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Science for Medicine > Anatomy, Blood, Skin, Tissues and Bone. > Flashcards

Anatomy, Blood, Skin, Tissues and Bone. Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of desmosomes?

A

Provide a strong bond between adjacent epithelial cells.

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2
Q

What is the function of cilia?

A

Provide a mechanism for movement of material over the surface of epithelia.

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3
Q

What is the function of hemidesmosomes?

A

Attach epithelial cells to the basement membrane.

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4
Q

Describe stratified epithelia.

A

They have more than one layer of cells.

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5
Q

What is the average circulating volume of blood in a typical adult male?

A

5 litres

1L lungs, 3L systemic venous circulation, 1L heart and arterial circulation

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6
Q

List the main functions of blood.

A
  • carriage of physiologically active compounds
  • clothing
  • defense
  • carriage of gases
  • thermoregulation
  • maintenance of ECF pH
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7
Q

Describe the composition of plasma.

A

Plasma proteins and interstitial fluid.

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8
Q

What are the main types of plasma proteins?

A

Albumin (60%), Globulin (38%), Fibrinogen and clotting factors (2%)

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9
Q

What is the function of albumin?

A

Generates colloid pressure, transport steroids, fats and vitamins, buffers H+ ions.

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10
Q

What is oncotic pressure generated by?

A

Plasma proteins

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11
Q

What is the average measurement of oncotic pressure?

A

approx 25mmHg

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12
Q

Define oncotic/colloid somatic pressure.

A

A form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins, notably albumin, in a blood vessel’s plasma that usually tends to pull water into the circulatory system.

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13
Q

What is the opposing force of oncotic pressure?

A

Hydrostatic pressure

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14
Q

The net movement of fluid between capillary and interstitial space is subject to two forces. What are they?

A
  1. Capillary Hydrostatic pressure (favours movement out)

2. Plasma protein concentration (favours movement into capillaries)

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15
Q

What is the normal circulating level of WBCs?

A

1x10^10/litre

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16
Q

What is the lifespan of a RBC?

A

120 days

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17
Q

Describe the structure of a RBC.

A

Flexible, bi-concave, non-nucleated, packed with Hb

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18
Q

How long is the delay between erythropoietin rise to increase in RBCs?

A

2-3 days

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19
Q

Basal levels of erythrpoeitin are always circling. When is it released?

A

When O2 delivery to kidney fails due to cardiac dysfunction, haemorrhage, anaemia and lung disease

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20
Q

What is the function of erythropoietin?

A

Stimulates pluripotent stem cells to produce erythroblasts (immature RBC)

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21
Q

What are the five main types of WBC?

A

Monocytes, Neutophils, Eosinophils, Lymphocytes

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22
Q

What are the most abundant WBC?

A

Neutrophils (68%)

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23
Q

What are the least abundant WBCs?

A

Basophils

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24
Q

What WBCs rise following an allergic response and parasitic infections?

A

Eosinophils

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25
Q

Discuss monocytes.

A

After 72 hours in circulation, migrate to CT where they become macrophages and live for 3 months.

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26
Q

Compare monocyte and macrophage.

A 
Monocyte = macrophage precursor, in circulation for 72 hours.
Macrophage = In connective tissue for 3 months, phagocytosis
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27
Q

What controls WBC formation?

A

Leukopoiesis (more complex than erythropoiesis)

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28
Q

What controls leukopoiesis?

A

Cytokines (released from endothelial cells, fibroblasts and/or mature WBCs):

  1. Colony stimulating factors
  2. Interleukins
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29
Q

What type of WBC increases in response to bacterial infections?

A

Neutrophils

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30
Q

What type of WBC increases in response to viral infections?

A

Lymphocytes

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31
Q

What are the functions of platelets?

A

Adhere to damaged vessel walls and exposed connective tissue to form scaffolds and clots.

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32
Q

What is the structure of platelets?

A

Membrane bound cell fragments from cytoplasm of megakaryocytic from bone marrow.

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33
Q

What is the life-span of platelets?

A

10 days

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34
Q

What is the formation of platelets governed by?

A

Thrombopoietin stimulating bone marrow

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35
Q

Define haematocrit.

A

The percentage of RBCs as % of whole blood.

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36
Q

When does haematocrit increase?

A
  • Heart and lung disease

- At altitude

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37
Q

What are the normal levels of haematocrit?

A 
Male = 40-54%
Female = 37-47%
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38
Q

Define viscosity.

A

How thick/sticky blood is.

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39
Q

What is the viscosity of plasma and whole blood in relation to water?

A

Plasma = 1.8 x thicker than water

Whole blood = 3.4 x thicker than water

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40
Q

In what circumstance will the viscosity of blood and plasma increase?

A
  1. Increase in haematocrit
  2. Decrease in temperature
  3. Decrease in flow rate
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41
Q

What is the largest organ in the human body?

A

The integumentary system.

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42
Q

What are the four tissues that make up skin?

A
  1. Epithelium
  2. Connective tissue
  3. Muscle
  4. Nerve
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43
Q

Describe the layers of skin.

A
  1. Epidermis
  2. Dermis (papillary and reticular layers)
  3. Hypodermis
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44
Q

Describe the epidermis.

A
  1. Epithelium
  2. Forms boundaries between internal and external compartments.
  3. Prevents water loss by evaporation.
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45
Q

Describe the dermis.

A
  1. Connective tissue
  2. Give structural strength
  3. Reduces risk of external injury, maintains epidermis by blood flow, permits body cooling, immune surveillance etc…
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46
Q

Describe the hypodermis.

A
  1. Adipose (fatty) connective tissue layer beneath the skin.
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47
Q

What is the function of superficial or subcutaneous tissue in skin?

A

Anchors skin to underlying structures.

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48
Q

Define keratinisation.

A

Organic process whereby keratin is deposited in cells, these become horny as in dead skin, nails and hair.

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49
Q

What type of epithelium is found in skin?

A

Stratified squamous keratinising epithelium.

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50
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

Autoimmune disorder affecting keratinisation

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51
Q

At what layer of the skin does stem cell division take place?

A

Stratum basale.

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52
Q

At what layer of the skin are dead cells sloughed off?

A

Stratum corneum

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53
Q

What are the five layers of the skin from top to bottom?

A
  1. Stratum corneum
  2. Stratum lucid
  3. Stratum granulosum
  4. Stratum spinous
  5. Stratum basale

CLGSB (Caitlin Likes Grapes and Strawberries)

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54
Q

What are the four cell types found in the skin?

A

Keratinocytes, Melanocytes, Langerhans cells, Merkel cells.

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55
Q

Describe the organisation of connective tissue in the dermis.

A
  1. Papillary layer

2. Reticular layer

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56
Q

Describe the papillary layer of the dermis.

A
  • Loose CT
  • Irregular interface with epithelium
  • Cellular e.g macrophages
  • Blood vessels
  • Nerve endings - sense organ
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57
Q

Describe the reticular layer of the dermis.

A
  • dense irregular CT
  • collagen bundles in 3 planes
  • elastic fibres (loss of elasticity in old age)
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58
Q

identify the accessory structures of the skin.

A

Hair, nails, sweat glands

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59
Q

Describe the structure and function of hair.

A

Hair follicle = hair + sheath(s), arrestor pilling muscles, sebaceous gland

Function = thermoregulation

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60
Q

Describe the structure and function of nails.

A

Hard keratin with same four layers as epidermis (nail plate is analogous to stratum corneum)

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61
Q

What are the eponycheum and hyponycheum?

A

Parts of nail (eponycheum is closest to cuticle)

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62
Q

Describe the sweat glands.Apocrine

A
  • Sebaceous (hair follicles - sebum)
  • Apocrine (axilla, protein rich)
  • Eccrine
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63
Q

What are eccrine glands?

A
  • simple tubular glands
  • coiled and straight duct located in the dermis.
  • spiral channel in epidermis
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64
Q

What are the main functions of eccrine glands?

A

Water secretion and thermoregulation

65
Q

Describe the blood supply of the skin.

A

In dermis.
Can be horizontally arranged superficial and deep plexus, perpendicular to the surface or anastomoses to form continuous vascular network.

66
Q

List the sensory receptors of the skin.

A
  1. Meissener’s corpuscles
  2. Paccinian corpuscles
  3. Nocicieptors
  4. Thermoreceptors
67
Q

What do moistener’s corpuscles detect?

68
Q

What do paccinian corpuscles detect?

A

Pressure and touch

69
Q

Describe the roles of skin as a barrier between muscle and outside of body.

A
  1. Waterproofing (epidermis, keratin, intracellular spaces filled with lipid component)
  2. Wear and tear
  3. Protection against UV light penetration
  4. Immune protection
  5. Chemical resistance
  6. Repair (blood clot - granulation tissue - scab - scar)
70
Q

Why is epithelium thin?

A

For diffusion

71
Q

What are the different types of surface epithelium?

A
  1. Simple (squamous, cuboidal or columnar)
  2. Stratified (squamous, cuboidal or columnar)
  3. Transitional
  4. Pseudostratified columnar
72
Q

Where would you find pseudo stratified columnar epithelia?

A

The trachea

73
Q

Where would you find stratified transitional epithelia?

74
Q

Where would you find stratified squamous epithelia?

75
Q

Where would you find stratified cuboidal epithelia?

A

Secretary gland

76
Q

Where would you find stratified columnar epithelia?

A

Secretory gland

77
Q

Where would you find simple cuboidal epithelia?

A

In gut and ovaries.

78
Q

What simple epithelia is most active?

A

Simple columnar

79
Q

Describe simple squamous epithelia.

A

One layer of cells, flattened

80
Q

Where would you find simple squamous epithelia?

A

Blood vessels

81
Q

Describe simple cuboidal epithelia.

A

One layer with same height and width

82
Q

Describe simple columnar epithelia.

A

One layer, taller, thinner = better

83
Q

Describe stratified squamous epithelia.

A

Multiple layers of varying shapes and sizes.

84
Q

Describe stratified cuboidal epithelia.

A

Multiple ayers of cuboidal shaped cells

85
Q

Describe stratifies columnar epithelia.

A

Multiple layers of columnar shaped cells.

86
Q

Describe epithelial components of the liver.

A
  • Parenchymal cells - hepatocytes (arranged in rows between synosoids)
  • support epithelia lining blood vessels and bile ducts.
87
Q

Describe epithelial components of the kidneys.

A
  • Parenchymal cells - epithelial cells organised into nephrons
  • support epithelia line blood vessels and renal pelvis (CT) which receives toxic urine)
88
Q

What are the consequences of abnormal function of glands?

A
  • over proliferation (e.g of growth hormone)
  • under-proliferation ( e.g of growth hormone)
  • loss of cilia (chlamydia)
  • under secretion
89
Q

Define gland.

A

Specialised epithelium (e.g in liver) which can be single or multicellular with selection of secretory cells.

90
Q

What are the basic functions of glandular epithelium?

A
  1. Exocrine (secreted into tubes, e.g mucous or serous gland)
  2. Endocrine (secreted into blood, e.g proteinaceous secretion of steroid hormones)
91
Q

Give examples of exocrine glands.

A

Pancreas, mucous glands of trachea and ilium, salivary gland.

92
Q

Give an example of an endocrine gland.

A

Adrenal cortex

93
Q

Define connective tissue and it’s basic functions.

A
  • Connects
  • ECM + fluid
  • Liquid to solid matrix
94
Q

What are the three components of the ECM?

A
  1. Fibres
  2. Ground substance
  3. Tissue fluid (liquid)
95
Q

What kind of secretions are produced by the exocrine gland?

A

Mucous or serous secretions

96
Q

What kind of secretions are released by endocrine glands?

A

Proteinaceous

97
Q

Describe fibre in the ECM.

A
  1. Most abundant = collagen (type 1 = tendons, type 3 = reticulum, type 4 = basal lamina)
  2. Elastin (e.g in aorta, stretch 1.5 times, with microfibrils and amorphous components)
98
Q

Describe ground substance of ECM.

A
  • Jelly-like proteoglycan which absorbs water to have this form.
  • Contains hyaluronic acid and glycoproteins
99
Q

Describe tissue fluid.

A

Can be loose, dense, regular or irregular.

100
Q

What are the consequences of abnormal function of connective tissue?

A
  • collagen = tear
  • bone = osteoporosis
  • blood/bone marrow = sickle cell anaemia and leukaemia
  • loose/dense = loss/abnormal fibres (epidermolysis bullosa - constant interruption of blood supply)
101
Q

Describe are the four main functions of bone.

A
  1. Weight bearing/support
  2. Muscle attachments
  3. Mineral store (hydroxyapatate)
  4. Blood formation
102
Q

How is bone arranged to reflect direction of mechanical force?

A

Orientation of trabeculae and collagen fibres along the direction of force.

103
Q

What is the function of mechanical load on bones?

A

Regulates bone mass e.g higher BMD in athletes (especially resistance and high-impact sports)

104
Q

Describe the two main methods of bone development.

A
  1. Endochondrial

2. intramembranous

105
Q

Describe endochondrial ossification.

A

From hyaline cartilage model - blood vessels invade - primary ossification centre - secondary ossification centre - medullary cavity formed

106
Q

Give an example of a secondary endochondrial ossification site.

A

Epiphyseal plate

107
Q

Describe intramembranous ossification.

A

NO CARTILAGE PHASE.

  • mesenchymal cells - osteoprogenitor cells - osteoblasts start depositing bone
  • residual mesenchymal cells develop blood vessels and bone marrow
108
Q

Where does intramembranous ossification occur>

A

Flat bones of skull in infants and adult cortical bone.

109
Q

Where are the supporting tissue of haemopoiesis located in bone?

A

Bone marrow with RBCs produced in heads of long bones.

110
Q

Describe trabecular/spongy/cancellous bone.

A
  • less dense
  • network of lamellate trabeculae, filled with bone marrow
  • orientation of trabeculae reflect directions of mechanical force.
111
Q

Describe cortical/compact bone.

A
  • dense
  • organised in osteons/harversian systems
  • horizontally perforating Volkman’s canals
  • osteocytes of concentric rings of bone matrix (lamellae) around H canal joined by cannaliculi.
112
Q

Describe the composition of bone.

A

Type 1 collagen and minerals

113
Q

What is the function of type 1 collagen in bone?

A

Gives flexibility and decreases risk of fracture and has high strength under tension.

114
Q

What are the minerals found in bone?

A

Non-collaginous proteins mineralised by hydroxyapatate for stiffness and support structures.

115
Q

Discuss the process of bone renewal.

A
  • Constant process even in adults

- Healthy bone = balance between bone removal and formation with a new skeleton every 10 years in adult.

116
Q

What are the two cells involved in bone remodelling?

A
  1. Osteoclasts break down old bone

2. Osteoblasts build new bone (initiate calcification)

117
Q

Where are osteoclasts derived from?

A

Monocytes/macrophages (haemapoietic lineage)

118
Q

What are Howship’s lacunae?

A

Resorption pits of osteoclasts.

119
Q

What are osteoblasts derived from?

A

From osteoprogenitor cells in periosteum and endossteum (mesenchymal lineage).

120
Q

What do osteoblasts eventually become?

A

Osteocytes when surrounded by matrix.

121
Q

Where are osteocytes found?

A

Found in lacunae of mature bone.

122
Q

What is the function of osteocytes?

A

Function not well understood (may maintain matrix and sense forces)

123
Q

What is the anatomical position?

A

Standing upright, head facing forward, upper limbs by sides nd palms facing anteriorly, fingers together, lower limbs straight, heels together, toes anteriorly.
In males = erected penis.

124
Q

List the spatial directions.

A

Superior/inferior, anterior/posterior, medial/lateral, distal/proximal

125
Q

List the main anatomical planes.

A

Median (mid-sagittal), sagittal, frontal (coronal), transverse

126
Q

What is a joint?

A

An articulation between two or more rigid components (bone or cartilage)

127
Q

Why do we need joints?

A

Growth and movements

128
Q

What are the three types of joints?

A
  1. Fibrous
  2. Cartilaginous
  3. Synovial
129
Q

Describe fibrous joints.

A

Dense fibrous connective tissue with high tensile strength and little movement in adults

130
Q

Give examples of fibrous joints.

A

Skull sutures and tooth in socket.

131
Q

What are the two types of cartilaginous joints?

A
  1. Synchondroses (primary)

2. Symphyses (secondary)

132
Q

Describe synchondroses.

A

Allow for bone growth (endochondrial ossification)

133
Q

Give an example of a synchondrosis joint.

A

Long bones

134
Q

Describe symphyses.

A
  • Do not ossify with age, found in midline with limited movement.
  • contains hyaline AND fibrocartilage.
135
Q

Give two examples of symphese joints.

A
  1. Pubic symphysis

2. Intervertebral bodies and discs.

136
Q

Describe the structure of a synovial joint.

A

Contains ligaments, articular discs, bursar, synovial fluid, synovial capsule

137
Q

Give examples of synovial hinge joints.

A

Elbow, Knee, Ankle

138
Q

Give an example of a pivot joint.

A

Atlanto-axial joint

139
Q

Give an example of a saddle joint.

A

Thumb and scaphoid

140
Q

Give examples of ellisoid joints.

A

Origin of fingers and atlanto-occipital joint

141
Q

Give an example of a ball and socket joint.

A

Glenohumeral joint and acetabulofemoral (hip) joint

142
Q

Give examples of plane joints.

A

Articular facets of vertebrae and clavicle to scapula.

143
Q

What accounts for joint stability?

A

Shape of articulating surfaces, fibrous capsule and ligaments and muscles (e.g rotator cuff)

144
Q

What is Hilton’s Law?

A

The nerve supplying a muscle that crosses a certain joint, also innervated the joint.

145
Q

List some joint pathologies.

A

Trauma, arthritis (osteoporosis or rheumatoid), craniosynostosis

146
Q

What are the three main types of muscle?

A
  1. Skeletal
  2. Cardiac
  3. Muscle
147
Q

What are the different arrangements of muscle fibres?

A

Unipentate, bupentate and multipentate.

148
Q

Describe tendons.

A

Dense connective tissue, don’t shorten and can alter force direction.

149
Q

What is the nerve supply of muscle compartments?

A

Muscles of the same compartment are usually supplied by the same nerve e.g radial nerve supplies all extensors in the upper limb.

150
Q

How many spinal nerves exist?

151
Q

Where are the spinal nerves located?

A

In the intervertebral foramen.

152
Q

What fibres are found in the roots?

A

Sensory OR motor

153
Q

What fibres are found in the rami?

A

Sensory AND motor

154
Q

In what pathway do the motor fibres not synapse?

A

Somatic pathway

155
Q

What are the sympathetic ganglia?

A

Where MOST sympathetic motor fibres synapse (except fibres to the abdominopelvic viscera)

156
Q

Where are the ganglia of the parasympathetic system located?

A

Close to the effector organ

157
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

One motor neuron and various muscle fibres.

158
Q

What are dermatomes used for?

A

Used clinically to test for lesions at specific levels of the spinal cord.

Science for Medicine (8 decks)

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