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Medicine Principles > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Anatomical position

A

Standing, facing anteriorly, face and eyes looking anteriorly, upper limbs by side, palms of hands facing anteriorly, feet together, toes pointing anteriorly

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2
Q

Patient supine

A

Patient lying on back

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3
Q

Patient prone

A

Patient lying on front

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4
Q

Sagittal/median plane

A

Split into left and right

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5
Q

Coronal plane

A

Split into front and back

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6
Q

Transverse/axial plane

A

Split into top and bottom

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7
Q

Anterior and posterior

A 
Anterior = nearer to front of body
Posterior = nearer to back of body
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8
Q

Superior/cranial and inferior/caudal

A 
Superior/cranial = nearer to the top of the head
Inferior/caudal = nearer to the bottom of the feet
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9
Q

Medial and lateral

A 
Medial = nearer to the midline of the body/median plane
Lateral = further from the midline of the body/median plane
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10
Q

Proximal and distal

A 
Proximal = nearer to the attachment of the limb to the body
Distal = further from the attachment of the limb to the body
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11
Q

Superficial and deep

A 
Superficial = nearer to the surface of the body
Deep = further from the surface of the body
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12
Q

External and internal

A 
External = further from the centre of the body/organ
Internal = nearer to the centre of the body/organ
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13
Q

Dorsal

A

Posterior surface of wrist, posterior surface of hand, posterior surface of tongue, superior surface of foot

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14
Q

Volar

A

Anterior surface of wrist

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15
Q

Palmar

A

Anterior surface of hand

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16
Q

Ventral

A

Anterior surface of tongue

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17
Q

Plantar

A

Inferior surface of foot

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18
Q

Unilateral

A

Structure is usually found on only one side of the body

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19
Q

Bilateral

A

Normally paired structures, a right and left structure

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20
Q

Midline

A

Single structure located at or near the midline/median plane

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21
Q

Ipsilateral

A

Structure lies on the same side of the body as the other structure or location that it is being compared to

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22
Q

Contralateral

A

Structure lies on the opposite side of the body to the other structure or location that it is being compared to

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23
Q

Flexion

A

Decreasing the angle between the bones at a joint

All anterior movements at joints superior to the knee are flexions

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24
Q

Extension

A

Increasing the angle between the bones at a joint

All anterior movements at joints inferior to the knee are extensions

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25
Q

Adduction

A

Movement towards the median plane

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26
Q

Abduction

A

Movement away from the median plane

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27
Q

Internal/medial rotation

A

Anterior surface of limb rotates towards the median plane

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28
Q

External/lateral

A

Anterior surface of limb rotates away from the median plane

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29
Q

Circumduction

A

Circular motion at a joint

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30
Q

Eversion

A

Sole of the foot rotates away from the median plane such that the sole of the foot faces laterally

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31
Q

Inversion

A

Sole of the foot rotates towards the median plane such that the sole of the foot faces medially

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32
Q

Pronation

A

Anterior surface of the forearm rotates such that the palm of the hand faces posteriorly

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33
Q

Supination

A

Forearm rotates from pronated position back into the anatomical position

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34
Q

Semi-prone

A

Used to describe the position of the forearm and hand midway between the supine and prone positions

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35
Q

Lateral flexion

A

Bending sideways

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36
Q

Elevation and depression

A 
Elevation = superior movement
Depression = inferior movement
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37
Q

Protrusion and retrusion

A 
Protrusion = pushing jaw forwards
Retrusion = moving jaw back from protrused position into original position
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38
Q

Protraction and retraction

A 
Protraction = anterior movement of scapula
Retraction = posterior movement of scapula
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39
Q

Which two systems make up the circulatory system?

A

The cardiovascular system and the lymphatic system

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40
Q

Functions of the circulatory system

A

Distribution of gases and other molecules for nutrition, growth and repair
Chemical signalling
Thermoregulation
Mediate inflammation and host defence responses

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41
Q

Three components of the cardiovascular system

A 
Heart (the pump of the system)
Arterial system (carries blood away from the heart)
Venous system (carries blood towards the heart)
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42
Q

2 main circulations of the cardiovascular system

A

Pulmonary circulation - from right side of heart to lungs to left side of heart
Systemic circulation - from left side of heart to capillary beds of organs and tissues to right side of heart

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43
Q

3 layers of the heart

A

Epicardium (external layer of visceral serous pericardium)
Myocardium (middle cardiac muscle layer)
Endocardium (inside layer continuous with endothelium of blood vessels connecting with the heart)

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44
Q

Which heart chamber forms the right border of the heart?

A

Right atrium

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45
Q

Which heart chamber forms the most anterior surface of the heart?

A

Right ventricle

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46
Q

Which heart chamber forms the posterior surface of the heart

A

Left atrium

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47
Q

Which heart chamber forms the left border of the heart

A

Left ventricle

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48
Q

Great vessels of the heart

A

Aorta, pulmonary trunk (divides into right and left pulmonary arteries), pulmonary veins (x4), inferior vena cava, superior vena cava

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49
Q

What do cardiac valves do?

A

Ensure unidirectional blood flow

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50
Q

Names of the cardiac valves

A 
Tricuspid valve (between right atrium and right ventricle)
Bicuspid valve (between left atrium and left ventricle)
Pulmonary valve (between right ventricle and pulmonary trunk)
Aortic valve (between the left ventricle and the aorta)
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51
Q

3 layers of blood vessels

A 
Tunica intima (internal layer of endothelium)
Tunica media (middle layer of smooth muscle and elastic fibres)
Tunica adventitia (external layer of connective tissue)
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52
Q

Pressure in arteries

A

High pressure >120/80mmHg

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53
Q

Vasodilation

A

Relaxation of the smooth muscle and widening of the lumen to increase blood flow to the organ/tissue supplied

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54
Q

Vasoconstriction

A

Contraction of the smooth muscle and narrowing of the lumen to decrease blood flow to the organ/tissue supplied

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55
Q

Sympathetic tone

A

Background, low level of contraction of smooth muscles in arterioles due to tonic conduction of action potentials to arterioles by sympathetic nerves

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56
Q

Anastomosis:

  • What is it?
  • What does it do?
A
  • Where arteries connect with each other without an intervening capillary network
  • Anastomoses provide alternative routes for blood to flow to supply the cells distal to an arterial occlusion
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57
Q

Circle of Willis

A

Anastomosis in the brain which can help prevent a cerebrovascular accident (stroke)

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58
Q

What is each alternative route in any given anastomosis called?

A

A collateral

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59
Q

Disadvantage of collateral

A

Collaterals bleed from both sides of a cut so the haemorrhage can be worse

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60
Q

End artery

A

The only given blood supply to an area of the body

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61
Q

What does untreated occlusion of an end artery result in?

A

Infarction of its territory

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62
Q

Infarction

A

Irreversible cell death due to hypoxia caused by loss of arterial blood supply

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63
Q

4 parts of the aorta

A
  1. Ascending aorta (2 branches: left coronary artery and right coronary artery)
  2. Arch of the aorta (3 branches)
  3. Thoracic aorta (numerous branches)
  4. Abdominal aorta (3 unpaired midline branches and 3 paired, bilateral branches)
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64
Q

Branches of the arch of the aorta

A
  1. Brachiocephalic trunk
  2. Left common carotid artery
  3. Right subclavian artery
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65
Q

What do the common iliac arteries supply?

A

The pelvis/perineum and the lower limbs

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66
Q

Peripheral pulses and where they are found

A

Carotid pulse - at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery
Brachial artery pulse - anterior to the elbow joint
Radial artery pulse - radial side of the palmar aspect of the wrist
Femoral artery pulse - the continuation of the external iliac artery in the midpoint of the groin
Popliteal artery pulse - posterior to the knee joint
Dorsalis pedis artery pulse - on the dorsal of the foot

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67
Q

What pushes venous blood along?

A

Artery pulsation

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68
Q

What is venous blood pumped back to the heart by?

A

Venous valves, skeletal muscle pump, accompanying veins

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69
Q

2 sets of veins

A

Superficial veins - smaller and run within superficial fascia then drain into deep veins
Deep veins - larger and run deep to the deep fascia and in cavities often in neurovascular bundles

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70
Q

2 main venous systems and what they drain

A

Hepatic portal venous system - drains venous blood from absorptive parts of the GI tract and associated organs to the liver for cleaning

Systemic venous system - drains venous blood from all other organs and tissues into the superior or inferior vena cave

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71
Q

How many blood cells can the lumen of a capillary let through?

A

Only 1 red blood cell (erythrocyte)

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72
Q

What do capillaries allow for?

A

Exchange of gases, metabolites and waste products

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73
Q

Describe lymphatic circulation

A
  • Lymphatic capillaries collect tissue fluid
  • Once in the lymphatic capillaries the fluid is called lymph
  • Lymphatics carry lymph through lymph nodes (which contain white blood cells to filter out foreign particles and fight infection/cancer)
  • Lymph is returned to the central veins in the root of the neck
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74
Q

Where do the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct drain lymph into?

A

Right lymphatic duct drains into the right venous angle

Thoracic duct drains into the left venous angle

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75
Q

What is the only lymphatic vessel large enough to be identified in dissection?

A

Thoracic duct

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76
Q

Which type of lymph nodes can be palpated or seen on a CT scan?

A

Lymph nodes fighting infection or those which have been taken over by a spreading cancer as these usually enlarge

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77
Q

Which bones make up the axial skeleton?

A
  • Bones of the skull
  • Bones of the neck (including the cervical vertebrae and the hyoid bone)
  • Bones of the trunk (chest, abdomen, back)
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78
Q

Which bones make up the appendicular skeleton?

A
  • Bones of the pectoral girdle
  • Bones of the upper limb
  • Bones of the pelvic girdle
  • Bones of the lower limb
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79
Q

Bones in the upper limb:

  • 1 long bone in arm
  • 2 long bones in forearm
  • bones in hand
A
  • 1 long bone in arm - humerus
  • 2 long bones in forearm - radius (lateral side in anatomical position) and ulna (medial side in anatomical position)
  • bones in hand - carpal bones (wrist), metacarpals (palm) and phalanges (fingers)
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80
Q

Bones in the lower limb:

  • 1 long bone in the thigh
  • 2 long bones in the leg
  • bones in the foot
A
  • 1 long bone in thigh - femur
  • 2 long bones in leg - tibia (anterior) and fibula (posterior)
  • bones in foot - tarsal bones (hind foot/midfoot), metatarsals (forefoot), phalanges (forefoot to toes)
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81
Q

Bony features

A
  • Functional - best shape for the job
  • An adjacent structure applies force to the developing bone, moulding its shape accordingly
  • An adjacent structure is developing at the same time as the bone and the bone has to form around the other structure forming a foramen
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82
Q

Tuberosity

A

A large prominence on a bone serving for the attachment of muscles or ligaments

83
Q

Bone:

  • What is it made of?
  • Functions
A
  • Hard, connective tissue
  • Support and protection of the body and organs, calcium metabolism, red blood cell formation, attachment for skeletal muscles
84
Q

Where is cartilage located?

A

Located where mobility is required (at articulations)

85
Q

Where does movement of the skeleton occur?

A

At joints. Skeletal muscles contract to move the bones

86
Q

Types of joints

A

Fibrous, synovial and Cartilaginous

87
Q

Sensations detected by the sensory receptors of the joints nerves

A

Pain, touch, temperature, proprioception

88
Q

Skeletal muscles:

  • What do they do?
  • Where are they usually found?
  • What are they covered in?
A
  • Produce movement
  • Usually found deep to deep fascia
  • Have a tough fibrous connective tissue covering
89
Q

Origin and insertion

A

Points of attachment to a bone. Origin is one side of the joint and insertion is the other

90
Q

How do skeletal muscles produce movement

A

The only thing they do is produce movement by moving the points of origin and insertion closer together during contraction

91
Q

What happens to muscles during skeletal muscle contraction

A

They shorten

92
Q

What do tendons do?

A

Attach the muscle to the bone (usually) and they are found at either end of the muscle

93
Q

Aponeurosis

A

A flattened tendon, which attaches muscle to soft tissue rather than bone

94
Q

Biceps brachii:

  • Attachments
  • Main actions
  • Nerve supply
  • How to clinically test it
A
  • From scapula to radius
  • Flexion of shoulder joint, flexion of elbow joint, supination of radioulnar joints
  • Musculocutaneous nerve
  • Biceps jerk reflex
95
Q

Deltoid - what movements do the following fibres make?

  • Posterior fibres
  • Middle fibres
  • Anterior fibres
A
  • Posterior = extension of the shoulder
  • Middle = abduction of the shoulder
  • Anterior = flexion of the shoulder
96
Q

Protective and adaptive reflexes

A 
Protective = rapid, predictable, involuntary actions to "danger"
Adaptive = movement made unconsciously by nervous system and muscles
97
Q

2 main reflexes involving skeletal muscles

A

Stretch reflex and flexion withdrawal reflex

98
Q

Flexion withdrawal reflex:

  • What is it?
  • Where are the nerve connections
A
  • When you touch something potentially damaging you have a sudden flexion to withdraw from danger
  • Nerve connections are at spinal cord level and the brain isn’t involved
99
Q

Examples of stretch reflexes

A

Biceps jerk, triceps jerk, knee jerk and ankle jerk

100
Q

What are deep tendon reflexes protective against?

A

Overstretching

101
Q

How to test stretch reflex

A
  • A tendon hammer is used to apply a brief, sudden stretch to the muscle via its tendon
  • Normal reflex to being stretched is to contract
  • Reflex contraction results in a brief twitch in the muscle belly or a movement in the normal direction
102
Q

What happens in a stretch reflex test at a nerve level?

A
  • Sensory nerve in muscle detects stretch and tells spinal cord
  • Synapse in spinal cord between sensory and motor nerves
  • Motor nerve in spinal cord passes message for muscle to contract
103
Q

Neuromuscular junction

A

The synapse where the motor nerve communicates with the skeletal muscle

104
Q

A normal stretch reflex will indicate that what is functioning properly? (6)

A
  • The muscle
  • Sensory nerve fibres for that muscle
  • Motor fibres for that muscle
  • Spinal cord connections between the two neuromuscular junctions
  • “Descending controls” from the brain
105
Q

Paralysis

A

A muscle without a functioning motor nerve supply

The muscle cannot contract

106
Q

What would a paralysed muscle show on examination?

A

Reduced tone

107
Q

Spasticity

A

The muscle has an intact and functioning motor nerve but the descending controls from the brain are not working

108
Q

What would a muscle experiencing spasticity show on examination?

A

Increased tone

109
Q

Where does fertilisation take place?

A

Ampulla

110
Q

Where is the pelvic cavity?

A

It lies within the bony pelvis, between the pelvic inlet and pelvic outlet. It is continuous with the abdominal cavity

111
Q

Pelvic inlet

A

The way into the pelvic cavity from the abdominal cavity

112
Q

Pelvic outlet

A

The way into the perineum from the pelvis

113
Q

Pelvic floor

A

Internal wall of skeletal muscle which separates the pelvic cavity and perineum

114
Q

Perineum

A

Inferior to pelvic floor. Between proximal parts of the lower limbs

115
Q

What can pass through the openings in the pelvic floor

A

Distal alimentary, reproductive and renal tracts can pass through

116
Q

What forms the pelvic roof?

A

Parietal peritoneum

117
Q

Parietal peritoneum

A

Lining of the abdominal cavity which is firmly attached to walls and drapes over pelvic viscera

118
Q

2 pouches in the female peritoneal cavity

A

Pouch of Douglas (recto-uterine pouch) and the vesico-uterine pouch

119
Q

Rectouterine pouch (Pouch of Douglas)

A

The most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity in an upright female patient

120
Q

Female reproductive system:

  • Reproductive organs
  • Accessory organs
A
  • Reproductive organs = ovaries

- Accessory organs = uterine tubes, uterus and vagina

121
Q

3 layers of the body of the uterus wall

A

Perimetrium
Myometrium
Endometrium

122
Q

Where does implantation occur?

A

The body of the uterus

123
Q

Steps in menstruation

A
  1. Ova develop in the ovaries
  2. Each menstrual cycle, 1 ovum is released from surface of ovary into peritoneal cavity
  3. Ovum is gathered by fimbriae into the infundibulum of the uterine tube
  4. Ovum moved along uterine tube by cilia
  5. During menstruation, an unfertilised ovum is expelled by contractions of the myometrium
124
Q

Ectopic pregnancy

A

Fertilised ovum implants out-with the uterine cavity and this is a potential emergency as there is a danger of haemorrhage

125
Q

Female sterilisation

A

Tubal ligation. Both uterine tubes are clipped, cut or cauterised to block the lumen

126
Q

Prepuce

A

Foreskin

127
Q

Where do the testes develop?

A

Posterior abdominal wall

128
Q

In testicular development, what do the testes pass through as they descend into the scrotum?

A

The inguinal canal in the anterior abdominal wall

129
Q

Which muscle helps control the temperature within the testes for sperm production?

A

Dartos muscle

130
Q

Passage taken by sperm from seminiferous tubules to vas deferens

A
  1. Sperm produced in the seminiferous tubules
  2. Sperm pass to rate testis
    3 Pass into the head of the epididymis
  3. Epididymis becomes vas deferens
131
Q

What does the spermatic cord contain?

A

Vas deferens, testicular artery, pampiniform plexus of veins

132
Q

Torsion of the testes

A

Twisting of the spermatic cord, disrupting the blood supply and causing severe pain. Danger of testicular necrosis so is a medical emergency

133
Q

Male reproductive system:

  • Reproductive organs
  • Accessory organs
A
  • Reproductive organs = testes

- Accessory organs = vas deferens, seminal glands, prostate gland and penis

134
Q

Within the pelvis, what does each vas deferens join with?

A

A duct from a seminal gland to form an ejaculatory duct

135
Q

Where do the left and right ejaculatory ducts join together?

A

Within the prostate gland

136
Q

In a male, where does the urethra open?

A

At the external urethral meatus of the penis

137
Q

Male sterilisation

A

Vasectomy - the vas deferens is transected and the lumen is sutured closed. This is bilateral

138
Q

How do nerves allow us to sense our environment?

A

Through sensory functions e.g. pain, touch, temperature and ‘special’ senses e.g. taste, smell, sight, hearing and balance

139
Q

3 types of functions of nerves

A

Sensory, motor and reflex

140
Q

What makes up the central nervous system?

A

Brain, spinal cord and central controller

141
Q

What makes up the peripheral nervous system?

A

All nerve tissue not in the CNS, spinal nerves (connect with the spinal cord), cranial nerves (connect with brain), autonomic nerves and wiring

142
Q

Ganglion

A

A collection of nerve cell bodies

143
Q

Describe the structure of peripheral nerves?

A

Bundles of axons wrapped in connective tissue

144
Q

6 modalities that a single axon can conduct action potentials in relation to

A

1 of the following:

  • Somatic sensory function
  • Somatic motor function
  • Special sensory function
  • Visceral afferent function
  • Sympathetic function
  • Parasympathetic function
145
Q

Named nerve

A

Larger nerve supplying the body wall, body cavities and organs

146
Q

Motor (efferent)

A

Action potential towards a body wall, body cavity or organ

147
Q

Sensory (afferent)

A

Action potential towards the brain

148
Q

Mixed nerve

A

Nerves composed of both sensory and motor fibres and transmit messages in both directions at once

149
Q

What does the outermost layer of the brain consist of?

A

Gyri (folds in the brain) and sulci (indentations/grooves)

150
Q

4 lobes in the brain:

A

Frontal (front), temporal (on the sides more inferior), parietal (in the middle), occipital (back and bottom)

151
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A

12

152
Q

CN I:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Olfactory nerve
  • Sensory
  • Anterior cranial fossa
  • Cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone
153
Q

CN II:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Optic nerve
  • Sensory
  • Middle cranial fossa
  • Optic canal
154
Q

CN III:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Oculomotor nerve
  • Motor (somatic and parasympathetic)
  • Middle cranial fossa
  • Superior orbital fissure
155
Q

CN IV:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Trochlear nerve
  • Motor
  • Middle cranial fossa
  • Superior orbital fissure
156
Q

CN V:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Trigeminal nerve
  • Both
  • Middle cranial fossa
  • Superior orbital fissure (CN V1), foramen rotundum (CN V2) and foramen ovale (CN V3)
157
Q

CN VI:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Abducent nerve
  • Motor
  • Middle cranial fossa
  • Superior orbital fissure
158
Q

CN VII:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Facial nerve
  • Both
  • Posterior cranial fossa
  • Internal acoustic meatus
159
Q

CN VIII:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Vestibulocochlear nerve
  • Sensory
  • Posterior cranial fossa
  • Internal acoustic meatus
160
Q

CN IX:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Glossopharyngeal nerve
  • Both
  • Posterior cranial fossa
  • Jugular foramen
161
Q

CN X:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Vagus nerve
  • Both
  • Posterior cranial fossa
  • Jugular foramen
162
Q

CN XI:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Spinal accessory nerve
  • Motor
  • Posterior cranial fossa
  • Jugular foramen
163
Q

CN XII:

  • What is the name of this nerve?
  • Is it sensory, motor or both?
  • In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie?
  • Where does it exit from the cranium?
A
  • Hypoglossal nerve
  • Motor
  • Posterior cranial fossa
  • Hypoglossal canal
164
Q

Where does the spinal cord pass through?

A

Foramen magnum

165
Q

What is the spinal cord protected by?

A

Vertebral canal

166
Q

4 segments of the spinal cord and how many there are of each

A 
Cervical - 8 (C1-C8)
Thoracic - 12 (T1-T12)
Lumbar - 5 (L1-L5)
Sacral - 5 (S1-S5)
(one coccygeal)
167
Q

2 enlargements of the spinal cord

A

Cervical, lumbosacral

168
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs which the spinal cord connects with bilaterally

169
Q

Where does the spinal cord end?

A

Inferiorly at L1/L2 intervertebral disc level - conus medullaris

170
Q

Vertebrae:

  • How many in total?
  • How many of each of the following: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal
A
  • 33 in total

- 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral (fused to form 1 sacrum), 4 coccygeal (fused to form one coccyx)

171
Q

Which vertebrae are spinal nerves named according to?

A

The ones above it, except in the cervical region where they are named according to the vertebrae below it

172
Q

Where are spinal nerves located?

A

Only within the intervertebral foramina

173
Q

After the intervertebral foramina what do spinal nerves connect with

A 
The soma (body wall) via rami
The spinal cord via roots and rootlets
174
Q

What do the posterior rami supply?

A

The small posterior strip of the soma

175
Q

What do the anterior rami supply?

A

The remainder of the posterior strip, the lateral and anterior parts of the strip of the soma and all of the limbs via plexus

176
Q

Dermatome

A

Area of skin supplied by both the anterior and posterior rami of a spinal nerve

177
Q

T4 and T10 dermatomes

A 
T4 =  male nipple
T10 = umbilicus
178
Q

Nerve plexus

A

Networks of intertwined anterior rami

179
Q

Cervical plexus:

  • Which rami?
  • What regions of the body does it supply?
A
  • C1-C4 anterior rami

- Posterior scalp, neck wall and diaphragm

180
Q

Brachial plexus:

  • Which rami?
  • What region of the body does it supply?
A
  • C5-T1 anterior rami

- Upper limb

181
Q

Lumbar plexus:

  • Which rami?
  • What region of the body does it supply?
A
  • L1-L4 anterior rami

- Lower limb

182
Q

Sacral plexus:

  • Which rami?
  • Which regions of the body does it supply?
A
  • L5-S4 anterior rami

- Lower limb, gluteal region and perineum

183
Q

What parts of the body does soma include?

A

Head and neck walls, chest walls, back, diaphragm, abdominal wall, pelvic wall, limbs

184
Q

What does the somatic nervous system supply?

A

The soma

185
Q

Which structures does the somatic nervous system supply?

A

Skin, fascia, skeletal muscle, skeleton, internal lining of body cavities

186
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system supply?

A

Visceral motor system

187
Q

What does the visceral motor system include?

A

Viscera, glands, smooth and cardiac muscle, external lining of body cavities

188
Q

Locations of the visceral motor system

A

Internal organs in body cavities (chest cavity, pelvic cavity, abdominal cavity) and body wall organs (sweat glands, arrestor smooth muscle, arterioles)

189
Q

What do mechanoreceptors sense?

A

Coarse touch, fine touch, vibration, proprioception through somatic sensation

190
Q

What do thermoreceptors sense?

A

Temperature through somatic sensation

191
Q

What do nociceptors sense?

A

Pain through somatic sensation

192
Q

Route taken for somatic sensation to be felt by the lower limb

A
  • Somatic sensory mechanoreceptors in L2 are stimulated
  • APs conducted along axons within the L2 anterior ramus
  • These axons weave through lumbar plexus to L2 spinal nerve
  • The axons pass through the dorsal root ganglion, the dorsal roots and the dorsal rootlets
  • The APs arrive at the posterior horn of the L2 spinal segment
  • APs cross over the midline and ascend towards brain
193
Q

Route taken for motor innervation to occur after somatic sensation is felt in the lower limb

A
  • Somatic motor axons cross over in the brainstem and descend to the anterior horn
  • APs conducted along axons with anterior rootlets, anterior roots, then into spinal nerves
  • APs conducted along axons in nerves of lumbar plexus
  • Synapse onto skeletal muscle of lower limb, then the skeletal muscles contract to move the lower limb
194
Q

Spinal reflexes

A

Protective reflexes which miss out the pathway to the brain

195
Q

Visceral Afferent

A

Organs’ sensory nerves

196
Q

What sort of things do sensory neurones sense?

A

Heart rate, blood pressure, digestion and gland secretions

197
Q

What do motor neurones do?

A

Respond to changes in internal environment

198
Q

Dual motor control

A

When an organ has both a sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve supply

199
Q

What happens to the following in fight or flight response:

  • Pupils
  • Heart
  • Lungs
  • GI tract
  • Liver
  • Adrenal glands
  • Arterioles
  • Skin
A
  • Pupils = dilate
  • Heart = rate increases
  • Lungs = bronchioles dilate
  • GI tract = motility is reduced
  • Liver = glucose is released into blood
  • Adrenal gland = adrenaline/noradrenaline released
  • Arterioles = dilate in skeletal muscle and constrict in skin (why we look pale)
  • Skin = hair stands on end and sweat produced
200
Q

Describe steps in sympathetic outflow

A
  • Originates in autonomic nerves in the brain
  • Travels down spinal cord
  • Exits spinal cord with T1-L2 spinal nerves
  • Travels to sympathetic chains running the length of the vertebral column
  • Pass into all spinal nerves
  • ‘Hitch a ride’ with arteries to all head and neck organs and skin
  • Travel via splanchnic nerves to organs
201
Q

What happens to the following in the rest and digest response?

  • Pupils
  • Heart
  • Lungs
  • GI tract
  • Liver
  • Bladder
A
  • Pupils = constrict
  • Heart = rate slows
  • Lungs = bronchioles constrict
  • GI tract = motility increases
  • Liver = glucose synthesis
  • Bladder = sphincter relaxes
202
Q

Where do all parasympathetic axons leave the CNS?

A

Via cranial nerves III, VI, IX, X and via sacral spinal nerves

203
Q

What does the vagus nerve supply?

A

Organs of the neck, chest and abdomen as far as the mid-gut

204
Q

What do sacral spinal nerves do?

A

‘Carry’ parasympathetic axons to the hindgut, pelvis and perineum

Medicine Principles (6 decks)

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