the elbow joint.

A

Enter the needle between the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and olecranon cranio-medially

121
Q

What is FMCP?

A

Fragmented medial coronoid process of the Ulna
Developmental defect
- Affect young dogs of large breeds
- Failure of MCP to attach to the ulna
- Leads to arthritis

122
Q

What is UAP?

A

Ununited Anconeal Process
- Developmental defect
-The anconeal process fails to ossify, it becomes detached & irritate the joint cavity
- Affects larger breeds

123
Q

The carpal joint is a _____ joint.

A

ellipsoidal

124
Q

Name the joints of the carpal region (there are 3).

A

Antebrachiocarpal
Midcarpal
Carpometacarpal

125
Q

Which carpal joint has the greater range of motion?

A
126
Q

How would you perform joint injections at the carpal joint?

A

1 injection at the antebrachiocarpal
Midcarpal and Carpometacarpal together need 1 injection

127
Q

What two ligaments are crucial to keeping the head of the femur bone in the acetabulum of the os coxae?

A

Transverse acetabular ligament & ligament of the head of the femur

128
Q

The first joint in the pelvic limb is the __________.

A

Sacroilliac

129
Q

The transverse acetabular ligament completes what?

A

the acetabulum is shallow and is not full so the transverse acetabular ligament completes the rim of the acetabulum

130
Q

Name the 2 main causes of hip dysplasia.

A

Shallow acetabulum &/or flattened femoral head

131
Q

How can you tell the difference between hip dysplasia and hip dislocation in radiographs?

A

The head of the femur pops out of the acetabulum in graphs of hip dislocation

in hip dysplasia the graphs show either a flatten femoral head and or shallow acetabulum

132
Q

Name the 3 articulations in the stifle joint capsule (all articulations will communicate in the stifle joint meaning if you needed to give an injection what would you do?)

A

femorotibial
femoropatellar
Proximal tibiofibular

133
Q

Menisci act as shock absorption for the joint during locomotion of what joint?

A

Stifle

134
Q

What are some injuries acquired at the stifle joint?

A

Cranial / caudal cruciate ligament injuries

Patellar luxation

Stifle dislocation

135
Q

What do the cruciate ligaments do?

A

Cruciate ligaments prevent the tibia from sliding forward and remain firmly with the femur

136
Q

How can you tell if the cranial and caudal cruciate ligaments are ruptured?

A

The Cranial Drawer sign
If the tibia is able to slide forward

this also causes the menisci damage

137
Q

What part of the patellar is usually dislocated in small breeds?

A

Usually dislocated medially

138
Q

What part of the patellar is usually dislocated in large breeds?

A

Laterally

139
Q

What causes a bow-legged animal?

A

Medial patella Luxation

140
Q

4 levels of articulation in the tarsal joint (or hock joint) name them all?

A

crurotarsal (hing)
proximal Intertarsal
distal intertarsal
tarsometatarsal

Medial & lateral collateral ligament

141
Q

(True or False, if false provide justification) Muscle is composed of just skeletal muscle tissue and connective tissue.

A

False, There are three types of muscles which are skeletal, cardiac, and smooth.
the muscles

Muscle is a specialized connective tissue

Technically each one is an organ - it is composed of skeletal muscle tissue, c.t, and nervous tissue.

142
Q

What is tonus?

A

State of muscle contraction (for movement of blood and lymph)

143
Q

What are the overall functions of muscle?

A

locomotion
movement of parts of body
control body opening and passages
generate heat by shivering

144
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

maintaining proper body function in the correct environment

145
Q

What are the three types of muscle? Give examples of each.

A

Cardiac: heart
Skeletal: infraspinatus
Smooth: intestinal muscle
- Smooth attached to skeleton: rectoccoygeus m.
- smooth not attached to skeleton: pharynx

146
Q

How would you differentiate between skeletal and smooth muscle?

A

skeletal: voluntary and striated
smooth: involuntary and not striated

147
Q

What percentage of the body is skeletal muscle?

A

50%

148
Q

What are the four types of connective tissue structures?

A

Myofiber = muscle cell

Endomysium = loose CT surround muscle fiber
Fascicle = bundle of muscle fibers
Periosteum = loose CT defining muscle fascicles
Epimysium = surround entire muscle

149
Q

What is periosteum?

A

loose connective tissue that defines muscle fascicles

150
Q

What is aponeurosis?

A

wide, broad flat tendon sheath - like union

151
Q

What is the difference between a ligament and tendon?

A

ligaments: attach bone to bone
tendons: attach muscle to bone

152
Q

What type of connective tissue is a tendon?

A

dense regular connective tissue

153
Q

What is the collagenous fibrous connective tissue that holds the body together? (Found directly underneath the skin)

A

Fascia

154
Q

Explain the differences between a lipoma and an infiltrate lipoma.

A

Lipoma: abnormal aggregate of normal fat cells that are encapsulated

Infiltrate lipoma: unencapsulated fatty tumor (Bad)

155
Q

What is a fascicle?

A

group of muscle fibers forming a bundle

156
Q

Name the components of a muscle starting from the smallest unit (muscle fiber) to the largest (muscle). Include the names of the connective tissue covering each component.

A

Myofiber = muscle cell
Endomysium = loose CT surround muscle fiber
Fascicle = bundle of muscle fibers
Periosteum = loose CT defining muscle fascicles
Epimysium = loose CT surround entire muscle

157
Q

What type of connective tissue (loose or dense) is the binding substance within muscle?

A

dense regular CT

158
Q

What type of connective tissue is a tendon made of?

A

dense RCT

159
Q

What is the importance of these connective tissue arrangements? (What is the function?)

A

ensure simultaneous contraction

160
Q

Define agonist and give an example, including the joint it acts upon.

A

Prime movers, exert action on distal joint
Example: biceps brachii

161
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the biceps brachii muscle?

A

Origin: supraglenoid tubercle
Insertion: tuberosities of ulna and radius

162
Q

What side of the limb is the brachialis muscle located? (Lateral or medial?)

A

lateral

163
Q

Define antagonist and give an example, including the joint it acts upon.

A

prevents excessive action of the prime mover
Example: triceps brachii

164
Q

Define synergist and give an example, including the joint it acts upon.

A

assist the prime mover , stabilize action of other muscles

Example: brachialis = synergist to biceps brachii

165
Q

Define fixator and give an example.

A

prevent bone from moving

Example: extrinsic muscles, all synsarcosis muscles

166
Q

What are extrinsic muscles? Name some.

A

at least one origin is external to the axial skeleton
ex: trapezius, latissimus dorsi, omotransversarius

167
Q

What are intrinsic muscles? Name some.

A

both attachments are internal to limb muscles
Ex: infraspinatus, deltoideus, subscapularis

168
Q

What are the different ways that muscles are named? Give an example for each.

A

Attachment: Cleidobrachialis = *clavicle
Shape: teres minor = rounded
Size: teres major = large
Function: supinator
Location / Position: deep digital flexor
Number of heads: biceps brachii
Number of bellies: digastricus

169
Q

What is the function of the digastric muscle?

A

Opens jaw of dog

170
Q

(True or False, if false provide justification). Tendons have high metabolic activity.

A

False. Tendons are avascular

171
Q

Give an example of a sesamoid bone and the tendon/ligament it protects.

A

Patella protects the quadriceps tendon

172
Q

Define bursa and give an example, including the tendon and joint it is associated with.

A

a fluid filled sac over danger sites

a fluid filled sac that covers stressed points

Example? subtendinous bursa : tendon of the infraspinatus , shoulder joint

173
Q

What is the clinical significance of a bursa?

A

protect danger sites

174
Q

Define tendon sheath.

A

fluid filled cylinders surrounding tendons over stress points

175
Q

Define retinaculum. What does it prevent?

A

condensed deep fascia over carpus or tarsus
Prevent webbing

176
Q

What are annular ligaments?

A

condensed deep fascia over ligaments

177
Q

Name all the joints of the forelimb.

A

synsarcosis
shoulder joint
elbow joint
carpus joint
fetlock joint
digital joint

178
Q

Name all the joints of the pelvic limb.

A

sacroiliac joint
hip joint
tarsal joint
stifle joint
tarsal joint
fetlock joint
digital joint

179
Q

What is another name for paw?

A

manus

180
Q

What are the palpable structures on the forelimb?

A

Acromion
Supraglenoid tubercle
spine of scapula
tendon of origin of biceps
deltoid tuberoisty
greater tubercle
Superficial cervical lymph node
auxillary lymph node
Olecranon

181
Q

To palpate the axillary lymph node, would you retract or protract the limb?

A

Protract the limb

182
Q

How many mammae are in the canine? What are the three sections and how many pairs of mammae are per section? How many mammae are in the cat & how many sections/pairs?

A

Canine:
- 8-12 mammae
- Thoracic section: 2 p
- Abdominal: 2 p
- Inguinal: 1 pair

Feline:
8 mammae

183
Q

A puppy that only nurses on the cranial mammae would be larger or smaller than a puppy that only nurses on the caudal mammae?

A

Puppy would be smaller. Most secretion is in the caudal 6 mammae

184
Q

Name a clinical significance of the mammae.

A

nurse young ,
mammary masses
Mamma neoplasia

185
Q

What is a lumpectomy?

A

removal of part of a mass or lump

186
Q

What is a simple mastectomy?

A

Removal on one mamae gland

187
Q

What is a regional mastectomy?

A

Removal of one mammae and surrounding ones

188
Q

What are the sites for venipuncture?

A

Cephalic Vein
lateral saphenous vein
External Jugular vein
Femoral vein

189
Q

Why don’t you draw blood from arteries?

A

Animal will bleed out, blood is flowing away from heart = high blood pressure

190
Q

What is another term for dewclaw?

A

Pollex

191
Q

(True or False, if false provide justification) To protect the sore limb, animals quickly shift their weight to the “good” limb.

A

true

192
Q

What is the pectoral girdle? What muscles are involved?

A

Pectoral Girdle: scapula and the clavicle bones
Muscles: Infraspinatus, Supraspinatus, Subscapularis, Deltoideus, Rhomboideus and Trapezius

193
Q

(True or False, if false provide justification) The pelvic limb carries more weight.

A

False. 60-70% of the body weight is supported by the thoracic limb

194
Q

If the serratus ventralis muscle is severed, what will happen to the limb?

A

Abnormal elevation of the limb, opposite of scapula depression

195
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the deep pectoral muscle?

A

Origin: caudal part of scapula

Insertion: proximal part of humerus - lesser tubercle

196
Q

What is the origin and insertion of serratus ventralis muscle?

A

Origin: last 5 cervical vertebrae
Insertion: serrated face of scapula

197
Q

What is the median raphe?

A

the longitudinal fibrous septum between the R and L epaxial muscles , attachment of most cervical muscles

198
Q

What are the two parts of trapezius muscle?

A

Cervical Part of the trapezius m. & Thoracic part of the trapezius m.

199
Q

What is the function of extrinsic muscles?

A

These are the girdle muscles and they join the forelimb to the trunk

200
Q

Describe the action of all the joints (flexed or extended) when the thoracic limb is protracted and when it is retracted.

A

All limbs protracted: joints extended
All limbs retracted: joints flexed

201
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the omotransversarius muscle? What is its clinical significance?

A

Origin: distal spine of scapula
Insertion: wing of atlas
Clinical Sig: Superficial cervical lymph node is medial

202
Q

Name the insertion of the latissimus dorsi muscle and it’s function.

A

main muscle for digging and flex the shoulder joint
insertion: teres tuberosity of the humerus

203
Q

What muscles flex the shoulder joint? Extend?

A

Flex shoulder joint: infraspinatus, latissimus dorsi, deep pectoral (when not weight bearing),
teres minor, deltoideus, triceps brachii (long head)
Extend shoulder joint: Supraspinatus, biceps brachii

204
Q

Name a clinical significance of the infraspinatus muscle.

A

subtendinous bursa - underneath the infraspinatus muscle

205
Q

Is the coracobrachialis muscle located on the lateral or medial side of the arm?

A

On the Medial side

206
Q

Describe how you would perform arthrocentesis of the shoulder joint. Include the muscle involved and what structures you would palpate to locate the joint capsule.

A

palpate greater tubercle of the humerus
Muscle involved: acromion part of deltoideus

Perform: insert needle these two landmarks

207
Q

What is the intertubercular bursa?

A

Bursa in between the great tubercle and lesser tubercle

208
Q

What is the name of the retinaculum that covers the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle?

A

transverse humeral retinaculum

209
Q

Why is luxation of the shoulder joint rare?

A

The shoulder joint is held in place by synsarcosis

210
Q

What is OCD?

A

Osteochondritis Dissecans: Erosion of the articular cartilage & it chips and ossifies that causes
inflammation in younge and fast growing breeds

211
Q

What tool does a surgeon use to repair fractures in the shaft of the humerus?

A

intramedullary pin

212
Q

Why can there be serious repercussions if a cat fractures its humerus?

A

Have a suprachondral foramen which the brachial artery and medial nerve run through

213
Q

What muscles flex the elbow joint? Extend?

A

Extend: triceps
Flex: the brachioradialis, the brachialis, and the biceps.

214
Q

What are the names of the bursas that protect the elbow joint?

A

Olecranon bursa - subcutaneous bursa

215
Q

Where is anconeus muscle located and what is its function?

A

lateral supracondylar crest of the humerus
extend elbow joint

216
Q

Describe how you would perform arthrocentesis of the elbow joint?

A

Enter the needle between the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and olecranon cranio-medially

217
Q

What is DJD?

A

Degenerative Joint Disease: general swelling of the elbow joint

218
Q

What is panosteitis? Which breeds are more likely to get it?

A

inflammation of the medullary lining of the bone/ young large breeds

219
Q

List the extensor muscles that act on the carpal and digital joints.

A

Extensor carpi radialis
Common digital Extensor
Lateral digital extensor
Ulnaris lateralis

220
Q

List the flexor muscles that act on the carpal and digital joints.

A

Flexor carpi Ulnaris
Superficial digital flexor
flexor carpi radialis
deep digital flexor
Pronator teres

221
Q

(True or False, if false explain why) The flexor muscles are found in the caudal position on the forearm.

A

true

222
Q

Which muscle is retracted in surgery to expose the radial diaphysis and which direction (medial or lateral) is it reflected?

A

extensor carpis radialis laterally

223
Q

What is an onychectomy?

A

De-clawing (usually in cats)

224
Q

List all the structures involved in an onychectomy (removing the distal phalanx of each digit) of a cat.

A

Common digital extensor tendon
Lateral digital extensor tendon
Deep digital flexor tendon
Dorsal elastic ligament
Medial and lateral collateral ligament

225
Q

Where on the hip bone would you perform bone marrow biopsy?

A

Iliac Crest

226
Q

List all of the palpable structures of the hindlimb, including structures on the hip bone.

A

Tuber sacrale
ischiatic tuberosity
greater trochanter
tuber coxae
calcaneus

227
Q

Name all of the joints of the pelvic limb.

A

hip joint
stifle
tarsus
sacroiliac

228
Q

What muscle is the major flexor of the hip?

A

Tensor fascia latae muscle
Rectus femoris muscle
Sartorius muscle

229
Q

Which muscles extend the hip joint?

A

Quadratus femoris

Semimembranosus

Semitendinosus

Gracilis

Superficial gluteal

Middle gluteal

gluteal femoral

230
Q

What is the tuber coxae?

A

palpable structure of the iliac crest

231
Q

What is the synergist to iliopsoas?

A

tensor fascia lata muscle - also flexes hip

because iliopsoas is the major flexor of the hip

232
Q

Where does the Gracilis muscle originate from and what is its function?

A

Insert: Pelvic symphysis
Function: extends the hip

233
Q

Where does the Pectineus muscle originate from and what is its function?

A

Adducts limb, part of femoral triangle

234
Q

What is pectineal tenotomy and what clinical condition is it performed for?

A

condition: hip dysplasia
Procedure used to relieve pain when pectineus is cut

235
Q

Which muscles adduct the hindlimb?

A

Adductor, Pectineus, Gracilis

236
Q

What are the names of the bellies of quadriceps femoris muscle?

A

Vastus lateralis, vastus intermedialis, vastus medialis, rectus femoris

237
Q

What are the borders of the femoral triangle?

A

Cranial: caudal part of sartorius
(cranial) Caudal: Pectineus
Dorsal: Iliopsoas

238
Q

What is the vascular lacuna?

A

vessels of femoral triangle - femoral v. femoral a. femoral n.

239
Q

Which vein is in the femoral triangle? What is its clinical significance?

A

femoral vein
Clin sig: draw blood but only under anesthesia

240
Q

What is the name of the hip joint cavity?

A

acetabulum

241
Q

What muscles are included in the “hamstring” group? What is their function?

A

Extends the hip joint, stifle, tarsal

Biceps femoris

Semitendinosus

Semimembranosus

Gracilis

242
Q

Why is it contraindicated to give an IM injection on the lateral thigh? Where is it recommended to be given?

A

Sciatic nerve present
Recommended hamstrings

243
Q

What muscles are included in the common calcanean tendon in dogs? In cats?

A

Biceps femoris,
Semitendinosus,
Gastrocnemius,
Gracilis, &
SDF (superficial digital flexor)

for cats+ Soleus muscle

244
Q

What lymph node is located in the caudal thigh?

A

popliteal lymph node

245
Q

Explain the reciprocal mechanism of the stifle and tarsal joints?

A

Overall: stifle and tarsal joints move in unison
peroneus tertius moves in unison with the superficial digital flexor

246
Q

What type of joint is the hip joint?

A

ball and socket : spheroidal joint

247
Q

Which ligament attaches the head of femur to fovea capitis?

A

intracapsular ligament

248
Q

What is the transverse acetabular ligament? What is its clinical significance?

A

if shallow or flat, have hip problems–> hip dysplasia

Surgical approach*:
Craniolateral direction - between Tensor fascia & biceps femoris;
Exposes proximal Vastus lateralis - Articularis coxae,
Enter joint cavity
Endangered structures:
Sciatic n. & caudal gluteal vessels.(normally caudal from incision)

249
Q

How would you tell if a dog has hip dysplasia?

A

palpate tuber sacrale, tuber ischii, and greater trochanter
Radiographs: shallow acetabulum and flat femoral head

250
Q

List all of the structures incised and reflected for the surgical approach to the articularis coxae? (Hint: start with the skin)

A

Surgical approach*:
Craniolateral direction - between Tensor fascia & biceps femoris;

Exposes proximal Vastus lateralis - Articularis coxae,

Enter joint cavity

Endangered structures:
Sciatic n. & caudal gluteal vessels.(normally caudal from incision)

251
Q

What vessels do you need to watch out for in performing the surgery mentioned above? (Hip dysplasia)

A

sciatic n. & caudal gluteal vessels

252
Q

What is the clinical significance of the quadriceps femoris muscle?

A

weight bearing muscle, if not, stifle will collapse

Site for I/M injection

253
Q

What structures are incised and reflected (and in what direction) to expose the femoral diaphysis in surgery? (Hint: start at the skin)

A

Skin > cranially - vastus lateralis > caudally - biceps femoris

254
Q

Which muscles flex only the tarsus?

A

cranial tibial, long digital extensor, fibularis longus

255
Q

Which muscles flex the tarsus and extend the digits?

A

Superficial digital flexor
Deep digital flexor

256
Q

Which muscles extend the tarsus and flex the digits?

A

Long digital extensor

257
Q

What are the venipuncture sites in order?

A

Cephalic V
Jugular v
Saphenous
Femoral v ( in the femoral triangle is the only place the artery is over the vein )

258
Q

(True or False, if false explain why) The stifle joint is flexed in the normal standing posture at 140 degrees.

A

true

259
Q

How many joint injections for the stifle joint?

A

1

260
Q

What is “cranial drawer” sign?

A

moves forward

261
Q

What is “caudal drawer” sign?

A

moves back

262
Q

How would you perform the cranial drawer test?

A

stabilize femur and tibia and move cranial or caudally

Anatomy (8 decks)

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