Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BM4 Part 1 > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 primary tissue types?

A
  1. Epithelium
  2. Connective
  3. Muscle
  4. Nervous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Septa

A

Connective tissue that separates compartments of muscles within a limb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Compartment Syndrome

A

Excessive pressure in a confined space (i.e. muscle compartment).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the germ layer origin of connective tissue?

A

Mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most abundant primary tissue type?

A

Connective tissue - found everywhere in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 4 classes of connective tissue?

A
  1. Connective Tissue Proper
  2. Cartilage
  3. Bone
  4. Blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 3 types of connective tissue fibres?

A
  1. Collagen (white fibre)
  2. Elastic
  3. Reticular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the main function of collagen fibre?

A

Providing strength and rigidity (due to being extremely tough and having high tensile strength).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the main function of elastic fibres?

A

Enabling tissues to stretch and recoil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the main function of reticular fibres?

A

Supporting parenchymal (soft) tissue of organs and surrounding blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline, elastic and fibrous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 2 main forms of bone?

A

Compact and cancellous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the main function of adipocytes?

A

Storing fat to provide insulation, and can be broken down to form glycogen for energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 11 organ systems?

A

Skeletal, Muscular, Integumentary, Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, Respiratory, Digestive, Urinary, Reproductive, Endocrine, Nervous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 5 classifications of bones?

A

Long, short, flat, irregular, sesamoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 3 factors affecting joint stability?

A

Shape, size and form of the articular surfaces.
Ligaments.
Tone of the muscle around the joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 3 classifications of joints?

A

Fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fibrous Joint

A

Adjacent articulating bones are bound together by fibrous (collagen-containing) connective tissue, and permits little movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What bone types are fibrous joints between?

A

Flat bones (sutures) or long bones (syndesmoses).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cartilaginous Joint

A

Articulating bones are bound together by cartilage and can be divided into primary and secondary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Synchondrosis

A

Primary cartilaginous joint - consists of hyaline cartilage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Symphysis

A

Secondary cartilaginous joint - articular surfaces are lined by hyaline cartilage with a fibrocartilage disc/pad between them. Permits a limited amount of movement and all lie on the midline of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 6 sub-classifications of synovial joints?

A
  1. Hinge
  2. Ellipsoid
  3. Ball and socket
  4. Plane
  5. Pivot
  6. Saddle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the movements permitted by a hinge joint?

A

Uni-axial, flexion/extension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the movements permitted by an ellipsoid joint?

A

Bi-axial, flexion/extension, abduction/adduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the movements permitted by a ball and socket joint?

A

Multi-axial, flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, medial/lateral rotation (possibly circumduction).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the movements permitted by a plane joint?

A

Limited gliding movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the movements permitted by a pivot joint?

A

Rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the movements permitted by a saddle joint?

A

Flexion/extension, adduction/abduction (no circumduction).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the features of a synovial joint?

A

Presence of a joint cavity containing a small volume of synovial fluid.
Articulating surfaces lined by hyaline cartilage.
Joint enclosed by a sleeve-like fibrous capsule, lined on its inner surface by a synovial membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What joint type connects vertebral bodies?

A

Secondary cartilaginous joints (intervertebral discs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What joint classification forms between superior/inferior processes and reciprocal processes of vertebral bodies?

A

Synovial plane joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of joint is the manubriosternal joint.

A

Secondary cartilaginous joint - between upper and middle sections of the sternum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

At what joint does pronation and supination occur?

A

Radioulnar joint (not involving the elbow joint).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Basement Membrane

A

Condensed layer of ECM which supports epithelia and controls growth/differentiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Myocytes

A

Contractile cells that aggregate to form muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Motor End Plate

A

Chemical synapse that is formed at the sites where the terminal branches of the axon contact a target muscle cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Sarcolemma

A

Cell membrane of a muscle cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the main function of tendons?

A

Passive transmitter of force from muscle to bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Myotendinous Junction

A

Region of interface between muscles and tendons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where do muscle strains typically occur?

A

Tendinous origin rather than muscle belly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the major movements of the trunk?

A

Flexion, extension, lateral flexion and some rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the movements of the scapula at the scapulothoracic joint?

A

Protraction, retraction, elevation, depression, rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What movements are permitted at the glenohumeral joint?

A

Flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, medial rotation, lateral rotation, circumduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the linea alba?

A

A fibrous structure that extends from the xiphoid process of the sternum to the pubic symphysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Squamous

A

Large, flattened cells filled with cytoplasm and possessing a small, round nucleus at the centre.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Stratified

A

Epithelial tissue consisting of two or more cell layers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Myotome

A

A group of muscles innervated by a single spinal nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Dermatome

A

An area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the functions of the skin?

A

Protection, thermoregulation, excretion of sweat, Vitamin D synthesis and sensory reception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the 5 subdivisions of the epidermis?

A

Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the 3 main layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis, dermis and hypodermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What cell type makes up the epidermis?

A

Stratified, squamous keratinised epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the 2 layers of the dermis?

A

Papillary and reticular layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What tissue type makes up the papillary layer?

A

Loose, connective tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What tissue type makes up the reticular layer?

A

Dense, irregular connective tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which layer of the dermis is the biggest?

A

The reticular layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the main tissue types of the hypodermis?

A

Adipose tissue - segregated by loose connective tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the main types of skin appendages?

A

Hair/hair follicles, glands and nails.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where do skin appendages develop?

A

Develop from the epidermis and extend into the dermis/hypodermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Eccrine

A

Most abundant gland - found everywhere. Role in thermoregulation, protection and excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Apocrine

A

Glands limited to the areola, axilla, anal and external genital regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sebaceous

A

Glands which are associated with and secrete into the hair follicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Sensory Information

A

Received by the CNS from the external and internal environments of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Motor Information

A

Transmitted from the CNS via the somatic and autonomic nervous systems to effectors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Afferent Neurons

A

Carry sensory information towards the CNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Efferent Neurons

A

Carry motor information away from the CNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Nerve Plexus

A

Network of nerve fibres, formed by several individual nerve branches from different regions of the CNS fusing together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where does the spinal cord run from and to?

A

Foramen magnum to conus medullaris (between L1/L2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the spinal cord continuous with above and below?

A

Medulla oblongata and conus medullaris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the 3 membrane layers forming the meninges (superficial to deep)?

A

Dura, arachnoid and pia mater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Between which meninges layers does the CSF sit?

A

Arachnoid and pia mater (a.k.a subarachnoid space). CSF pressure keeps arachnoid in place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where is the epidural space?

A

Between the vertebral canal and the dura mater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the relationship between the level of spinal cord segment and vertebrae for the cervical, upper thoracic and lower thoracic regions?

A

Cervical → vertebral spines are one lower in number than the spinal cord segments.
Upper thoracic → the vertebral spines are two lower in numbre than the spinal cord segments.
Lower thoracic → the vertebral spines are three lower in number than the spinal cord segments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where do the lumbar, sacral and coccygeal nerve roots arise?

A

T11 → L2 vertebrae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

At what vertebral levels is a lumbar puncture usually carried out and why?

A

L3/L4 → well below the termination of the spinal cord/conus medullaris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How many pairs of nerves are there, and how many of these pairs are spinal nerves?

A

36 in total, 31 spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Nerve fibre

A

An axon and its supporting Schwann cells (and myelin sheath).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Epineurium

A

Dense irregular connective tissue, surrounding a group of fascicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Perineurium

A

Sheath of two to seven layers of dense connective tissue surrounding a fascicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Endoneurium

A

Delicate, loose connective tissue surrounding individual nerve fibres, and blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What information is the dorsal root responsible for?

A

Sensory information towards the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What information is the ventral root responsible for?

A

Motor information away from the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What information type are multipolar neurons responsible for?

A

Motor information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What information type are pseudounipolar neurons responsible for?

A

Sensory information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Where do the majority of spinal nerves emerge from?

A

Intervertebral foramen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the two branches of an intercostal nerve and what do they supply?

A

Lateral and anterior cutaneous branch supplying the skin of the lateral and anterior chest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does the small dorsal ramus of the thoracic vertebrae supply?

A

The erector spinae muscles and the area of skin that they cover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the basic components of a reflex arc?

A

Sensory receptor
Sensory neuron
Motor neuron
Skeletal muscle fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How can you tell the dorsal horn from the ventral?

A

The ventral horn is more rounded than the narrower dorsal horn, which also tends to touch the edge of the vertebral body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

At what vertebral location are the preganglionic neurons located?

A

T1 to L2/3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the spinal roots of the brachial plexus?

A

C5-T1 (ventral rami).

93
Q

What are the spinal roots of the lumbosacral plexus?

A

L1-S4 (ventral rami).

94
Q

At what cranial nerves does the parasympathetic preganglionic neurons emerge?

A

Cranial nerves III (oculomotor), VII (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal) and X (vagus).

95
Q

At which spinal nerves does the parasympathetic preganglionic sacral neurons emerge?

A

S2-S4.

96
Q

At which spinal cord segments are the sympathetic preganglionic neurons found?

A

T1 to L2/3.

97
Q

From which part of the spinal cord grey matter are sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies found?

A

Lateral horn.

98
Q

What does grey matter consists of?

A

Neuronal cell bodies.

99
Q

What does white matter consist of?

A

Myelinated axons.

100
Q

What is the function of basal ganglia?

A

Regulation of voluntary movement and learning of motor skills.

101
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

Sensory ‘relay centres’ where sensory neurons carrying information from the spinal cord may synapse.

102
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Critical for regulating hormonal and autonomic control of body function.

103
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus?

A

Long-term memory formation.

104
Q

What is the function of ependymal cells?

A

Lining ventricles of the brain and spinal cord and producing, secreting, absorbing and propelling CSF.

105
Q

What are the three main regions of the brain stem?

A

Midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata.

106
Q

White rami communicantes

A

Sympathetic pre-ganglionic and bring information into the CNS (only found between T1 and L2/3 segments).

107
Q

Grey rami communicantes

A

Sympathetic post-ganglionic and brings information out of the CNS (found across the whole vertebral column).

108
Q

What neurotransmitter do adrenergic receptors bind?

A

Noradrenaline.

109
Q

What neurotransmitter do cholinergic receptors bind?

A

Acetylcholine.

110
Q

What are the two types of cholinergic receptors?

A

Nicotinic and muscarinic.

111
Q

What are the characteristics of skeletal muscle?

A

Striated muscle under somatic voluntary control.
Identifying features include cylindrical cells and multiple peripheral nuclei.

112
Q

What are the characteristics of cardiac muscle?

A

Striated muscle under autonomic involuntary control.
Identifying features are single nuclei and the presence of intercalated discs between cells.

113
Q

What are the characteristics of smooth muscle?

A

Non-striated muscle under autonomic involuntary control.
Identifying features include the presence of one spindle-shaped central nucleus per cell. flat

114
Q

What is the arrangement of tendons?

A

Dense, regular connective tissue formed from parallel fascicles of regularly arranged collagen fibres, associated with fibroblasts.

115
Q

Superficial Fascia

A

Subcutaneous layer under the skin composed of a adipose tissue and a membranous layer.

116
Q

Deep Fascia

A

Thin layer of connective tissue covering all skeletal muscles.
Denser, deep fascia encloses the muscles of compartments.

117
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is a genetic disorder which affects the production of which biological substance?

A

Type I collagen (reduced strength/reduced amounts).

118
Q

On which intracellular organelle would you find striation in a skeletal muscle cell?

A

Myofibril.

119
Q

What is epithelial tissue?

A

Consists of cells specialises for exchanging materials between the cell and its environment.

120
Q

What are the characteristics of epithelial tissue?

A

Densely packed epithelial cells with minimal ECM laid down on top of dense, irregular connective tissue (basement membrane).

121
Q

What are the classifications of epithelium?

A

Squamous (flat), cuboid (cube), columnar (rectangular).
Simple (single), stratified (multi), pseudostratified.

122
Q

Where is loose connective tissue mainly found?

A

In internal organs as supporting tissue stroma.

123
Q

What are examples of dense, regular connective tissue?

A

Tendons and ligaments.

124
Q

What are examples of dense, irregular connective tissue?

A

Dermis of the skin and organ capsules.

125
Q

What are the 5 nerves of the brachial plexus?

A

Axillary, musculocutaneous, radial, ulnar and median.

126
Q

Which nerves arise from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

A

Axillary and radial.

127
Q

Which nerves arise from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?

A

Musculocutaneous and median.

128
Q

Which nerves arise from the medial cord of the brachial plexus?

A

Median and ulnar.

129
Q

What are the 2 main nerves arising from the sacrolumbar plexus?

A

Femoral and sciatic.

130
Q

What is the lamina propria?

A

Loose, connective tissue.
Richly vascularised network providing nutrients to the epithelium as well as mechanical support.
May contain glands.

131
Q

What layers make up the pharynx?

A

Nasopharynx = respiratory epithelium
Oropharynx and laryngopharynx = stratified squamous non-keratinised epithelium
Lamina propria
Skeletal muscle

132
Q

What cell types make up the larynx?

A

Mostly respiratory epithelium
Epiglottis and vocal folds = stratified squamous non-keratinised epithelium
Underneath = dense connective tissue

133
Q

What are the layers of the trachea and primary bronchi?

A

Respiratory epithelium
Lamina propria
Submucosa
C-shaped hyaline cartilage
Trachealis muscle

134
Q

What is the function of the submucosa layer?

A

Contains mucous and seromucous glands. Seromucous glands secrete watery secretions to humidify inspired air. Mucous glands secrete mucin and with goblet cells trap particles from the air.

135
Q

What are the layers of the intrapulmonary bronchi?

A

Respiratory epithelium
Muscularis mucosa (circular smooth muscle)
SubmucosaI regular plates of hyaline cartilage distributed across entire circumference

136
Q

What are the layers of the bronchioles?

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium with no goblet cells.
Contain interspersed club cells.
Elastin
Smooth muscle

137
Q

What cells make up the surface of the alveoli?

A

Simple squamous epithelium.

138
Q

What tissue type makes up the alveolar septa?

A

Connective tissue.

139
Q

Type I Pneumocytes

A

Very flat squamous cells
95% of alveolar surface

140
Q

Type II Pneumocytes

A

Cuboidal secretory cells
Secrete surfactant by exocytosis of lamellar bodies

141
Q

What is the function of surfactant?

A

Lines alveoli and decreases surface tension to prevent collapse.

142
Q

Dust Cells

A

Alveolar macrophages
Located in alveolar septa and air spaces
Phagocytose inhaled particulate matter and pathogens and contain lysosomes with hydrolytic enzymes.

143
Q

What cell type makes up the pleura?

A

Simple squamous epithelium (mesothelium) and connective tissue.

144
Q

What are the 2 functions of the respiratory system?

A
  1. Transport gases
  2. Surface for gas exchange
145
Q

What structures make up the upper respiratory tract?

A

Nasal cavity, paradisal air sinuses and pharynx.

146
Q

What structures make up the lower respiratory tract?

A

Larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs.

147
Q

What are the primary functions of the nasal cavity?

A

To clean, warm and humidify inhaled air.
Increase surface area and create eddies in inspired air, increasing warming and filtering.

148
Q

What are the paranasal air sinuses?

A

Air spaces in the bones of the skull surrounding the nasal cavity.

149
Q

What makes up the respiratory mucosa?

A

Respiratory epithelium, lamina propria and muscularis mucosa.

150
Q

What is an exocrine gland?

A

A gland which secretes a substance through a ducal system to an epithelial surface.

151
Q

What is an endocrine gland?

A

A gland that secretes a substance directly into the bloodstream.

152
Q

What are the two main cellular layers of the bronchioles?

A

Pseudostratified columnar cells and basement membrane.

153
Q

What is the role of nasal conchae?

A

Increase the surface area
Create eddies in inspired air
Increase warming and filtering

154
Q

What are the names of the tonsils?

A

1x Pharyngeal
2x Tubal
2x Palatine
1x Lingual

155
Q

Which tonsils are visible at the back of the throat?

A

Palatine tonsil

156
Q

What is the role of the vocal folds?

A

Phonation
Protective sphincter for LRT

157
Q

What is the role of the vestibular folds?

A

Protective

158
Q

What is contained within the hilum of the lungs?

A

Pulmonary arteries
Pulmonary veins
Primary bronchi

159
Q

What is the order of sections of the respiratory tract, from superior to inferior?

A

Nasal cavity
Pharynx
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi
Lungs

160
Q

Which sections make up the conducting zone of the respiratory system?

A

Nasal cavity
Pharynx
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi

161
Q

At which point does the respiratory zone begin?

A

At the respiratory bronchioles and encompasses the components participating in gas exchange

162
Q

Where does the blood supply of the nasal cavity originate from?

A

Branches of the internal and external carotid arteries.

163
Q

What is the source of most nosebleeds?

A

Kiesselbach area - anastomoses of 5 different arteries on the anterior nasal septum

164
Q

What type of cartilage are the thyroid and cricoid cartilages?

A

Hyaline cartilage

165
Q

What type of cartilage are the epiglottis and arytenoid cartilages?

A

Elastic cartilage

166
Q

From superior to inferior, what is the order of components of the larynx?

A

Hyoid bone
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Cricoid cartilage
Arytenoid cartilage

167
Q

At what vertebral level does the carina lie?

A

T4/5 (sternal angle)

168
Q

How many bronchopulmonary segments does each lung have?

A

Right = 10
Left = 8

169
Q

What are the 3 sections of the pharynx?

A

Nasopharynx
Oropharynx
Laryngopharynx

170
Q

Which are the atypical ribs?

A

1, 2, 10, 11, 12

171
Q

What type of joint is the manubriosternal joint?

A

Secondary cartilaginous joint.
Limited movement

172
Q

What type of joint is the xiphisternal joint?

A

Primary cartilaginous joint.
Hyaline cartilage - immovable

173
Q

What landmarks are at the T4/T5 level?

A

Articulation of sternum with costal cartilage of 2nd ribs
Beginning and end of aortic arch
Bifurcation of trachea
Bifurcation of pulmonary trunk
Border between superior and inferior mediastinum
Azygos vein drains into SVC
Thoracic duct crosses over to the left

174
Q

What type of joint are the sternocostal joints?

A

Synovial plane - except for 1st costal cartilages which form primary cartilaginous joints

175
Q

What type of joint are the interchondral joints?

A

Synovial plane

176
Q

What type of joint are the costochondral joints?

A

Primary cartilaginous.
No movement - costal cartilage itself provides flexibility

177
Q

At what vertebral level does the jugular notch lie?

A

T2/T3

178
Q

At what vertebral level does the xiphisternal joint lie?

A

T9

179
Q

At what vertebral level does the tip of the iliac crest lie?

A

L4

180
Q

At what level does the costodiaphragmatic recess lie?

A

Between 8th and 10th ribs in the midaxillary line.

181
Q

At what level does the oblique fissures lie?

A

Level of the 6th costal cartilage anteriorly

182
Q

At what level does the horizontal fissure lie?

A

Level of the 4th costal cartilage anteriorly

183
Q

At what vertebral level are the lower border of the lungs?

A

T10

184
Q

At what vertebral level do the oblique fissures extend from posteriorly?

A

T2

185
Q

Which nerve supplies the diaphragm?

A

Phrenic nerves (C3, C4, C5)

186
Q

What is the diaphragmatic pleura?

A

Parietal pleura covering superior surface of the diaphragm

187
Q

At what level is the caval hiatus of the diaphragm?

A

T8

188
Q

At what level is the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm?

A

T10

189
Q

At what level is the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm?

A

T12

190
Q

What are the crura of the diaphragm?

A

Tendons that anchor the diaphragm to the vertebral column

191
Q

What passes through the caval hiatus?

A

Inferior vena cava
Terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve

192
Q

What passes through the oesophageal hiatus?

A

Oesophagus
Right and left vagus nerves
Oesophageal branches of the left gastric artery/vein

193
Q

What passes through the aortic hiatus?

A

Aorta
Thoracic duct
Azygous vein

194
Q

What actions bring about inspiration?

A

Diaphragm - contracts and flattens
External intercostal muscles contract to elevate the ribs

195
Q

What are the accessory muscles of inspiration?

A

Sternocleidomastoid
Scalenes
Pectoralis major
Pectoralis minor

196
Q

What are the accessory muscles of expiration?

A

Internal intercostals (excluding interchrondral parts)
Rectus abdominis
External and internal obliques
Transversus abdominis

197
Q

What is the endothoracic fascia?

A

Thin connective tissue layer between internal thoracic wall and parietal pleura

198
Q

From superior to inferior, what order do the intercostal vessels lie?

A

Vein
Artery
Nerve

199
Q

What is found within the superior mediastinum?

A

Oesophagus
Trachea
Arch of the aorta and 3 branches
Brachiocephalic veins
SVC
Terminal portion of the thoracic duct
Thymus gland
Vagus nerve
Phrenic nerve

200
Q

What is found within the posterior mediastinum?

A

Descending thoracic aorta
Oesophagus
Thoracic duct
Azygos venous system
Vagus nerve
Sympathetic chain

201
Q

What is found within the middle mediastinum

A

Heart with the roots of the great vessels
Pericardium

202
Q

What is found within the anterior mediastinum?

A

Lymph nodes
Lymphatic vessels
Internal thoracic arteries and veins

203
Q

What does the vagus nerve supply?

A

Oesophagus
Laryngeal muscles
Pharynx
Heart
Tracheobronchial tree
Lungs
Many other thoracic and abdominal organs/structures

204
Q

Cortical Bone

A

80% of skeletal mass
AKA compact bone
High density and not easily bent or stretched

205
Q

Trabecular bone

A

20% of skeletal mass
AKA spongy or cancellous bone
Low density and shock absorber
80% of surface area of adult skeletal system

206
Q

At what point does the descending thoracic aorta become the descending abdominal aorta?

A

At the diaphragm

207
Q

Branches of the ascending aorta

A

Coronary arteries

208
Q

Branches of the arch of the aorta

A

Brachiocephalic trunk
Left common carotid artery
Left subclavian artery

209
Q

At what vertebral level is the arch of the aorta?

A

T4/5 (Angle of Louis)

210
Q

Branches of the thoracic aorta

A

Bronchial
Oesophageal
Posterior intercostal
Subcostal
Superior phrenic

211
Q

Unpaired branches of the anterior abdominal aorta

A

Celiac trunk
Superior mesenteric
Inferior mesenteric

212
Q

What structures are supplied by the celiac trunk?

A

Foregut: stomach, spleen, liver, gall bladder, abdominal oesophagus, pancreas and part of the duodenum

213
Q

What structures are supplied by the superior mesenteric artery?

A

Midgut: distal duodenum, small intestine, caecum, appendix, ascending colon, part of transverse colon (up to splenic flexure)

214
Q

What structures are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery?

A

Hindgut: terminal part of the transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, proximal rectum

215
Q

Lateral paired branches of the abdominal aorta

A

Suprarenal
Renal
Gonadal (testicular or ovarian)

216
Q

Posterolateral paired branches of the abdominal aorta

A

Inferior phrenic
Lumbar arteries

217
Q

At what vertebral level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate?

A

L4

218
Q

Aneurysm

A

Abnormal dilation of >50% of normal diameter

219
Q

Aortic coarctation

A

Congenital condition causing narrowing of the aorta, usually occurring at the area where the ductus arteriosus (ligamentum arteriosus) inserts. Leads to upper body hypertension.

220
Q

Tributaries of the superior vena cava

A

Right and left brachiocephalic veins and azygous vein.

221
Q

What veins unite to form the brachiocephalic veins?

A

Internal jugular and subclavian veins (external jugular drains directly into the SC)

222
Q

What area does the azygous venous system drain?

A

Back and thoraco-abdominal wall

223
Q

What do the lumbar veins drain?

A

The posterior abdominal wall

224
Q

What are the layers of the arteries and veins?

A

Tunica intima
Tunica media
Tunica adventitia/externa

225
Q

Aortic Dissection

A

Injury to the tunica intima layer of the aorta allowing blood to flow into the tunica media, causing two parts to be filled with blood.

225
Q

What type of epithelium is the tunica intima?

A

Endothelium - simple squamous epitheliulm with basal lamina

226
Q

Histology of capillaries

A

Endothelial layer and basal lamina

227
Q

What are the three types of capillary?

A

Continuous
Fenestrated
Discontinuous

228
Q

What nerves carry afferent impulses from baroreceptors?

A

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal (baroreceptors of the carotid sinus)
CN X - Vagus (baroreceptors of the aortic arch)

BM4 Part 1 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions