Anatomy 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How many vertebra are in the

  • cervical
  • thoracic
  • lumbar
  • sacral
  • coccygeal region
A
  • cervical = 7
  • thoracic = 12
  • lumbar = 5
  • sacral = 1 fused (5)
  • coccygeal region = 1 fused (4)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what area of the spine are primary and secondary curves

A

Primary - Kyphosis
Secondary - Lordosis

Primary
- thoracic spine

Secondary

  • Lordosis
  • Cervical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe the features of the cervical spine

A
  • Triangular cell body
  • bifid spinous process
  • Transverse foramina – holes in the transverse processes. They give passage to the vertebral artery, vein and sympathetic nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe the features of the thoracic spine

A
  • vertebral body is heart shaped
  • demi facets and costal facets
  • spinous process is long, has transverse spinous processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the features of lumbar

A
  • kidney shaped vertebral body
  • triangular shaped vertebral foramen
  • articulating facets become interlocked, superior point medially and inferior point laterally
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe the features of sacral and coccygeal

A
  • The sacrum is a collection of five fused vertebrae. It is described as an inverted triangle, with the apex pointing inferiorly.
  • On the lateral walls of the sacrum are facets for articulation with the pelvis at the sacro-iliac joints.
  • The coccyx is a small bone which articulates with the apex of the sacrum.
  • It is recognised by its lack of vertebral arches. Due to the lack of vertebral arches, there is no vertebral cana
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is C1 called and describe it

A

atlas

  • bifid spinous process
  • no vertebral body
  • posterior and anterior arch instead
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is C2 called

A

axis

  • Dens
  • helps form the synovial pivot joint with rotation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what can C7 be used for

A

easily palpable, landmark that can be identified for counting the other vertebrae from this point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the clinical application of T7

A

Xiphoid, tip of the scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the clinical application of L1

A

Conus medullaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the clinical application of L3

A

aorta bifurcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the clinical application of L4

A

iliac crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of joints are in the vertebral column

A
  1. Between vertebral bodies = cartilaginous joint

2. between articular facets = synovial plane joint that is interlocking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a Jefferson fracture associated with

A

This type of fracture is associated with an impact or load on the back of the head

  • force compresses anteriorly and posteriorly and breaks the weakest point in the vertebra
  • breaks C1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a hangman’s fracture

A
  • this is a result of hyperextension of the head on the neck breaking the dens
  • severe injuries to the body of the C2 vertebra is displaced anteriorly with respect to C3 this is likely to injure the spinal cord and/or brainstem
  • bhyoid bone in the neck can be damaged as well
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why does osteoporosis affect the vertebral bodies

A

Osteoporosis affects the vertebral bodies as they have a high proportion of trabeculae bone compared to cortical bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what happens in osteoporosis

A

There is net loss of bone and as a result the quality of the remaining bone is compromised and reduced
- decrease in the density of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the most important areas affected by osteoporosis

A

the most affected areas are the neck of the femur (see lower limb) and the bodies of the vertebrae, the metacarpal and the radius as these are the weight bearing parts of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is osteoporosis characterised by in vertebral bodies

A

For the vertebral bodies early to moderate osteoporosis is characterised by vertical striation of the vertebral bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what happens to the pattern of osteoporosis in the later stages

A

In later stages of osteoporosis the striated pattern is lost as more spongy (trabeculae) bone is lost. There is uniform radiolucency in the body of the vertebrae, because of the relative sparing of the cortical bone it may appear more prominent and a white rim is seen around the vertebral bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens to the bone in middle age

A
  • there is an overall decrease in bone density and strengthen
  • the articular surface bows inwards and intervertebral disc becomes increasingly convex to fit
  • loss of height with age
  • loss of disc space
  • vertebral bodies changing shape result in an increase in the compressive forces at the periphery of the vertebral bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what happens to the bone in late stage osteoporosis

A
  • the vertebral bodies especially in the thoracic region collapse and become excessive in their hypothesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the name of the type of fracture produced by osteoporosis in the vertebral column

A

Vertebral compression fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is lumbar spinal stenosis

A
  • this is a narrowing of the vertebral foramen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What can cause a lumbar spinal stenosis

A
  • genetic conditions

- age related changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

as the spinal cord goes down

A
  • the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar region increase in size but he intervertebral foramina decrease in size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the surgical treatment of a lumbar stenosis

A
  • decompressive laminectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does spinal enthsopathy happen

A
  • paraspinal ligaments undergo degeneration that is secondary to attrition
  • they then ossify
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

why is the left side of the spine not involved in DISH

A

For unknown reasons the left side of the spine is spared or less involved which might have to do with the pulsating aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does DISH stand for

A

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the difference between DISH and analysing spondylitis

A

Unlike anklyosing spondylitis DISH does not involve the sacroiliac joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the elements of a clinical examination of a spine

A
  • gait
  • alignment
  • posture
  • skin
  • palpate bony structures
  • palpate soft tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the positive and negative about the upper limb

A

positive is that it is designed for movement

negative is that is has less stability therefore it is more prone to dislocations of the joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the only joint that holds the upper limb onto the axial skeleton

A
  • sternoclavicular joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how can clavicles have fractures

A
  • Clavicle is designed for strength but you can either have fractures by direct or indirect force applied to it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is one of the most commonest bone to fracture

A

clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what happens to the clavicle when it ia fractured

A

After the fracture the actions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle pulls the medial fragment upwards. The tapezius muscle is unable to hold the lateral fragment up because of the weight of arm and gravity, thus the shoulder drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the glenohumeral joint between

A

the glenoid fossa of the scapula and head of the humorous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the most common joint to dislocate

A
  • the gelonhuemral joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what dislocation is most common in the glenohumeral joint

A
  • the anterior dislocation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what does a dislocation of a glenohumeral joint look like

A
  • loss of the rounded profile of the shoulder as the arm is dragged inferiorly
43
Q

Why are anterior dislocations of the glenohumeral joints more common

A

less muscles in the front?

44
Q

what nerve can be injured in the glenohumeral joint

A
  • the axillary nerve

- this is because of the close relationship to they nferior part of the joint capsule

45
Q

what is paralysed in an axially nerve injury

A
  • paralysis of the deltoid muscle and loss of sensation in a small area of skin covering the deletion (regimental patch)
46
Q

what is the consequence of paralysis of the deltoid on movements of the arm

A
  • Resulting in a loss of shoulder abduction beyond 15 degrees
47
Q

name the 4 rotator cuffs

A

supraspinatus muscle

the infraspinatus muscle

teres minor muscle

the subscapularis muscle.

48
Q

what can cause rotator cuff injuries

A
  • repetitive use of the upper limb above the horizontal level
49
Q

what is the most common rotator cuff muscle to be damaged

A
  • the surpaspinatus tendon is the most common

- this is especially due to it passing under the acromion of the scapula where it can be impinged

50
Q

where do the majority of fractures of humerus take place

A
  • proximal end and around the surgical neck

- especially common in older patients with osteoporosis

51
Q

what results from a fall on the acromion

A
  • avulsions fractures of the greater tubercle are often seen in middle aged and older people and are the result of falls of on the acromion
52
Q

what causes a fracture to the mid shaft

A

direct force

53
Q

what causes supracondylar and intercondylar fractures

A
  • result of falling on a flexed elbow
54
Q

what causes a Avulsion fractures of the medial epicondyle

A

fall on the outstretched arm with the elbow forced into valgus

fall on the point of the elbow with the olecranon driving the medial condyle proximally and medially

Finally pure avulsion fracture due to violent contraction of the flexor and pronator muscles (3), which attach to the medial epicondyle, this can occur with arm wrestling!

55
Q

what can cause a fracture dislocation of the proximal humorous in children

A
  • in children the epiphyseal growth plates are open
  • a fracture dislocation of the proximal humours can officer as the joint capsule of the glenohumeral joint is reinforced by rotator cuff muscle tendons and these are stronger than the epiphyseal growth plate
56
Q

what nerves are damaged in fracture of the humerus

A

radial nerve

57
Q

what three joints make up the elbow joint

A

the humero-ulnar, the humero-radial and the proximal radio-ulnar joints.

58
Q

what can cause a posterior dislocation of the elbow joint

A

posterior dislocation of the elbow joint can result from hyperextension or a blow that drives the ulna posteriorly and sometimes laterally as well.

The ulnar collateral ligmanet is often torn and an associated fracture of the head of the radius coronoid process or olecranon process of the ulna may occur.

59
Q

What nerves and blood vessels can be damaged with a posterior dislocation of the elbow joint

A

brachial artery

ulnar and median nerves

60
Q

why is a subluxations and dislocation of the radial head normally seen in infants

A

Subluxation and dislocation of the radial head is normally seen in infants due to the relative small size of the radial head compared to anular ligament into which it fits.

61
Q

what is the most common fracture in the under 45s

A

fracture of the distal radius commonly called a ‘Colles’ fracture
- presents with the dinner fork deformity

62
Q

What causes fracture of the distal radius/colles fracture

A

This is usually the result of falls on an outstretched hand that is pronated and extended.

63
Q

what other fracture can be caused by a fall on the outstretched hand that is pronated and extended

A
  • scaphoid

- as well as distal radius/colles fracture

64
Q

what is the most common carpal fracture

A

Scaphoid

65
Q

why is a scaphoid fracture clinically relevant

A
  • It is clinically relevant because of the blood supply to the scaphoid can become compromised and result in avascular necrosis.
  • There is retrograde blood supply to the proximal pole, so that while the distal pole usually heals the proximal pole may lose its blood supply and die
66
Q

why might a scaphoid fracture go undiagnosed

A

The complex anatomy of the wrist makes accurate diagnosis challenging and in many cases

67
Q

What is the lower limb designed fro

A

The lower limb is designed for stability, so dislocations are less common than for the upper limb

68
Q

where does the lower limb stand

A

The lower limb starts with the pelvis which via the sacroiliac joint is the attachment to the axial skeleton

69
Q

what is the lower limbs attachment to the axial skeleton

A

sacroiliac joint

70
Q

what kind of joint is the pubic symphysis

A

fibrocartilage joint

71
Q

what muscle group uses the pelvis as an attachment point

A

The hamstrings (and rectus femoris muscle of the quadriceps group)

72
Q

where do the hamstrings attach

A

The hamstrings attach to ischial tuberosity and this small part of bone with a piece of the tendon can be torn away from the main part of the pelvis.
- These fractures occur at the apophyses (bony projections that lack secondary ossification centres)

73
Q

what bony prominence does there rectus femoris attach to

A

anterior inferior iliac spine

74
Q

what does the fractures experienced in the femur depend on

A

The type of fracture is age and sex related

75
Q

why is the neck of the femur most frequently fractured

A
  • because it is the narrowest and weakest part of the bone
  • lies at a marked angle to the line weight bearing (pull of gravity)
  • become more common with increasing age as the neck fo the femur has a high proportion of trabecular bone and is prone to developing osteoporosis fractures
  • usually intracapsuale fracture
76
Q

what is the presentation of a femur neck fracture

A

he limb is usually in external rotation and there is a shortening of the limb.

77
Q

what is shentons line

A

line continues from the inferior border of the femoral neck to the inferior border of the pubic ramus. If there is any interruption in the line then this is suggestive of an abnormal position of the femoral head.

78
Q

what is the major problem to a femur neck fracture

A

The major clinical problem is that they often disrupt the blood supply to the head of the femur, most of the blood supply to the head and neck of the femur is via the medial circumflex artery.

  • the reticular arteries that arise from this are often torn as well
  • in servere fractures the only blood supply is via the artery in the ligament of the head of the femur
  • can cause avascular necrosis of the head of the femur
79
Q

why is dislocation of the femoral head uncommon

A

This is uncommon because of the structural adaptations of the hip joint that provide stability

80
Q

what can cause dislocation of femoral head

A

, it can arise from road traffic accidents where the person is sat down in the car and their flexed knee hits the dashboard and forces the femoral head posteriorly

81
Q

What is the most common type of dislocation of femoral head

A

posterior

82
Q

describe the presentation of a dislocation of the femoral head

A

The limb becomes shortened and has medial rotation

83
Q

what happens to the joint capsule in the dislocation of the femoral head

A

The joint capsule ruptures and out of the acetabulum

84
Q

what nerve runs posterior to the hip joint and may be damaged by a posterior dislocation of femur

A

sciatic nerve

85
Q

what causes a femoral shaft fracture

A

These again require high-energy trauma to take place and are often associated with other injuries and are a significant source of blood loss and release of fat emboli.

86
Q

What is a problem with femoral shaft fracture

A

The large muscles in the thigh can go into spasm and contract displacing the fragments.

87
Q

What is the largest sesamoid bone in the body

A

Patella

88
Q

what type of bone is the patella

A

sesamoid

89
Q

How can the patella be fractured

A

Direct
- Direct forces are usually falls.

Indirect
- Indirect are via the fact that is embedded in the quadriceps tendon/ligament and the pull of the muscles can cause a fracture and also displacement of the fragments.

90
Q

describe a knee dislocation

A

Knee dislocations are rare and again require high energy trauma

  • result in multiple ligament and other soft tissue injuries
  • high incidence of neurovascular problems
91
Q

What can cause fractures to the tibia

A

Fractures to the tibia of the inferior third are common in people who take long hikes before they are conditioned to the activity.

The strain may fracture the anterior cortex of the tibia.

92
Q

what can cause indirect trauma to the tibial shaft

A

Indirect trauma applied to the tibial shaft when the bone turns with the foot during a fall may produce a fracture

93
Q

what nerve can be damaged by tibia fracture

A

tibial nerve

94
Q

What is compartment syndrome and why does it occur?

A

Compartment syndrome describes increased pressure within a muscle compartment of the arm or leg. It is most often due to injury, such as fracture, that causes bleeding in a muscle, which then causes increased pressure in the muscle

95
Q

What is a major complication to tibial shaft fracture

A

compartment syndrome

96
Q

Where do fractures of the fibula commonly occur

A

Fractures of the fibula commonly occur 2-6 cm proximal to the distal end of the lateral malleolus and are often associated with fracture dislocations of the ankle.

97
Q

describe the difference between one medial or lateral malleoli fracture and two fractures

A

If only one malleoli is fractured then it is usually stable but bimalleoli is unstable and an added complication is the fracture dislocation of the talo-crual joint (ankle).

98
Q

what is more common a medial or lateral malleoli fracture

A

Lateral malleoli fractures are more common than medial malleoli fractures

99
Q

what causes a medial or lateral malleoli fracture

A

The mechanism of the injury is similar to sprained ankles in that the foot is excessively inverted and the ligaments tear on the lateral side and while the fibula has no role in weight-bearing at the knee it does play a role in the ankle joint and it’s stability.

100
Q

what is plantar fasciitis

A

Plantar fasciitis is inflammation of the plantar fascia and is often the result of overuse
It causes pain on the plantar surface of the foot and heel.

101
Q

What can cause plantar fasciitis

A

If a calcaneal spur protrudes from the medial tubercle then the plantar fascia will rub and be irritated by this, as it is the point of attachment.

102
Q

what is osteoarthritis

A

inflammation t the joints

103
Q

describe how the vertebrae is affected by osteoarthritis

A

Get bone spurring, they shortern or decrease the space between the vertebral bodies, if this happens you get inflammation in that area

Also affects the articular and synovial joints between the articulating facets

Ligaments begin to ossify and in worse case scenario you get complete ossification of the ligaments that surround the vertebra

If the bone spurs extend into the open space you get compression of the nerves that exit the vertebral column