Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What is the CNS composed of?

A
  • the brain and spinal cord
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2
Q

The ANS is a division of what nervous system

A
  • PNS
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3
Q

Define a neuron

A
  • basic unit of the nervous system
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4
Q

What is the function of a neurone

A
  • receive and conduct nervous impulses
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5
Q

A collection of neurones is termed?

A

ganglion

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6
Q

Function of dendrites

A
  • short
  • gather information from neighbouring neurones
  • recieve information towards the cell body
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7
Q

What produces myelin in the CNS

A
  • Oligodendrocytes
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8
Q

What produces myelin in the PNS?

A
  • Schwann cells
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9
Q

Multipolar neurons are ___efferent/afferent___

A
  • efferent

- motor

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10
Q

Unipolar neurons are ___effferent/afferent___

A
  • afferent

- sensory

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11
Q

Where is the cell body located in a unipolar neuron?

A
  • PNS
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12
Q

Where is the cell body of a multipolar neuron located

A
  • CNS
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13
Q

Define a nerve in the PNS

A
  • A collection of axons surrounded by connective tissue
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14
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A
  • 31
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15
Q

How are spinal nerves in the cervical region named?

A
  • by the vertebra below
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16
Q

How are the spinal nerves in all regions other than the cervical region named?

A
  • by the vertebra above
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17
Q

The ___posterior/anterior___ rami is largest

A
  • anterior
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18
Q

Sensory axons pass through the __posterior/anterior__ root

A
  • posterior root
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19
Q

Motor axons pass through the ___posterior/anterior___ root

A
  • anterior root
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20
Q

Roots only carry a specific modality and spinal nerves are mixed?

TRUE OR FALSE

A
  • TRUE
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21
Q

Define dermatome

A
  • area of skin supplied with sensory innervation from a single spinal nerve
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22
Q

Define myotome

A
  • the skeletal muscle supplied with motor innervation from a single spinal nerve
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23
Q

What is used to visualise dermatome landmarks?

A
  • dermatome map
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24
Q

What dermatome level is the nipple?

A
  • T4
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25
What dermatome level is the umbilicus?
- T10
26
Only the anterior rami are involved in nerve plexuses? TRUE OR FALSE
- TRUE
27
What is the sympathetic outflow region?
- T1-L2
28
Sympathetic innervation leaves via the __anterior/posterior___root?
- anterior rami | - motor innervation
29
What is the parasympathetic outflow?
- CN III, VII, IX, X | - S2, S3, S4
30
What is different about the sacral spinal nerves,
- synapse at target organ | - e.g. hindgut, pelvis and perineum
31
Name the 4 curvatures of the spine
- cervical lordosis - thoracic kyphosis - lumbar lordosis - sacral kyphosis
32
Where are the intervertebral foramen found
- between adjacent vertebra | - location of spinal nerves
33
Facet joints are an example of ___ joints
- synovial
34
The intervertebral disc has an outer fibrous ring called ____ and an inner soft pulp called ___
- annulus fibrosus | - nucellus pulposus
35
The ligamentum flavum lies ___ anterior/posterior___ to the spinal cord
- posterior
36
The posterior longitudinal ligament lies __anterior/posterior___ to the spinal cord
- anterior
37
What is unique about C1?
- No vertebral body or spinous process
38
What does C2 contain?
- odontoid process with is superiorly projected
39
What head movement is the atlanto-occipital joint responsible for?
- yes movement
40
What head movement is the atlanto-axial joint responsible for?
- no movement
41
How many articulations does the atlanto-axial joint has?
- 3 articulations
42
Skin dimples superior to the sacrum indicate?
- position of the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS)
43
What are the muscles of the back?
- trapezius - teres major - latissimus dorsi - erector spinae
44
What does extrinsic muscles of the back mean?
- superifical | - have an attachment outwit the back
45
What are the 4 extrinsic muscles of the back?
- levator scapular - rhomboids - trapezius - Latissimus dorsi
46
What does intrinsic muscles of the back mean?
- lies entirely within the back
47
What is the erector spinae muscles composed of?
- iliocostalis - longissimus - spinalis
48
What erector spinae muscles lies most laterally?
- lliocostalis
49
Which receptor spinae muscle lies in close association with the ribs?
- liocostalis
50
Which is the longest erector spinae muscle?
- longissmius
51
Which erector spinae muscle is most medial and in close association with the occipital bone and spinous processes?
- spinalis
52
Other than the erector spine muscle name another intrinsic muscle of the back?
- transversospinalis
53
What is the nerve supply for the intrinsic muscles of the back?
- posterior rami branches
54
Name the 3 layers of the muscles of the anterolateral back from superficial to deep
- external oblique - internal oblique - transverse abdominis
55
Bilateral contraction of the erector spinae causes?
- flexion of the spine
56
Unilateral contraction of the erector spinae causes
- lateral flexion of the spine
57
Where does the spinal cord begin?
- foramen magnum and is continuous with medulla oblongata
58
Where does the spinal cord end?
- level L1/2
59
What is the cauda equina composed of?
- spinal nerve roots from L2 to coccygeal segment
60
What is the spinal cord covered by?
- bone - epidural fat - 3 layers of meninges
61
Where is the venous plexus of the spinal cord located?
- in the epidural fat
62
Where is the usual location of a epidural anaesthetic performed?
- L3/4
63
When must you not perform a lumbar puncture?
- in cases of raised ICP
64
Where is a spinal block injected?
- CSF in subarachnoid space
65
Where is an epidural block injected?
- into the epidural fat
66
Where is a caudal anaesthetic injected?
- into sacral hiatus
67
Describe a laminectomy
- type of surgery to remove part of the vertebral lamina | - gives access to spinal cord and roots
68
Symptoms of somatic general sensory pathology?
- pain - pins and needles - numbness
69
Symptoms of somatic motor pathology?
- stiffness - cramp - reduced tone
70
What dermatome is the badge patch area?
- C5
71
Why is peripheral nerve cutaneous innervation different to dermatome maps?
- overlap of dermatome areas
72
Name some peripheral nerves?
- femoral - radial - sural
73
What is the cutaneous innervation of the femoral nerve?
- L2, L3, L4
74
Where is the nerve point of the neck located?
- just above the midpoint of the posterior border of SCM
75
What nerve lies in the anatomical snuffbox
- radial nerve
76
Describe the route APs take when the anterior L2 femoral nerve area is stimulated
- Femoral area stimulated - APs conducted along L2 anterior ramus - Weave through lumbar plexus to L2 spinal nerve - Enter L2 posterior root then L2 posterior rootlets (sensory) - APs arrive at posterior horn of L2 spinal cord - APs conducted via an ascending tract to primary somatosensory cortex
77
Area of muscle supplied by the femoral nerve crosses how many true myotomes?
- 3 true myotomes
78
Clinical testing the shoulder abduction is what myotome?
- C5
79
Shoulder adduction is what myotome?
- C7
80
Which muscle is responsible for shoulder abduction
- deltoid
81
Flexion of the fingers involves what myotome?
C8
82
What 2 myotomes are mainly involved in hip flexion
L2, L3
83
Explain myotome route of L3
- APs generated in primary somatomotor cortex and descend corticospinal tract - APs reach L3 spinal cord anterior horn (motor) - Enter anterior rami or posterior rami (back muscles only) - APs arrive at neuromuscular junction to supply muscle
84
What myotomes are involved in hip joint extension
- L5, S1
85
What myotomes are involved in flexion of the knee joint
- L5, S1
86
Define a reflex?
- involuntary response to stimulus
87
What does monosynaptic reflex mean?
- only one synapse | - between posterior sensory and anterior motor
88
Explain the patellar reflex
o Patellar ligament tapped o Stretches quadriceps o Muscle stretch receptors initiate APs in anterior rami within femoral nerve o Sensory APs conduct to dorsal horn of L4 o Axons pass into anterior horn to synapse on LMNs (lower motor neuron) that supply quadriceps o APs conducted via LMN axon in femoral nerve to reach quadriceps NMJ o Muscle contracts to extend knee joint
89
Explain the effect of an upper motor neuron lesion
- spasticity
90
Explain the effect of a lower motor neuron lesion
- flaccidity
91
Which spinal nerve are you testing for the knee
- L4
92
Which spinal nerve are you testing for the ankle
S1
93
Which spinal nerve are you testing for the bicepes
C5
94
Define paralysis
- a muscle without a functioning motor nerve | - reduced tone
95
Define spasticity
- muscle has an intact and functioning motor nerve - descending controls from brain not working - increased tone
96
Define polyneuropathy
- more than one dermatome or named peripheral nerve involved
97
When describing a cranial nerve what must you discuss?
- the CNS part - intracranial - foramen - extracranial part
98
trochlear nerve has a __short/long__ intracranial path?
- long
99
hypoglossal nerve has a __short/long__ intracranial path?
- short
100
Which foramen does CN I exit?
- cribriform plate of ethmoid
101
What cranial nerves enter/exit via the superior orbital fissure?
- CN III - CN IV - CN V1 - CN VI
102
CN V2 leaves via what foramen?
- rotundum
103
CN V3 leaves via what foramen?
- ovale
104
What cranial nerves leave via the jugular foramen?
- CN IX, X , XI
105
What are the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve?
- Ophthalmic - Maxillary - mandibular
106
Which is the only cranial nerve to attach to the pons?
- trigeminal
107
explain the intracranial course of the trigeminal nerve?
- inferior edge of tentorium cerebelli
108
The motor division of the trigeminal nerve exits via which foramen?
- CN V3 | - Foramen ovale
109
main sensory function of the trigeminal nerve?
- sensory to the skin of face
110
CN V3 has motor control to which muscles?
- mastication ( masseter, temporalis, medial ptyergoid, lateral pterygoid) - tensor veli palanti - tensor tympani
111
Describe the CNS part of the facial nerve?
- pontomedullary junction
112
Where does the facial nerve exit and enter the cranial cavity by?
- internal acoustic meatus
113
Which branch of the facial nerve has parasympathetic function?
- greater petrosal
114
Which foramen does the main branch of the facial nerve exit via?
- stylomastoid foramen
115
Name the 5 main terminal branches of the facial nerve?
- temporal - zygomatic - buccal - mandibular - cervical
116
What mnemonic can be learnt to remember the 5 terminal branches of the facial nerve?
- to (temporal) - zanzibar (zygomatic) - by (buccal) - motor (mandibular) - car (cervical)
117
How do you clinically test the sensory division of the trigeminal nerve?
- close eyes - brush skin in each dermatome with fine tip of cotton wool - ask patient to say when they feel - compare both sides
118
When testing the sensory division of CN V1 where should you brush?
- upper eye lid - forehead - tip of nose
119
When testing the sensory division of CN V2 where should you brush?
- mid-cheek - lower eyelid - upper lip - nostril
120
When testing the sensory division of CN V3 where should you brush?
- lower cheek - lower lip - chin
121
How can you test the motor division of CN V?
- Ask to contract jaw | - open jaw against resistance
122
Clinically testing the facial nerve?
- frown - close eyes - smile - puff cheeks
123
Clinical testing of the vagus nerve?
- ask patient to say ah, uvula should go straight up (will deviate away from side of pathology) - swallow water
124
CNS connection. of the glossopharyngeal?
- medulla
125
Foramen of the glossopharyngeal?
- jugular foramen
126
Special sensory division of the glossopharyngeal?
- taste posterior 1/3rd tongue
127
Explain the path of the recurrent laryngeal?
- right side under subclavian | - left side under arch of aorta
128
Which foramen does the vagus nerve exit?
- jugular foramen
129
CNS connection of CN XI
- Spinal accessory | - on spinal cord
130
Explain the intracranial course of CN XI
- Spinal cord - upwards through foramen magnum - exits via jugular foramen
131
Clinical testing of spinal accessory
- sternocleidomastoid (turn head look up) | - trapezius (shrug shoulder)
132
CNS connection of the hypoglossal nerve
- pyramids of medulla
133
The hypoglossal canal is located on which bone?
- occipital
134
CLinical testing of hypoglossal nerve?
- tongue straight out | - tongue will point to side of pathology
135
What are the 5 layers of the scalp?
- skin - connective tissue - aponeurosis - loose connective tissue - pericranium
136
Where do most of the arteries of the scalp live?
- in the connective tissue
137
What is the 2 main arteries supplying the scalp?
- external carotid | - ophthalmic artery
138
What are skull sutures?
- fibrous joints | - help prevent skull fractures from spreading
139
What is the pterion composed of?
- frontal - parietal - temporal - sphenoid bone
140
What artery lies deep to the pterion?
- middle meningeal artery
141
What is the thinnest region of the skull?
- pterion
142
What are the names of the 2 layers of the dura in the cranial cavity?
- external periosteal | - internal meningeal layer
143
What is tentorium cerebelli?
- dura mater over the cerebellum | - attaches to the ridges of the petrous temporal bone
144
What is the majority of the dura mater innervated by?
- CN V
145
What is the falx cerebri?
- fold of dura - midline structure - separates right and left hemispheres
146
What are the dural venous sinuses?
- endothelial lined gaps between periosteal and meningeal dura - cerebral veins empty here
147
Where does the dural venous sinuses drain ultimately?
- internal jugular vein
148
What is the danger triangle of the face?
- facial vein and sinuses | - spread of infection into cranial cavity
149
2 main arteries to the brain
- internal carotid artery | - vertebral artery
150
What does the circle of willis lie close to?
- midbrain - pituitary stalk - optic chiasma
151
Which meninges does the circle of willis lie in?
- subarachnoid space | - bathed in CSF
152
Posterior cerebral artery is a branch of what artery?
- vertebral artery
153
Anterior and middle cerebral arteries are branches of what artery?-
- internal carotid artery
154
What is hydrocephalus?
- increased csf | - communicating or obstructive
155
causes of hydrocephalus?
- excessive production - obstruction to flow - inadequate resorption
156
Treatment of hydrocephalus?
- ventricular peritoneal shunt | - into peritoneal cavity
157
3 types of cranial haemorrhages?
- extradural (epidural) - subdural - subarachnoid
158
Causes of extradural hamerrhage?
- between bone and dura | - trauma to pterion
159
Causes of subdural hameorrhage
- falls in elderly
160
Causes of subarachnoid haemorrhage?
- rupture of circle of willis
161
2 main groups of herniation of the brain?
- supratentorial | - infratentorial
162
A blown pupil may be a sign of what type of brain herniation?
- uncal herniation | supratentorial