Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Anatomical position

A

Standing, facing anteriorly, face and eyes looking anteriorly, upper limbs by side, palms of hands facing anteriorly, feet together, toes pointing anteriorly

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2
Q

Patient supine

A

Patient lying on back

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3
Q

Patient prone

A

Patient lying on front

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4
Q

Sagittal/median plane

A

Split into left and right

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5
Q

Coronal plane

A

Split into front and back

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6
Q

Transverse/axial plane

A

Split into top and bottom

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7
Q

Anterior and posterior

A
Anterior = nearer to front of body
Posterior = nearer to back of body
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8
Q

Superior/cranial and inferior/caudal

A
Superior/cranial = nearer to the top of the head
Inferior/caudal = nearer to the bottom of the feet
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9
Q

Medial and lateral

A
Medial = nearer to the midline of the body/median plane
Lateral = further from the midline of the body/median plane
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10
Q

Proximal and distal

A
Proximal = nearer to the attachment of the limb to the body
Distal = further from the attachment of the limb to the body
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11
Q

Superficial and deep

A
Superficial = nearer to the surface of the body
Deep = further from the surface of the body
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12
Q

External and internal

A
External = further from the centre of the body/organ
Internal = nearer to the centre of the body/organ
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13
Q

Dorsal

A

Posterior surface of wrist, posterior surface of hand, posterior surface of tongue, superior surface of foot

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14
Q

Volar

A

Anterior surface of wrist

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15
Q

Palmar

A

Anterior surface of hand

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16
Q

Ventral

A

Anterior surface of tongue

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17
Q

Plantar

A

Inferior surface of foot

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18
Q

Unilateral

A

Structure is usually found on only one side of the body

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19
Q

Bilateral

A

Normally paired structures, a right and left structure

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20
Q

Midline

A

Single structure located at or near the midline/median plane

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21
Q

Ipsilateral

A

Structure lies on the same side of the body as the other structure or location that it is being compared to

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22
Q

Contralateral

A

Structure lies on the opposite side of the body to the other structure or location that it is being compared to

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23
Q

Flexion

A

Decreasing the angle between the bones at a joint

All anterior movements at joints superior to the knee are flexions

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24
Q

Extension

A

Increasing the angle between the bones at a joint

All anterior movements at joints inferior to the knee are extensions

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25
Adduction
Movement towards the median plane
26
Abduction
Movement away from the median plane
27
Internal/medial rotation
Anterior surface of limb rotates towards the median plane
28
External/lateral
Anterior surface of limb rotates away from the median plane
29
Circumduction
Circular motion at a joint
30
Eversion
Sole of the foot rotates away from the median plane such that the sole of the foot faces laterally
31
Inversion
Sole of the foot rotates towards the median plane such that the sole of the foot faces medially
32
Pronation
Anterior surface of the forearm rotates such that the palm of the hand faces posteriorly
33
Supination
Forearm rotates from pronated position back into the anatomical position
34
Semi-prone
Used to describe the position of the forearm and hand midway between the supine and prone positions
35
Lateral flexion
Bending sideways
36
Elevation and depression
``` Elevation = superior movement Depression = inferior movement ```
37
Protrusion and retrusion
``` Protrusion = pushing jaw forwards Retrusion = moving jaw back from protrused position into original position ```
38
Protraction and retraction
``` Protraction = anterior movement of scapula Retraction = posterior movement of scapula ```
39
Which two systems make up the circulatory system?
The cardiovascular system and the lymphatic system
40
Functions of the circulatory system
Distribution of gases and other molecules for nutrition, growth and repair Chemical signalling Thermoregulation Mediate inflammation and host defence responses
41
Three components of the cardiovascular system
``` Heart (the pump of the system) Arterial system (carries blood away from the heart) Venous system (carries blood towards the heart) ```
42
2 main circulations of the cardiovascular system
Pulmonary circulation - from right side of heart to lungs to left side of heart Systemic circulation - from left side of heart to capillary beds of organs and tissues to right side of heart
43
3 layers of the heart
Epicardium (external layer of visceral serous pericardium) Myocardium (middle cardiac muscle layer) Endocardium (inside layer continuous with endothelium of blood vessels connecting with the heart)
44
Which heart chamber forms the right border of the heart?
Right atrium
45
Which heart chamber forms the most anterior surface of the heart?
Right ventricle
46
Which heart chamber forms the posterior surface of the heart
Left atrium
47
Which heart chamber forms the left border of the heart
Left ventricle
48
Great vessels of the heart
Aorta, pulmonary trunk (divides into right and left pulmonary arteries), pulmonary veins (x4), inferior vena cava, superior vena cava
49
What do cardiac valves do?
Ensure unidirectional blood flow
50
Names of the cardiac valves
``` Tricuspid valve (between right atrium and right ventricle) Bicuspid valve (between left atrium and left ventricle) Pulmonary valve (between right ventricle and pulmonary trunk) Aortic valve (between the left ventricle and the aorta) ```
51
3 layers of blood vessels
``` Tunica intima (internal layer of endothelium) Tunica media (middle layer of smooth muscle and elastic fibres) Tunica adventitia (external layer of connective tissue) ```
52
Pressure in arteries
High pressure >120/80mmHg
53
Vasodilation
Relaxation of the smooth muscle and widening of the lumen to increase blood flow to the organ/tissue supplied
54
Vasoconstriction
Contraction of the smooth muscle and narrowing of the lumen to decrease blood flow to the organ/tissue supplied
55
Sympathetic tone
Background, low level of contraction of smooth muscles in arterioles due to tonic conduction of action potentials to arterioles by sympathetic nerves
56
Anastomosis: - What is it? - What does it do?
- Where arteries connect with each other without an intervening capillary network - Anastomoses provide alternative routes for blood to flow to supply the cells distal to an arterial occlusion
57
Circle of Willis
Anastomosis in the brain which can help prevent a cerebrovascular accident (stroke)
58
What is each alternative route in any given anastomosis called?
A collateral
59
Disadvantage of collateral
Collaterals bleed from both sides of a cut so the haemorrhage can be worse
60
End artery
The only given blood supply to an area of the body
61
What does untreated occlusion of an end artery result in?
Infarction of its territory
62
Infarction
Irreversible cell death due to hypoxia caused by loss of arterial blood supply
63
4 parts of the aorta
1. Ascending aorta (2 branches: left coronary artery and right coronary artery) 2. Arch of the aorta (3 branches) 3. Thoracic aorta (numerous branches) 4. Abdominal aorta (3 unpaired midline branches and 3 paired, bilateral branches)
64
Branches of the arch of the aorta
1. Brachiocephalic trunk 2. Left common carotid artery 3. Right subclavian artery
65
What do the common iliac arteries supply?
The pelvis/perineum and the lower limbs
66
Peripheral pulses and where they are found
Carotid pulse - at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery Brachial artery pulse - anterior to the elbow joint Radial artery pulse - radial side of the palmar aspect of the wrist Femoral artery pulse - the continuation of the external iliac artery in the midpoint of the groin Popliteal artery pulse - posterior to the knee joint Dorsalis pedis artery pulse - on the dorsal of the foot
67
What pushes venous blood along?
Artery pulsation
68
What is venous blood pumped back to the heart by?
Venous valves, skeletal muscle pump, accompanying veins
69
2 sets of veins
Superficial veins - smaller and run within superficial fascia then drain into deep veins Deep veins - larger and run deep to the deep fascia and in cavities often in neurovascular bundles
70
2 main venous systems and what they drain
Hepatic portal venous system - drains venous blood from absorptive parts of the GI tract and associated organs to the liver for cleaning Systemic venous system - drains venous blood from all other organs and tissues into the superior or inferior vena cave
71
How many blood cells can the lumen of a capillary let through?
Only 1 red blood cell (erythrocyte)
72
What do capillaries allow for?
Exchange of gases, metabolites and waste products
73
Describe lymphatic circulation
- Lymphatic capillaries collect tissue fluid - Once in the lymphatic capillaries the fluid is called lymph - Lymphatics carry lymph through lymph nodes (which contain white blood cells to filter out foreign particles and fight infection/cancer) - Lymph is returned to the central veins in the root of the neck
74
Where do the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct drain lymph into?
Right lymphatic duct drains into the right venous angle | Thoracic duct drains into the left venous angle
75
What is the only lymphatic vessel large enough to be identified in dissection?
Thoracic duct
76
Which type of lymph nodes can be palpated or seen on a CT scan?
Lymph nodes fighting infection or those which have been taken over by a spreading cancer as these usually enlarge
77
Which bones make up the axial skeleton?
- Bones of the skull - Bones of the neck (including the cervical vertebrae and the hyoid bone) - Bones of the trunk (chest, abdomen, back)
78
Which bones make up the appendicular skeleton?
- Bones of the pectoral girdle - Bones of the upper limb - Bones of the pelvic girdle - Bones of the lower limb
79
Bones in the upper limb: - 1 long bone in arm - 2 long bones in forearm - bones in hand
- 1 long bone in arm - humerus - 2 long bones in forearm - radius (lateral side in anatomical position) and ulna (medial side in anatomical position) - bones in hand - carpal bones (wrist), metacarpals (palm) and phalanges (fingers)
80
Bones in the lower limb: - 1 long bone in the thigh - 2 long bones in the leg - bones in the foot
- 1 long bone in thigh - femur - 2 long bones in leg - tibia (anterior) and fibula (posterior) - bones in foot - tarsal bones (hind foot/midfoot), metatarsals (forefoot), phalanges (forefoot to toes)
81
Bony features
- Functional - best shape for the job - An adjacent structure applies force to the developing bone, moulding its shape accordingly - An adjacent structure is developing at the same time as the bone and the bone has to form around the other structure forming a foramen
82
Tuberosity
A large prominence on a bone serving for the attachment of muscles or ligaments
83
Bone: - What is it made of? - Functions
- Hard, connective tissue - Support and protection of the body and organs, calcium metabolism, red blood cell formation, attachment for skeletal muscles
84
Where is cartilage located?
Located where mobility is required (at articulations)
85
Where does movement of the skeleton occur?
At joints. Skeletal muscles contract to move the bones
86
Types of joints
Fibrous, synovial and Cartilaginous
87
Sensations detected by the sensory receptors of the joints nerves
Pain, touch, temperature, proprioception
88
Skeletal muscles: - What do they do? - Where are they usually found? - What are they covered in?
- Produce movement - Usually found deep to deep fascia - Have a tough fibrous connective tissue covering
89
Origin and insertion
Points of attachment to a bone. Origin is one side of the joint and insertion is the other
90
How do skeletal muscles produce movement
The only thing they do is produce movement by moving the points of origin and insertion closer together during contraction
91
What happens to muscles during skeletal muscle contraction
They shorten
92
What do tendons do?
Attach the muscle to the bone (usually) and they are found at either end of the muscle
93
Aponeurosis
A flattened tendon, which attaches muscle to soft tissue rather than bone
94
Biceps brachii: - Attachments - Main actions - Nerve supply - How to clinically test it
- From scapula to radius - Flexion of shoulder joint, flexion of elbow joint, supination of radioulnar joints - Musculocutaneous nerve - Biceps jerk reflex
95
Deltoid - what movements do the following fibres make? - Posterior fibres - Middle fibres - Anterior fibres
- Posterior = extension of the shoulder - Middle = abduction of the shoulder - Anterior = flexion of the shoulder
96
Protective and adaptive reflexes
``` Protective = rapid, predictable, involuntary actions to "danger" Adaptive = movement made unconsciously by nervous system and muscles ```
97
2 main reflexes involving skeletal muscles
Stretch reflex and flexion withdrawal reflex
98
Flexion withdrawal reflex: - What is it? - Where are the nerve connections
- When you touch something potentially damaging you have a sudden flexion to withdraw from danger - Nerve connections are at spinal cord level and the brain isn't involved
99
Examples of stretch reflexes
Biceps jerk, triceps jerk, knee jerk and ankle jerk
100
What are deep tendon reflexes protective against?
Overstretching
101
How to test stretch reflex
- A tendon hammer is used to apply a brief, sudden stretch to the muscle via its tendon - Normal reflex to being stretched is to contract - Reflex contraction results in a brief twitch in the muscle belly or a movement in the normal direction
102
What happens in a stretch reflex test at a nerve level?
- Sensory nerve in muscle detects stretch and tells spinal cord - Synapse in spinal cord between sensory and motor nerves - Motor nerve in spinal cord passes message for muscle to contract
103
Neuromuscular junction
The synapse where the motor nerve communicates with the skeletal muscle
104
A normal stretch reflex will indicate that what is functioning properly? (6)
- The muscle - Sensory nerve fibres for that muscle - Motor fibres for that muscle - Spinal cord connections between the two neuromuscular junctions - "Descending controls" from the brain
105
Paralysis
A muscle without a functioning motor nerve supply | The muscle cannot contract
106
What would a paralysed muscle show on examination?
Reduced tone
107
Spasticity
The muscle has an intact and functioning motor nerve but the descending controls from the brain are not working
108
What would a muscle experiencing spasticity show on examination?
Increased tone
109
Where does fertilisation take place?
Ampulla
110
Where is the pelvic cavity?
It lies within the bony pelvis, between the pelvic inlet and pelvic outlet. It is continuous with the abdominal cavity
111
Pelvic inlet
The way into the pelvic cavity from the abdominal cavity
112
Pelvic outlet
The way into the perineum from the pelvis
113
Pelvic floor
Internal wall of skeletal muscle which separates the pelvic cavity and perineum
114
Perineum
Inferior to pelvic floor. Between proximal parts of the lower limbs
115
What can pass through the openings in the pelvic floor
Distal alimentary, reproductive and renal tracts can pass through
116
What forms the pelvic roof?
Parietal peritoneum
117
Parietal peritoneum
Lining of the abdominal cavity which is firmly attached to walls and drapes over pelvic viscera
118
2 pouches in the female peritoneal cavity
Pouch of Douglas (recto-uterine pouch) and the vesico-uterine pouch
119
Rectouterine pouch (Pouch of Douglas)
The most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity in an upright female patient
120
Female reproductive system: - Reproductive organs - Accessory organs
- Reproductive organs = ovaries | - Accessory organs = uterine tubes, uterus and vagina
121
3 layers of the body of the uterus wall
Perimetrium Myometrium Endometrium
122
Where does implantation occur?
The body of the uterus
123
Steps in menstruation
1. Ova develop in the ovaries 2. Each menstrual cycle, 1 ovum is released from surface of ovary into peritoneal cavity 3. Ovum is gathered by fimbriae into the infundibulum of the uterine tube 4. Ovum moved along uterine tube by cilia 5. During menstruation, an unfertilised ovum is expelled by contractions of the myometrium
124
Ectopic pregnancy
Fertilised ovum implants out-with the uterine cavity and this is a potential emergency as there is a danger of haemorrhage
125
Female sterilisation
Tubal ligation. Both uterine tubes are clipped, cut or cauterised to block the lumen
126
Prepuce
Foreskin
127
Where do the testes develop?
Posterior abdominal wall
128
In testicular development, what do the testes pass through as they descend into the scrotum?
The inguinal canal in the anterior abdominal wall
129
Which muscle helps control the temperature within the testes for sperm production?
Dartos muscle
130
Passage taken by sperm from seminiferous tubules to vas deferens
1. Sperm produced in the seminiferous tubules 2. Sperm pass to rate testis 3 Pass into the head of the epididymis 4. Epididymis becomes vas deferens
131
What does the spermatic cord contain?
Vas deferens, testicular artery, pampiniform plexus of veins
132
Torsion of the testes
Twisting of the spermatic cord, disrupting the blood supply and causing severe pain. Danger of testicular necrosis so is a medical emergency
133
Male reproductive system: - Reproductive organs - Accessory organs
- Reproductive organs = testes | - Accessory organs = vas deferens, seminal glands, prostate gland and penis
134
Within the pelvis, what does each vas deferens join with?
A duct from a seminal gland to form an ejaculatory duct
135
Where do the left and right ejaculatory ducts join together?
Within the prostate gland
136
In a male, where does the urethra open?
At the external urethral meatus of the penis
137
Male sterilisation
Vasectomy - the vas deferens is transected and the lumen is sutured closed. This is bilateral
138
How do nerves allow us to sense our environment?
Through sensory functions e.g. pain, touch, temperature and 'special' senses e.g. taste, smell, sight, hearing and balance
139
3 types of functions of nerves
Sensory, motor and reflex
140
What makes up the central nervous system?
Brain, spinal cord and central controller
141
What makes up the peripheral nervous system?
All nerve tissue not in the CNS, spinal nerves (connect with the spinal cord), cranial nerves (connect with brain), autonomic nerves and wiring
142
Ganglion
A collection of nerve cell bodies
143
Describe the structure of peripheral nerves?
Bundles of axons wrapped in connective tissue
144
6 modalities that a single axon can conduct action potentials in relation to
1 of the following: - Somatic sensory function - Somatic motor function - Special sensory function - Visceral afferent function - Sympathetic function - Parasympathetic function
145
Named nerve
Larger nerve supplying the body wall, body cavities and organs
146
Motor (efferent)
Action potential towards a body wall, body cavity or organ
147
Sensory (afferent)
Action potential towards the brain
148
Mixed nerve
Nerves composed of both sensory and motor fibres and transmit messages in both directions at once
149
What does the outermost layer of the brain consist of?
Gyri (folds in the brain) and sulci (indentations/grooves)
150
4 lobes in the brain:
Frontal (front), temporal (on the sides more inferior), parietal (in the middle), occipital (back and bottom)
151
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?
12
152
CN I: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Olfactory nerve - Sensory - Anterior cranial fossa - Cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone
153
CN II: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Optic nerve - Sensory - Middle cranial fossa - Optic canal
154
CN III: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Oculomotor nerve - Motor (somatic and parasympathetic) - Middle cranial fossa - Superior orbital fissure
155
CN IV: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Trochlear nerve - Motor - Middle cranial fossa - Superior orbital fissure
156
CN V: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Trigeminal nerve - Both - Middle cranial fossa - Superior orbital fissure (CN V1), foramen rotundum (CN V2) and foramen ovale (CN V3)
157
CN VI: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Abducent nerve - Motor - Middle cranial fossa - Superior orbital fissure
158
CN VII: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Facial nerve - Both - Posterior cranial fossa - Internal acoustic meatus
159
CN VIII: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Vestibulocochlear nerve - Sensory - Posterior cranial fossa - Internal acoustic meatus
160
CN IX: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Glossopharyngeal nerve - Both - Posterior cranial fossa - Jugular foramen
161
CN X: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Vagus nerve - Both - Posterior cranial fossa - Jugular foramen
162
CN XI: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Spinal accessory nerve - Motor - Posterior cranial fossa - Jugular foramen
163
CN XII: - What is the name of this nerve? - Is it sensory, motor or both? - In which part of the cranial fossa does it lie? - Where does it exit from the cranium?
- Hypoglossal nerve - Motor - Posterior cranial fossa - Hypoglossal canal
164
Where does the spinal cord pass through?
Foramen magnum
165
What is the spinal cord protected by?
Vertebral canal
166
4 segments of the spinal cord and how many there are of each
``` Cervical - 8 (C1-C8) Thoracic - 12 (T1-T12) Lumbar - 5 (L1-L5) Sacral - 5 (S1-S5) (one coccygeal) ```
167
2 enlargements of the spinal cord
Cervical, lumbosacral
168
How many spinal nerves are there?
31 pairs which the spinal cord connects with bilaterally
169
Where does the spinal cord end?
Inferiorly at L1/L2 intervertebral disc level - conus medullaris
170
Vertebrae: - How many in total? - How many of each of the following: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal
- 33 in total | - 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral (fused to form 1 sacrum), 4 coccygeal (fused to form one coccyx)
171
Which vertebrae are spinal nerves named according to?
The ones above it, except in the cervical region where they are named according to the vertebrae below it
172
Where are spinal nerves located?
Only within the intervertebral foramina
173
After the intervertebral foramina what do spinal nerves connect with
``` The soma (body wall) via rami The spinal cord via roots and rootlets ```
174
What do the posterior rami supply?
The small posterior strip of the soma
175
What do the anterior rami supply?
The remainder of the posterior strip, the lateral and anterior parts of the strip of the soma and all of the limbs via plexus
176
Dermatome
Area of skin supplied by both the anterior and posterior rami of a spinal nerve
177
T4 and T10 dermatomes
``` T4 = male nipple T10 = umbilicus ```
178
Nerve plexus
Networks of intertwined anterior rami
179
Cervical plexus: - Which rami? - What regions of the body does it supply?
- C1-C4 anterior rami | - Posterior scalp, neck wall and diaphragm
180
Brachial plexus: - Which rami? - What region of the body does it supply?
- C5-T1 anterior rami | - Upper limb
181
Lumbar plexus: - Which rami? - What region of the body does it supply?
- L1-L4 anterior rami | - Lower limb
182
Sacral plexus: - Which rami? - Which regions of the body does it supply?
- L5-S4 anterior rami | - Lower limb, gluteal region and perineum
183
What parts of the body does soma include?
Head and neck walls, chest walls, back, diaphragm, abdominal wall, pelvic wall, limbs
184
What does the somatic nervous system supply?
The soma
185
Which structures does the somatic nervous system supply?
Skin, fascia, skeletal muscle, skeleton, internal lining of body cavities
186
What does the autonomic nervous system supply?
Visceral motor system
187
What does the visceral motor system include?
Viscera, glands, smooth and cardiac muscle, external lining of body cavities
188
Locations of the visceral motor system
Internal organs in body cavities (chest cavity, pelvic cavity, abdominal cavity) and body wall organs (sweat glands, arrestor smooth muscle, arterioles)
189
What do mechanoreceptors sense?
Coarse touch, fine touch, vibration, proprioception through somatic sensation
190
What do thermoreceptors sense?
Temperature through somatic sensation
191
What do nociceptors sense?
Pain through somatic sensation
192
Route taken for somatic sensation to be felt by the lower limb
- Somatic sensory mechanoreceptors in L2 are stimulated - APs conducted along axons within the L2 anterior ramus - These axons weave through lumbar plexus to L2 spinal nerve - The axons pass through the dorsal root ganglion, the dorsal roots and the dorsal rootlets - The APs arrive at the posterior horn of the L2 spinal segment - APs cross over the midline and ascend towards brain
193
Route taken for motor innervation to occur after somatic sensation is felt in the lower limb
- Somatic motor axons cross over in the brainstem and descend to the anterior horn - APs conducted along axons with anterior rootlets, anterior roots, then into spinal nerves - APs conducted along axons in nerves of lumbar plexus - Synapse onto skeletal muscle of lower limb, then the skeletal muscles contract to move the lower limb
194
Spinal reflexes
Protective reflexes which miss out the pathway to the brain
195
Visceral Afferent
Organs' sensory nerves
196
What sort of things do sensory neurones sense?
Heart rate, blood pressure, digestion and gland secretions
197
What do motor neurones do?
Respond to changes in internal environment
198
Dual motor control
When an organ has both a sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve supply
199
What happens to the following in fight or flight response: - Pupils - Heart - Lungs - GI tract - Liver - Adrenal glands - Arterioles - Skin
- Pupils = dilate - Heart = rate increases - Lungs = bronchioles dilate - GI tract = motility is reduced - Liver = glucose is released into blood - Adrenal gland = adrenaline/noradrenaline released - Arterioles = dilate in skeletal muscle and constrict in skin (why we look pale) - Skin = hair stands on end and sweat produced
200
Describe steps in sympathetic outflow
- Originates in autonomic nerves in the brain - Travels down spinal cord - Exits spinal cord with T1-L2 spinal nerves - Travels to sympathetic chains running the length of the vertebral column - Pass into all spinal nerves - 'Hitch a ride' with arteries to all head and neck organs and skin - Travel via splanchnic nerves to organs
201
What happens to the following in the rest and digest response? - Pupils - Heart - Lungs - GI tract - Liver - Bladder
- Pupils = constrict - Heart = rate slows - Lungs = bronchioles constrict - GI tract = motility increases - Liver = glucose synthesis - Bladder = sphincter relaxes
202
Where do all parasympathetic axons leave the CNS?
Via cranial nerves III, VI, IX, X and via sacral spinal nerves
203
What does the vagus nerve supply?
Organs of the neck, chest and abdomen as far as the mid-gut
204
What do sacral spinal nerves do?
'Carry' parasympathetic axons to the hindgut, pelvis and perineum