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Midterms > Anaphy > Flashcards

Anaphy Flashcards

1
Q

Muscular System

A
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2
Q

Identify the property of muscle:
The ability of muscle to shorten forcefully, or contract

A

Contractility

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3
Q

Identify the property of muscle:
The capacity of muscle to respond to a stimulus

A

Excitability

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4
Q

Identify the property of muscle:
The ability to be stretched beyond its normal resting length and still be able to contract

A

Extensibility

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5
Q

Identify the property of muscle:
The ability of the muscle to recoil to its original resting length after it has been stretched

A

Elasticity

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6
Q

Identify the type of muscle:
- attached to bones
- striated; transverse bands
- voluntary controlled

A

Skeletal

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7
Q

Identify the property of muscle:
- located in the heart
- striated
-involuntary controlled

A

Cardiac

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8
Q

Identify the property of muscle:
- located in blood vessels, hollow organs
- non - striated; visceral

A

Smooth

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9
Q

Each skeletal muscle is surrounded by a connective tissue sheath called the

A

Epimysium

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10
Q

A skeletal muscle is subdivided into groups of muscle cells called

A

Fascicles

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11
Q

Each fascicle is surrounded by a connective tissue covering, termed the

A

Perimysium

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12
Q

Each skeletal muscle cell (fiber) is surrounded by a connective tissue
covering, termed the

A

Endomysium

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13
Q
  • is a single cylindrical cell, with several nuclei located at
    its periphery
  • range in length 1 cm to 30 cm and are generally 0.15mm in diameter
A

Muscle fiber

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14
Q

Another word for cell membrane that has many tubelike inward folds

A

Sarcolemma

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15
Q

In Sarcolemma this is the tubelike inward folds also known as transverse tubules

A

T tubules

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16
Q

The T tubules are associated with enlarged portions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum called the

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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17
Q

The enlarged portions of of muscle fiber structure are called

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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18
Q

T tubules connect the sarcolemma to the terminal cisternae to form a

A

Muscle triad

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19
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum has a relatively high concentration of ____ which plays a major role in muscle contraction

A

CA+2

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20
Q
  • The cytoplasm of a muscle fiber is called the _____ which contains many bundles of protein filaments
A

Sarcoplasm

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21
Q

Bundles of protein filaments are called

A

Myofibrils

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22
Q

Myofibrils consist of the ____, -______, _______

A

Myofilaments, actin, and myosin

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23
Q

Is the basic structural and functional unit of a skeletal
muscle because it is the smallest portion of a skeletal muscle capable of contracting

A

Sarcomere

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24
Q

Form a network of protein fibers that both serve as an anchor for
actin myofilaments and separate one sarcomere from the next

A

Z disks

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25
Q

A sarcomere extends from one ____ to the next

A

Z disk

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26
Q

Light bands, consist only of actin, and are called _______ that extends
toward the center of the sarcomere to the ends of the myosin myofilaments

A

I bands

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27
Q

Dark staining bands are called ______, , that extend the length of the myosin myofilaments

A

A bands

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28
Q

Actin and myosin myofilaments overlap for some distance on both ends of the A band; this overlap causes the ______

A

contraction

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29
Q

Actin myofilaments are made up of three components: ______, ______, ______

A

Actin, troponin, and tropomyosin

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30
Q

This molecules have binding sites for Ca2+

A

Troponin

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31
Q

This filaments block the myosin myofilament binding sites on the actin myofilaments

A

Tropomyosin

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32
Q

They have ATP binding sites, ATPase and attachment spots for
actin

A

Myosin heads

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33
Q

The electrical charge difference across the cell membrane of an
unstimulated cell is called the

A

Resting membrane potential

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34
Q

The resting membrane potential is due to the inside of the membrane being ______ charged in comparison to the outside of the membrane
being _______ charged

A

negatively, positively

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35
Q

Are due to the membrane having gated channels

A

Action potentials

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36
Q

The resting membrane potential exists because of

A
  • The concentration of K+ being higher on the inside of the cell membrane and the
    concentration of Na+ being higher on the outside
  • The presence of many negatively charged molecules, such as proteins, inside the
    cell that are too large to exit the cell
  • The presence of leak protein channels in the membrane that are more permeable to
    K+ than it is to Na+
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37
Q

In order to maintain the resting membrane potential, the sodium potassium pump recreates the ion gradient by pumping _____ out of the cell and ___ into the cell

A

Na+, K+

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38
Q

To initiate a muscle contraction, the ______ must be changed to _______

A

resting membrane potential, action potential

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39
Q

This increase in positive charge inside the cell membrane is called

A

Depolarization

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40
Q

If the depolarization changes the membrane potential to a value called ___, an action potential is triggered

A

Threshold

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41
Q

Opening of gated K+ channels starts ______ of the cell membrane

A

Repolarization

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42
Q

Enumerate the steps of Action potential

A
  1. Resting membrane potential
  2. Depolarization
  3. Repolarization
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43
Q

A _____ neuron is a nerve cell stimulates muscle cells

A

Motor

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44
Q

is a synapse where a the fiber of a nerve connects with a muscle fiber

A

Neuromuscular

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45
Q

refers to the cell-to-cell junction between a nerve cell and
either another nerve cell or an effector cell, such as in a muscle or a gland

A

Synapse

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46
Q

is a group of muscle fibers that a motor neuron stimulates

A

Motor unit

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47
Q

is the end of a neuron cell axon fiber

A

Presynaptic terminal

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48
Q

is the space between the presynaptic terminal and
postsynaptic membrane

A

Synaptic cleft

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49
Q

is the muscle fiber membrane

A

Postsynaptic membrane

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50
Q

is a vesicle in the presynaptic terminal that stores
and releases neurotransmitter chemicals

A

Synaptic vesicle

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51
Q

are chemicals that stimulate or inhibit postsynaptic
cells

A

Neurotransmitters

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52
Q

is the neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscles

A

Acetylcholine

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53
Q

Enumerate the steps of Muscle Contraction

A
  1. An action potential
    travels down motor
    neuron to presynaptic
    terminal causing Ca2+
    channels to open
  2. Ca2+ causes synaptic
    vesicles to release
    acetylcholine into
    synaptic cleft
  3. Acetylcholine binds to
    receptor sites on Na+
    channels, Na+ channels
    open, and Na+ rushes into
    postsynaptic terminal
    (depolarization)
  4. Na+ causes sarcolemma
    and t-tubules to increase
    the permeability of
    sarcoplasmic reticulum
    which releases stored
    calcium
  5. Ca2+ binds to
    troponin which is
    attached to actin
  6. Ca2+ binding to
    troponin causes
    tropomyosin to
    move exposing
    attachment sites for
    myosin
  7. Myosin heads bind to
    actin
  8. ATP is released from
    myosin heads and heads
    bend toward center of
    sarcomere
  9. Bending forces actin to
    slide over myosin
  10. Acetylcholinesterase
    (enzyme breaks down
    acetylcholine) is
    released, Na+ channels
    close, and muscle
    contraction stops
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54
Q
  • Energy for muscle contractions is supplied by this
  • stored in myosin heads
  • help form cross-bridge formation between myosin and actin
A

ATP

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55
Q

Will occur when a person dies and no ATP is available to release cross-bridges

A

Rigor mortis

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56
Q

Is a single contraction of a muscle fiber in response to a stimulus

A

Muscle twitch

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57
Q

Enumerate the 3 phases of muscle twitch

A

Latent phase, contraction phase, and relaxation phase

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58
Q

Muscle twitch phase:
is the time between the application of a stimulus and the beginning of contraction

A

Latent phase

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59
Q

Muscle twitch phase:
is the time during which the muscle contracts

A

Contraction phase

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60
Q

Muscle twitch phase:
is the time during which the
muscle relaxes

A

Relaxation phase

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61
Q

In ______, individual muscles contract more forcefully

A

Summation

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62
Q

is a sustained contraction that occurs when the frequency of
stimulation is so rapid that no relaxation occurs

A

Tetanus

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63
Q

is the stimulation of several motor units

A

Recruitment

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64
Q

Twitch fiber:
- contract slowly
- fatigue slowly
- have a considerable amount of myoglobin
- use aerobic respiration
- are dark in color
- used by long distance runners

A

Slow twitch fibers

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65
Q

Twitch fiber:
- contract quickly
- fatigue quickly
- use anaerobic respiration
- energy from glycogen
- light color
- used by sprinters

A

Fast twitch fibers

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66
Q

Energy comes from either ____with O2 or_____ without O2

A

aerobic, anaerobic

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67
Q

ATP is derived from 4 processes in skeletal muscle which are?

A
  • Aerobic production of ATP during most exercise and normal conditions.
  • Anaerobic production of ATP during intensive short-term work
  • Conversion of a molecule called creatine phosphate to ATP
  • Conversion of two ADP to one ATP and one AMP (adenosine monophosphate) during heavy
    exercise
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68
Q

Mechanisms of fatigue include:

A
  • Acidosis and ATP depletion due to either an increased ATP consumption or a decreased ATP production
  • Oxidative stress, which is characterized by the buildup of excess reactive oxygen species (ROS; free
    radicals)
  • Local inflammatory reactions
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69
Q

Type of muscle contraction:
Has an increase in muscle tension, but no change in length

A

Isometric contraction

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70
Q

Type of muscle contraction:
Has a change in muscle length with no change in tension

A

Isotonic contraction

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71
Q

Type of muscle contraction:
are isotonic contractions in which muscle tension increases as
the muscle shortens

A

Concentric contractions

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72
Q

Type of muscle contraction:
are isotonic contractions in which tension is maintained in a
muscle, but the opposing resistance causes the muscle to lengthen

A

Eccentric contractions

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73
Q
  • Is the constant tension produced by body muscles over long
    periods of time
  • is responsible for keeping the back and legs straight, the head in an upright position, and the abdomen from bulging
A

Muscle tone

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74
Q

Are non-striated small, spindle-shaped muscle cells,
usually with one nucleus per cell

A

Smooth muscle cells

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75
Q
  • are long, striated, and branching, with usually only one
    nucleus per cell
  • is striated as a result of the sarcomere arrangement
  • contraction is autorhythmic
A

Cardiac Muscle

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76
Q

Cardiac muscle cells are connected to one another by specialized structures
that include desmosomes and gap junctions called

A

Intercalated disks

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77
Q

Connects skeletal muscle to bone

A

Tendon

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78
Q

Are broad, sheetlike tendons

A

Aponeuroses

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79
Q

is a band of connective tissue that holds down the tendons at each wrist and ankle

A

Retinaculum

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80
Q

Skeletal muscle attachments have an origin and an insertion, with the ____ being the attachment at the least mobile location

A

origin

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81
Q

The ______ is the end of the muscle attached to the bone undergoing the greatest movement

A

Insertion

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82
Q

The part of the muscle between the origin and the insertion is the

A

Belly

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83
Q

A group of muscles working together are called

A

Agonists

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84
Q

A muscle or group of muscles that oppose muscle actions are termed

A

Antagonists

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85
Q

A muscle that crosses on the anterior side of a joint produces

A

Flexion

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86
Q

A muscle that crosses on the posterior side of a joint produces

A

Extension

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87
Q

A muscle that crosses on the lateral side of a joint produces

A

Abduction

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88
Q

A muscle that crosses on the medial side of a joint produces

A

Adduction

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89
Q

Movement: touches tip of another finger

A

Opposition

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90
Q

Muscles are named according to:

A
  1. Location
  2. Size
  3. Shape
  4. Orientation of fascicles
  5. Origin and insertion
  6. Number of heads
  7. Function
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91
Q

Fan- shaped muscle that covers parts of the temporal, frontal, and parietal bones

A

Temporalis

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92
Q

Powerful muscle that covers lateral aspect of mandibular ramus

A

Masseter

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93
Q

Deep two=headed muscle that runs along internal surface of mandible and is largely concealed by that bone

A

Medial pterygoid

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94
Q

Deep two-headed muscle; lies superior to medial pterygoid muscle

A

Lateral pterygoid

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95
Q

Elevate ribs for inspiration

A

External intercostals

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96
Q

Depress ribs during forced expiration

A

Internal intercostals

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97
Q

Moves during quiet breathing

A

Diaphragm

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98
Q
  • center of abdomen
  • compresses abdomen
A

Rectus abdominis

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99
Q
  • sides of abdomen
  • compresses abdomen
A

External abdominal oblique

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100
Q

Compresses abdomen (2)

A

Internal abdominal oblique and Transverse abdominis

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101
Q

Integration and control systems (Special Senses)

A
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102
Q

Traditional smell, taste, sight, and hearing

A

Special Senses

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103
Q

Either large, complex sensory organs or localized clusters of receptors

A

Special sense receptors

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104
Q

The accessory structures of the eye include what?

A

extrinsic eye muscles, eyelids, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus

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105
Q

Anteriorly the eyes are protected by the

A

Eyelids

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106
Q

The eyelids meet at the medial and lateral corners of the eye which are

A

Medial commisure and Lateral commisure

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107
Q

Projecting from the border of each eyelid are the

A

Eyelashes

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108
Q

Modified sebaceous glands associated with the eyelid edges are the

A

Tarsal glands

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109
Q

Modified sweat glands that lie between the eyelashes

A

Ciliary glands

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110
Q

A delicate membrane that lines the eyelid and covers part of the outer surface of the eyeball that secretes mucus

A

Conjunctiva

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111
Q

Inflammation of the conjunctiva results in reddened, irritated eyes

A

Conjunctivitis

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112
Q

Its infectious form caused by bacteria or viruses, is highly contagious

A

Pinkeye

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113
Q

Consist of the lacrimal gland and a number of ducts that drain lacrimal secretions into the nasal cavity

A

Lacrimal apparatus

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114
Q

Located above the lateral end of each eye that continually release a dilute salt solution onto the anterior surface of the eyeball through several small ducts

A

Lacrimal glands

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115
Q

The tears flush across the eyeball medially into the

A

lacrimal sac

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116
Q

After going through the lacrimal sac the eyeball will go into this which empties into the inferior meatus of the nasal cavity

A

Nasolacrimal duct

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117
Q

Enzyme that destroys bacteria

A

lysozyme

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118
Q

What muscle produce gross eye movements and make it possible for the eyes to follow a moving object

A

Extrinsic eye muscles

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119
Q

How many extrinsic eye muscle are attached to the outer surface of each eye.

A

6

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120
Q

The eyeball has walls that is composed of 3 ____ and its interior is filed with fluids called _____

A

tunics and humors

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121
Q

The outermost layer of the eye is called

A

fibrous layer

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122
Q

The fibrous layer consists of the protective ____ is seen anteriorly as the white of the eye

A

Sclera

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123
Q

The fibrous layer consists of the transparent ___ which is the central anterior portion “window” which light enters the eye

A

cornea

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124
Q

The middle layer of the eye

A

vascular layer

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125
Q

The most posterior part of the vascular layer that is a blood-rich nutritive tunic that contains a dark pigment

A

Choroid

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126
Q

Anterior part of the vascular layer with two smooth muscle structures

A

Ciliary body

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127
Q

Part of the vascular layer which is a suspensory ligament called the

A

ciliary zonule

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128
Q

Part of the vascular layer with pigment and a rounded opening through which light passes

A

iris and pupil

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129
Q

Innermost layer of the eye

A

Sensory layer

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130
Q

Part of the sensory layer which is the delicate two-layered ___ which extends anteriorly only to the ciliary body

A

retina

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131
Q

The transparent inner neutral layer of the retina contains millions of receptor cells, the rods, and cones, which are called

A

photoreceptors

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132
Q

Electrical signals pass from the photoreceptors via two neuron chain

A

Bipolar cells and Ganglion cells

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133
Q

The photoreceptor cells are distributed over the entire retina, except where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball; this site is called the. There are no photoreceptors here

A

optic disc

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134
Q

A tiny pit that contains only cones lateral to each blind spot. This is the area of greatest visual activity

A

Fovea centralis

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135
Q

Crystal-like structure that bends light rays so they focus on the retina

A

Lens

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136
Q

If light is not focused on the lens what eye problems may occur?

A

Myopia, hyperopia, or astigmatism

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137
Q

The anterior chamber which is similar to blood plasma. Is reabsorbed into the scleral venous sinus

A

Aqueous humor

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138
Q

The posterior chamber contains this gel-like fluid posterior to lens

A

Vitreous humor

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139
Q

Pathway of light through the eye

A
  1. Cornea
  2. aqueous humor
  3. pupil
  4. lens
  5. vitreous humor
  6. retina
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140
Q

The shape of the lens is adjusted during the process of

A

Accommodation

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141
Q

The site where medial fibers from each eye cross over to the opposite side of the brain

A

Optic chiasma

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142
Q

Pathway of nerve impulses from the retina steps

A
  1. optic nerve
  2. optic chiasma
  3. optic tract
  4. thalamus
  5. optic radiation
  6. visual cortex
  7. occipital lobe of brain
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143
Q

3 Eye reflexes

A

Eye reflexes include the photo pupillary reflex, accommodation pupillary reflex, and convergence

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144
Q

Respond to physical movement in order to detect a stimulus and send an impulse

A

Mechanoreceptors

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145
Q

The external ear includes: which is involved with sound transmission only

A
  1. Auricle
  2. External acoustic meatus
  3. Tympanic membrane
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146
Q

Part of the external ear that secretes waxy cerumen to protect the ear canal

A

Ceruminous glands

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147
Q

The middle ear cavity includes: which is involves with sound transmission only

A
  1. Ossicles
  2. Pharyngotympanic tube
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148
Q

Transmit and amplify vibratory motion from the eardrum to the oval window

A

Auditory ossicles

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149
Q

Allows pressure to be equalized on both sides of the eardrum

A

Pharyngotympanic tube

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150
Q

Internal ear consists of: which is involves in both hearing and equilibrium

A
  1. Bony labyrinth
  2. cochlea vestibule
  3. semicircular canals
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151
Q

Bony labyrinth contains _____; membrane labyrinth contains ______

A

Perilymph, Endolymph

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152
Q

In the cochlear duct, the spiral organ of Corti has hearing receptors called. They are anchored to the basilar membrane, and are embedded in a tectorial membrane

A

hair cells

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153
Q

Equilibrium receptors in inner ear that respond to head movements with respect to the pull of gravity

A

Vestibular apparatus

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154
Q

Report on head movements when body is not moving

A

Static equilibrium

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155
Q

Receptors in the vestibule are called

A

maculae

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156
Q

Are embedded on the surface of otolithic membrane which move in response to body movement with respect of pull of gravity

A

Otoliths

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157
Q

Report on rotational movements of the head

A

Dynamic equilibrium

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158
Q

Receptors in the ampullae of the semicircular canals are called

A

Crista ampullaris

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159
Q

The tufts of hair cells with hair embedded in gel cap in Crista

A

Cupula

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160
Q

Any degree of hearing loss

A

Deafness

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161
Q

Something interferes with transmission of sound waves

A

Conduction deafness

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162
Q

Fusion of the middle ear ossicles, resulting in conduction deafness

A

Otosclerosis

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163
Q

Something interferes with receptors or neural transmission of impulses to the brain

A

Sensorineural deafness

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164
Q

Result in nausea, dizziness, problems maintaining balance

A

Equilibrium problems

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165
Q

Results in progressive deafness and vertigo

A

Meiniere’s syndrome

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166
Q

Respond to dissolved chemicals

A

Chemoreceptors

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167
Q

Located in the superior aspect of each nasal cavity

A

Olfactory receptors

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168
Q

Closely linked to the limbic system; odors stimulate the recall of memories and arouse emotional responses

A

Olfactory pathways

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169
Q

Are located in the taste buds

A

Gustatory cells

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170
Q

True or False:
Special sense organs from early in embryonic development

A

True

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171
Q

Congenital eye problem resulting from unequal pulling by extrinsic eye muscles that result in crossed eyes

A

Strabismus

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172
Q

Most important congenital ear problem

A

Absence of the external acoustic meatus

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173
Q

Normal consequence of aging

A

Sensorineural deafness or presbycusis

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174
Q

Renal System (Urinary System)

A
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175
Q

Arteries and veins, arterioles and venules

A

Vascular System

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176
Q

Clear Part of the blood

A

Plasma

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177
Q

Obtained when blood is separated in the laboratory

A

Serum

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178
Q

Component of the blood without the plasma

A

Whole Blood

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179
Q

Composed of red cell, white cells, platelets, etc.

A

Blood

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180
Q

Function of the Kidney:
Remove waste and toxic substances in the blood (metabolic by-products of cells and substances)

A

Excretory Organs

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181
Q

Excretion of metabolic wastes:
Breakdown of creatine phosphate in muscle fibers

A

Creatinine

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182
Q

Excretion of metabolic wastes:
Breakdown of proteins

A

Urea

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183
Q

Excretion of metabolic wastes:
By product of proteins/ amino acids

A

Ammonia (NH3)

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184
Q

Excretion of metabolic wastes:
Breakdown of hemoglobin

A

Bilirubin

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185
Q

Excretion of metabolic wastes:
Breakdown of nucleic acid

A

Uric Acid

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186
Q

Function of the Kidney:
By control of extracellular fluid volume (Renin) and urine concentration (osmolality)

A

Regulator of blood volume and blood pressure

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187
Q

Function of the Kidney:
Glucose, sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, phosphate, calcium

A

Regulation of solutes and ions in the blood plasma

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188
Q

Function of the Kidney:
PH (acidity and alkalinity)

A

Regulator of the Body fluid PH

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189
Q

Function of the Kidney:
Cell synthesis (Erythropoietin)

A

Regulator of the red blood cell synthesis

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190
Q

Function of the Kidney:
final conversion of its active form 1,25 DIHYDROCHOLECALCIFEROL (Calcitriol)

A

Synthesis of Vitamin D

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191
Q
  • known as renal in Latin
  • bean shaped
  • adipose tissues holds it in place
A

Kidney

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192
Q

Location of Kidney

A
  • posterior location
  • costovertebral angle
  • 12h rib
  • 1st 3 lumbar spine
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193
Q

Behind the peritoneum

A

Retroperitoneal

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194
Q

True or False:
The left kidney is lower than the right kidney

A

False: The right kidney is lower than the left kidney

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195
Q

Connective tissue (fibrous) that surrounds and protect the kidney

A

Renal Capsule

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196
Q

Medial indentation on each side of the kidney where vessels or nerves enter or exit

A

Hilum

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197
Q

Fat filled cavity which contains the blood vessels

A

Renal Sinus

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198
Q

Wide section of the urinary channel

A

Renal Pelvis

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199
Q
  • Cup of a flower
  • funnel shape branch of the renal pelvis
A

Calyx

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200
Q

Outer Renal Parenchyma

A

Cortex

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201
Q

Inner Renal Parenchyma

A

Medulla

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202
Q

Cone shaped sections of tissue lying mostly in the medulla

A

Renal Pyramids

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203
Q

Tip of the pyramids

A

Renal Papilla

204
Q

Functional unit of the kidney (Greek for kidney)

A

Nephron

205
Q

3 functions of the Nephron

A
  1. Filtration
  2. Reabsorption
  3. Secretion
206
Q

How many Mil in each kidney

A

1.3 Mil

207
Q

How many L of Blood plasma passes through the kidney /24 hours

A

150 L to 180 L

208
Q

Average Urinary Output (L)

A

1.0 L to 1,8 L

209
Q

Loops of Henle do not deep into the medulla (?) and how many % of the nephron)

A

Cortical Nephrons (80-85%)

210
Q
  • Next to the medulla
  • loops of henle extend deep into the medulla
    and how many % of the nephron
A

Juxtamedullary Nephrons (15-25%)

211
Q

Branch of the aorta

A

Renal Artery

212
Q

Branch of Inferior Vena Cava

A

Renal Vein

213
Q

Originates from the renal artery

A

Peritubular Capillaries

214
Q

Connects to renal vein

A

Vasa Recta

215
Q
  • “Tiny body”
  • composed of the Glomerulus and Bowman’s Capsule
A

Renal Corpuscle

216
Q

Tufts of capillaries which resembles a ball of yarn

A

Glomerulus

217
Q

Arteriole blood goes in for filtration (Inflow of blood)

A

Afferent

218
Q

Arteriole blood goes out to supply the blood circulation of the nephron (Outflow of Blood)

A

Efferent

219
Q
  • an enclosure
  • double walled chamber
  • 3 filtration membranes
A

Bowman’s Capsule

220
Q

3 Layers of Filtration Membrane

A
  1. Podocytes
  2. Basement Membrane
  3. Endothelial Capillary Membrane
221
Q

While Filtration is composed of Toxic wastes excreted like urea and creatinine, Glucose, and Ions, what are not filtered?

A

Blood cells and Proteins

222
Q
  • Carries fluid away from the capsule
  • Primary site of reabsorption of solutes and water (65-70% of filtrate is reabsorbed)
A

Proximal Tubule

223
Q

Proximal tubule has reabsorption of ____ of water

A

70%

224
Q

After passing the proximal tubule the fluid is now called

A

Filtrate Fluid

225
Q

Reabsorption of ions

A

Loop of Henle

226
Q
  • Downward tube in Loop of Henle
  • is permeable to water
  • further concentrates the filtrate (15% of filtrate reabsorbed)
A

Descending Limb

227
Q
  • Upward tube in Loop of Henle
  • is permeable to solutes, potassium, sodium
  • dilutes the filtrate by removing solutes
A

Ascending Limb

228
Q
  • reabsorption water (20-25%)
  • secretion of Renin (RAAS)
  • In the Juxtaglomerular Apparatus
  • removes more water and solutes (19% reabsorbed)
A

Distal Convoluted Tubules

229
Q
  • Consists of cells from the wall of the afferent arteriole and the distal tubule
  • secretion of renin
A

Juxtaglomerular Apparatus

230
Q

“Brain” Natriuretic Hormone

A

Natriuretic Hormones

231
Q
  • Carries fluid from the cortex through the medulla
  • responsible for regulation and concentration of URINE through the action of ADH
  • reabsorption water (5-10%)
  • Secretion of ADH ( regulates water excretion)
  • Secretion of ions (Regulates urine/ blood osmolality and pH)
A

Collecting ducts

232
Q

After passing the collecting ducts filtrate is now called

A

Urine

233
Q

Urea, Uric Acid, Creatinine, Na, K, Cl, HCO3, Hydrogen

A

Urine Production

234
Q

Formation of filtrate

A

Filtration

235
Q

What are the 3 pressures that compromise Filtration Pressure

A
  1. Glomerular Capillary Pressure
  2. Capsular Pressure
  3. Colloidal Oncotic Pressure
236
Q

“Back to Plasma”

A

Reabsorption

237
Q

Solutes are reabsorbed across the wall of the nephron into interstitial fluid by

A

Transport process (Active transport and Cotransport)

238
Q
  • Water and solutes pass from interstitial fluid into the peritubular capillaries
  • water moves out of nephron
A

Osmosis

239
Q

Solutes move into nephron by

A

Diffusion

240
Q

What is the process for reabsorption and what is left?

A
  1. Proximal Tubules (65-70%)
  2. Descending Limb (15%)
  3. Ascending Limb
  4. Distal Tubules and Collecting Ducts (19%)
    1% left as urine = 1L TO 1.8 L
241
Q

Solutes are ____ across the capillary wall of the nephron into the filtrate to form urine

A

Secreted (Secretion)

242
Q

Secretion:
H, K, Creatinine, Histamine

A

Active Transport

243
Q

Secretion:
NH3

A

Passive Transport

244
Q

Small tubes that carry urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder

A

Ureters

245
Q
  • Hollow muscular container
  • stores urine
  • can hold max of 1L urine
A

Urinary Bladder

246
Q

Tube that exits the bladder carries urine from bladder to outside

A

Urethra

247
Q
  • Not well defined in women
  • under involuntary control in men
  • contracts during ejaculation to prevent urine flow
A

Internal Sphincter

248
Q
  • voluntary control
  • controls flow of urine through urethra
A

External Urethra

249
Q
  • triangle shaped muscle
  • located between the openings of the ureters and the urethra
A

Trigone

250
Q

Layer of urinary bladder wall:
smooth muscle layer

A

Detrussor

251
Q

Layer of urinary bladder wall:
- inner layer
- in contact with urine

A

Transitional Epithelium

252
Q

Action potentials in Mechanism of Micturition reflex (Involuntary reflex) are carried by

A

Parasympathetic Nerves

253
Q
  1. Urine stretch the bladder wall 300-500 ML
  2. “Action Potentials” produced by the stretch receptors are carried along the sacral region of the spinal cord
  3. Action Potentials are carried by Parasympathetic nerves and stimulates muscle contraction of the bladder and relaxation of urethral sphincter
A

Mechanism of micturition

254
Q
  1. Action Potentials sends sensory impulse to the PONS and communicates to the CORTEX
  2. INHIBITORY SIGNALS keep the sphincters closed to delay voiding
  3. Decreased action potentials carried by SOMATIC MOTOR NERVES cause the external urinary sphincter to relax and allow urination
A

Micturition (Voluntary control reflex)

255
Q

Characteristic of normal urine:
color is clear pale yellow due to ___, a pigment metabolite coming from destroyed hemoglobin (via BILIRUBIN or bile pigments

A

Urochrome

256
Q

Normal urine odor

A
  • slightly aromatic
  • bacterial action gives out amonia-like odor when left standing
257
Q

Normal urine pH

A

4.5 to 8 (Average of 6)

258
Q

Influence of food in urine pH:
High protein foods such as meet, eggs, cheese, and whole wheat

A

Acid Ash

259
Q

Influence of food in urine pH:
Vegetarian Diet

A

Alkaline Ash

260
Q

Normal range of urine specific gravity

A

1.00 to 1.03

261
Q

An increase in urine specific gravity indicates

A

Dehydration

262
Q

Water, Urea, Ions, Creatinine and Uric Acid, Small amounts of CA, Mg and HCO3

A

Normal constituents of Urine

263
Q

Glucose, Albumin, Ketone bodies, RBC, HB, nitrites, bile pigments, WBC, Casts

A

Abnormal Constituents

264
Q

Fluid

A
265
Q

-State of Equilibrium
- stabilization of body functions
- maintain normal status

A

Homeostasis

266
Q

ECF Fluid Volume Deficit

A

Dehydration

267
Q

ECF Fluid Volume Excess

A

Fluid Overload

268
Q

Absorption back to the bloodstream; retained in the body

A

Reabsorption

269
Q

Tonicity

A

Osmolality

270
Q

Fluid Content of the Body

A
  • Infant- 70 - 80 %
  • Adult Male- 50 – 70 %
  • Adult Female- 50 – 60 %
  • Older Adult- 45 – 55 %
  • Obesity - ?
271
Q

Water Compartments of Body:
2/3 of Fluid within cells

A

Intracellular Fluid (ICF)

272
Q

Water Compartments of Body:
1/3 of Fluid outside cells

A

Extracellular Fluid (ECF)

273
Q

Water Compartments of Body:
An ECF fluid between cells (lymph)

A

Interstitial

274
Q

Water Compartments of Body:
An ECF fluid within the blood vessels

A

Intravascular

275
Q

Water Compartments of Body:
Fluid in small and specialized
cavities

A

Transcellular fluid

276
Q

Function of Body water:
The high heat capacity of water allows it to absorb and release large amounts of heat before changing temperature

A

Stabilizes body temperature

277
Q

Function of Body water:
Acts as a lubricant or cushion

A

Protection

278
Q

Function of Body water:
* Most of the chemical reactions necessary for life do not take place
unless the reacting molecules are dissolved in water
* Water also directly participates in many chemical reactions

A

Chemical Reactions

279
Q

Function of Body water:
- Polar solvent properties: dissolves ionic substances, forms hydration layers around large charged molecules, and serves as the body’s major transport medium

A

Transport

280
Q
  • Potassium (K+)
  • Sodium (Na+)
  • Calcium (Ca++)
  • Phosphorus (PO4—)
  • Chloride (Cl -)
  • Magnesium (Mg++)
A

Electrolytes

281
Q

Type of Fluid:
- a substance capable of dissolving a solute
- dissolving medium - h20 most common
- may be in form of gas or liquid

A

Solvet

282
Q

Type of Fluid:
- substance that is dissolved in a solvent
- may be in the form of gas, liquid, or solid
- eg salt and sugar

A

Solute

283
Q

Type of Fluid Mixture:
mixture of 2 or more particles that are exceedingly SMALL

A

Solutions

284
Q

Type of Fluid Mixture:
mixture of 2 or more components; particles are fairly LARGE

A

Suspensions

285
Q

Type of Fluid Mixture:
Translucent mixtures with solute particles of INTERMEDIATE SIZE

A

Colloids

286
Q

Mechanisms controlling FLUID and electrolyte movement:
Movement of solute and
water across a semipermeable membrane

A

Filtration

287
Q

Mechanisms controlling FLUID and electrolyte movement:
use of a machine and a filtration membrane

A

Dialysis

288
Q

Mechanisms controlling FLUID and electrolyte movement:
The movement of a solute from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration within a solvent nor a
membrane
* at equilibrium, there is a uniform distribution of molecules

A

Diffusion

289
Q

Mechanisms controlling fluid and ELECTROLYTE movement:
- stores and provides energy
- source of immediately usable energy for the cell
- Facilitated transport through sodium-potassium pump

A

ATP “battery”

290
Q

Mechanisms controlling fluid and ELECTROLYTE movement:
- the diffusion of a solvent across a selectively semi-permeable membrane
- measurement of fluid osmolality and osmotic pressure of fluids

A

Osmosis

291
Q

Used to describe the tonicity of the blood plasma/ serum

A

Osmolality

292
Q

Normal value of osmolality

A

275-300 umol/L

293
Q

Higher than normal value of osmolality

A

Hyperosmolality

294
Q

Lower than normal value of osmolality

A

Hypoosmolality

295
Q

Used to describe all other fluids
based on content of Sugar and Salt in a “solution”

A

Osmolarity

296
Q

Type of Fluid shift where:
- shifts of plasma fluid to interstitial space compartment
- elevation of venous hydrostatic pressure
- decrease in plasma oncotic pressure
- elevation of interstitial oncotic pressure

A

Edema

297
Q

An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality _____ and ADH secretion
while
A decrease in extracellular osmolality ______ and _____ ADH secretion

A

Stimulates thirst
Inhibits thirst, decreases

298
Q
  • Produced by the heart when blood pressure
    increases
  • Inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the kidneys,
    resulting in increased urine volume and
    decreased blood volume and blood pressure
  • Inhibits ADH secretion and dilates arteries
    and veins
A

Atrial Natriuretic Hormone (ANH)

299
Q

RAAS

A

Renal Regulation

300
Q

ANH

A

Cardiac Regulation

301
Q

Gastrointestinal Regulation:
___ intake; ___ metabolism

A

90%, 10%

302
Q

Dehydration/ Hyperosmolality process

A
  1. Stimulation of Thirst
  2. Brain ADH release
  3. H2O reabsorption in Collecting ducts
  4. Decrease in Urination
  5. Conservation of Body Water
  6. Result in an Increase in Plasma Volume
    or
  7. Kidney Stimulation of Renin in JGA
  8. Angiotensin I to angiotensin II
  9. Release of Aldosterone by the adrenal cortex
  10. Conservation of Na+ and H2O
  11. Result in an Increase in Plasma Volume
303
Q

Average volume loss/day

A

600 mL

304
Q

Electrolytes and Acid-base

A
305
Q

Normal value of Sodium

A

135-145 mEq/L

306
Q
  • increased intake of salty food
  • near drowning in ocean
A

Hypernatremia

307
Q

Critical value of Hypernatremia

A

CNS changes > 155 mEq/L

308
Q

Opposite of hypernatremia

A

Hyponatremia

309
Q

Normal values of Potassium

A

3.5-4.5 mEq/L

310
Q

Increased intake of:
- medication error
- wrong dose
-wrong patient

A

Hyperkalemia

311
Q
  • associated with metabolic alkalosis
  • diarrhea
A

Hypokalemia

312
Q

In Hypokalemia, what can be noticed in their eeg changes

A

Flattened T wave and presence of U wave

313
Q

Normal range of Calcium

A

9-11 mg/dL

314
Q

Helps increase calcium resorption into the bones with by the mobilization of osteoclast

A

PTH

315
Q

Produced by the thyroid gland helps in bone deposition to resolve too much calcium in the bloodstream by using osteoblasts

A

Calcitonin

316
Q
  • gastrointestinal tract
  • calcium is poorly absorbed in the gut
A

Calcium absorption

317
Q

Increased level of calcium in the blood

A

Hypercalcemia

318
Q

Decreased pH increase ionized Ca

A

Acidosis

319
Q

EKG changes in Hypercalcemia

A

Shortened ST segment, shortened QT

320
Q

Major symptom of hypocalcemia

A

Hyperreflexia or muscle cramps

321
Q

Hypocalcemia manifestation signs

A

Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign

322
Q

Normal value of Phosphates

A

2.8-4.5 mg/dL

323
Q

Has a reciprocal relationship with Ca

A

Phosphates

324
Q

Hyperphosphatemia has accompanying

A

hypocalcemia

325
Q

Normal Chloride levels

A

97-107 mEq/L

326
Q

Major ECF anion and assist in determining osmotic pressure

A

Chloride

327
Q

Bicarbonate has an _____ relationship with Cl

A

Inverse

328
Q
  • Most abundant ICF cation
    -acts directly on myoneural junction
  • produces a sedative effect
A

Magnesium

329
Q
  • weak bonds
  • forms a bridge between nitrogen or oxygen atom
A

Hydrogen

330
Q
  • sour taste
  • can release H ions in detectable amounts
  • proton donors
A

Acids

331
Q
  • bitter taste
  • proton acceptors
A

Base

332
Q

Prevents major change in pH by removing or releasing H ion

A

Buffer systems

333
Q

Increase in H ion leads to

A

Acidity

334
Q

Decrease in H ion leads to

A

Alkalinity

335
Q

Principal buffer in kidney from hydrolysis reaction

A

Bicarbonate (H3CO3)

336
Q

Principal buffer in kidney that combines with h to form non-reabsorbable NH4

A

Ammonia (NH3)

337
Q

Principal buffer in kidney present in the filtrate, exchanges H ion for Na

A

Phosphate (PO4)

338
Q

What is the ratio of CO2 to HCO3

A

1:20

339
Q

The lungs as a buffer system eliminates

A

CO2

340
Q

The kidney as a buffer system eliminates and reabsorbs

A

H+ and reabsorbs HCO3

341
Q

Affect carbonic acid concentration

A

Respiratory

342
Q

Affect bicarbonate

A

Metabolic

343
Q

Is caused by either Hypoventilation or Respiratory failure

A

Carbonic acid excess

344
Q

Is caused by hyperventilation or hypoxemia from acute pulmonary disorders

A

Carbonic acid deficit

345
Q

Is caused by:
- ketoacidosis
- lactic acid accumulation
- severe diarrhea
- kidney disease

A

Base bicarbonate deficit

346
Q

Is caused by:
- prolonged vomiting
- gain of HCO3

A

Base bicarbonate excess

347
Q

Provide information about:
- acid-base status
- underlying cause of imbalance
- body’s ability to regulate pH
- overall oxygen status

A

ABG’s or Arterial blood gas

348
Q

ABG interpretation cue code ROME meaning

A

Respiratory
Opposite direction
Metabolic
Equal direction

349
Q

Cardiovascular System

A
350
Q

The heart is located in the ____ of the thorax and if flanked laterally by the lungs and enclosed in a multilayered ____

A

Mediastinum, pericardium

351
Q

Layer of the pericardium that protects and anchors the heart

A

Fibrous pericardium

352
Q

Layer of the pericardium lines the fibrous pericardium; part of serous membrane pair

A

Parietal pericardium

353
Q

Heart wall layer also called the visceral pericardium

A

Epicardium

354
Q

Heart wall layer known as the cardiac muscle

A

Myocardium

355
Q

Heart wall layer known as the endothelium

A

Endocardium

356
Q

The heart is divided longitudinally by a septum, referred to as the

A

Interatrial septum

357
Q

Divides the ventricles

A

Interventricular septum

358
Q

The right ventricle drains into the ________, which splits into the ________________; the left ventricle drains
into the_____

A

Pulmonary trunk, right and left pulmonary arteries, aorta

359
Q

Returns blood from the body to the right atrium

A

Superior and inferior vena cava

360
Q

Return blood from the lungs to the left atrium

A

Pulmonary veins

361
Q

What are the 4 heart valves that maintain one-way flow and prevent backflow of blood in the heart

A
  1. Atrioventricular valve
  2. Bicuspid valve
  3. Tricuspid valve
    prevent backflow into the atria when the ventricles are contracting
  4. Semilunar valves
    prevent backflow into the ventricles when the heart is relaxing
362
Q

The myocardium is nourished by ________, which branch off the aorta; are
drained by the _______ and the ______

A

coronary arteries, cardiac veins, coronary
sinus

363
Q

Sets the basic rhythm

A

Intrinsic conduction system

364
Q

The pacemaker that sets a heart rete of about 75 beats per minute

A

Sinoatrial node

365
Q

Name the components of the nodal system

A
  1. Atrioventricular node
  2. Atrioventricular AV bundle
  3. Bundle branches
  4. Purkinje fibers
366
Q

A series of events in one complete heartbeat

A

Cardiac cycle

367
Q

Result from the closing of the valves

A

Heart sounds

368
Q

The amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in 1 minute

A

Cardiac output

369
Q

What is the equation of cardiac output

A

Heart rate x stroke volume

370
Q

Factor that influence stroke volume which is the amount of stretch of cardiac muscle cells

A

Preload

371
Q

Factor that influence stroke volume which is the ability of cardiac muscle to generate force

A

Contractility

372
Q

Factor that influence stroke volume which is the force of blood pressing back on the SL values the ventricles must overcome in order to pump blood

A

Afterload

373
Q

Transport blood away form the heart

A

Arteries

374
Q

Carry blood back to the heart

A

Veins

375
Q

Are exchange vessels

A

Capillaries

376
Q

Tunic endothelium which reduces friction

A

Tunica intima

377
Q

Tunic middle layer of muscle and elastic tissue

A

Tunica media

378
Q

Tunic which is protective, outermost connective tissue layer

A

Tunica externa

379
Q

Capillaries have a ______ that branches into capillaries and drain into a ______

A

terminal arteriole, postcapillary venule

380
Q

Special capillary beds have two types of vessels

A

Vascular shunt and capillaries

381
Q

Blood flow into capillaries is controlled by

A

Precapillary sphincters

382
Q

A structural defect due to incompetent veins

A

Varicose veins

383
Q

Inflammation of a vein resulting in clot formation due to poor circulation

A

Thrombophlebitis

384
Q

Special circulation of the brain is formed by branches of paired

A

Vertebral arteries and internal carotid arteries

385
Q

Provides alternate routes for blood flow in case of a blockage in the brain’s arterial supply

A

The circle of Willis

386
Q

Is formed by veins draining the digestive organs which empty into the hepatic portal vein

A

Hepatic portal circulation

387
Q

Alternating expansion and recoil of a blood vessel wall that occurs as the heart beats

A

Pulse

388
Q

Pressure exerted by blood on the walls of the blood vessels

A

Blood pressure

389
Q

What is recorded when blood pressure is measured

A

Systolic pressure and diastolic pressure

390
Q

High resistance reduces blood flow

A

Peripheral resistance

391
Q

Reflects an increase in peripheral resistance, stains the heart, and damages blood vessels

A

Hypertension (High blood pressure)

392
Q

Diffusion can occur through the endothelial cell plasma membranes through

A

Intercellular clefts or fenestrated capillaries

393
Q

Carries nutrients and oxygen to the fetus from the placenta

A

Single Umbilical vein

394
Q

Carry carbon dioxide and waste from the fetus to the placenta

A

Two Umbilical arteries

395
Q

involves gradual loss of elasticity in the arteries and buildup of fatty plaques

A

Arteriosclerosis

396
Q

Results when artery walls thicken and develop scar tissue

A

Atherosclerosis

397
Q

Respiratory System

A
398
Q

Body system responsible for gas exchange

A

Respiratory system

399
Q

Air enters the ____ through the ____ which are divided by the ______

A

Nasal cavity, nostrils, nasal septum

400
Q

Surround the nasal cavity and act as a resonance chambers for speech

A

Paranasal sinuses

401
Q

The nose is separated from the mouth by this which is a genetic defect resulting in breathing difficulty and problems with speaking and breastfeeding

A

Palate or cleft palate

402
Q

The through, a muscular common passageway for food and air connected the the nasal cavity via the posterior nasal aperture

A

Pharynx

403
Q

The 3 regions of the pharynx

A
  1. Nasopharynx
  2. Oropharynx
  3. Laryngopharynx
404
Q

Are clusters of lymphatic tissue that surrounds the pharynx

A

Tonsils

405
Q

______ ___ high in the nasopharynx

A

Single Pharyngeal tonsil

406
Q

_____ ____ at the end of the soft palate in the oropharynx

A

Paired palatine tonsils

407
Q

____ ____ at the base of the tongue

A

Single lingual tonsil

408
Q

____ ___ protect the openings to the pharyngotympanic tubes

A

Tubal tonsils

409
Q

The voice box which routes air and plays a role in speech

A

Larynx

410
Q

____ is responsible for speech and between this is an opening called the ____

A

Vocal folds, glottis

411
Q

The windpipe connecting the larynx and bronchi is lined with ciliated mucosa and contains rings of hyaline cartilage to keep it open

A

Trachea

412
Q

Formed by division of the trachea which connect to each lung at the hilum

A

Main (primary) bronchi

413
Q

Organs of breathing flanking the mediastinum and composed mainly of elastic connective tissue

A

Lungs

414
Q

Each lung is covered with a serous membrane layer called the

A

Visceral pleura or pulmonary pleura

415
Q

Is the inflammation of the pleurae resulting either in dry membranes and increased friction or in increased fluid production that causes pressure on the lungs

A

Pleurisy

416
Q

The smallest conducting passages

A

Bronchioles

417
Q

Includes terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli, the air sacs where gas exchange with blood occurs

A

Respiratory zone

418
Q

Patrol and protect the alveoli from infection also called dust cells

A

Alveolar macrophages

419
Q

Includes the alveolar and capillary walls fused to their basement membranes

A

Respiratory membrane

420
Q

Includes four events to accomplish delivery of oxygen and disposal of carbon dioxide

A

Respiration

421
Q

Is the movement of air into and out the lungs, providing a constant supply of oxygen commonly called breathing

A

Pulmonary ventilation

422
Q

Is gas exchange between the blood and exterior of the body

A

External respiration

423
Q

Is transport of gases around the body via blood

A

Respiratory gas transport

424
Q

Is gas exchange inside the body between blood and tissues at capillaries

A

Internal respiration

425
Q

Use of oxygen to produce ATP

A

Cellular respiration

426
Q

True or False:
Respiration is the same as cellular respiration

A

False: Respiration is not the same as cellular respiration

427
Q

Air is moved into the lungs during ____ and leaves the lungs during ____

A

Inspiration, expiration

428
Q

Inspiratory muscles include the

A

Diaphragm and external intercostals

429
Q

Intrapleural pressure is always

A

Negative

430
Q

Occurs when injury allows air into the intrapleural space which can lead to atelectasis

A

Pneumothorax

431
Q

Is the amount of air moved during normal quiet breathing

A

Tidal volume

432
Q

Is the forcible inhalation beyond tidal volume is the

A

Inspiratory reserve volume

433
Q

After normal exhalation, the amount forcibly exhaled is the

A

Expiratory reserve volume

434
Q

The total amount of exchangeable air is the

A

Vital capacity

435
Q

Is the amount of air that never reaches the alveoli

A

Dead space volume

436
Q

Are heard when air rushed through large passages

A

Bronchial sounds

437
Q

Are heard when alveoli inflate

A

Vesicular breathing sounds

438
Q

Oxygen is transported in blood as ______ inside RBC;s and a small amount is dissolve in plasma

A

Oxyhemoglobin

439
Q

Is inadequate oxygen supply which can cause patient to become cyanotic or slightly blue

A

Hypoxia

440
Q

is a specific type of hypoxia caused when carbon monoxide binds more easily to hemoglobin

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning

441
Q

In control of respiration impulses are sent to the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles by the

A

Phrenic nerves and intercostal nerves

442
Q

Contains inspiratory and expiratory neurons that maintain eupnea

A

Ventral respiratory group

443
Q

Integrates sensory information from chemoreceptors and stretch receptors to modify breathing rhythms

A

Dorsal respiratory group

444
Q

Vigorous, deep breathing such as breathing during exercise

A

Hyperpnea

445
Q

An increase in breathing rate and depth that results in exhaling more carbon dioxide than necessary

A

Hyperventilation

446
Q

Cessation of breathing often brought on by hyperventilation

A

Apnea

447
Q

Severe respiratory disease, such as
chronic bronchitis or emphysema, that usually
involves a history of smoking

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

447
Q

Enlarged alveoli

A

Emphysema

448
Q

Severe inflammation of lower respiratory passages

A

Chronic bronchitis

449
Q

Endocrine System

A
450
Q

A leading cause of death that is mostly preventable

A

Lung cancer

451
Q

Begins as nodules in
peripheral areas of lungs

A

Adenocarcinoma

452
Q

Begins in epithelium of large bronchi; masses tend to bleed

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

453
Q

Begins with
lymphocyte-like cells from the main bronchi
that grow aggressively in the mediastinum
and metastasize rapidly

A

Small cell carcinoma

454
Q

Is required to help fetal lungs transition from fluid filled to air filled at birth

A

Surfactant

455
Q

Can occur in premature births when insufficient
surfactant is present

A

Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)

456
Q

A lethal genetic disease
that interferes with normal chloride ion and
water movements, resulting in over secretion of thick mucus that clogs passages and increases
infection risk

A

Cystic fibrosis

457
Q

Occurs when infants spontaneously stop breathing and
die in their sleep

A

Sudden infant death syndrome

458
Q

Chronic inflammation and hypersensitivity of bronchial passages that respond to irritants such as allergens

A

Asthma

459
Q

Endocrine System

A
460
Q

A major control system of the body composed of a series of ductless glands that secrete their products directly into the blood

A

Endocrine system

461
Q

Nearly all hormones are _____

A

Amino acid-based molecules or steroids

462
Q

Are locally acting lipids

A

Prostaglandins

463
Q

Amino acid-based hormones act through

A

Second messengers

464
Q

A hormone stimulates
another organ to release its hormones

A

Hormonal stimulus

465
Q

A blood level of something
stimulates a hormone to be released

A

Humoral stimulus

466
Q

Direct stimulation by sympathetic neurons signal hormone release

A

Neural stimulus

467
Q

Is important in regulating blood hormone levels

A

Negative feedback

468
Q

Hangs from the hypothalamus of the brain by a stalk and is enclosed by bone

A

Pituitary gland

469
Q

The hypothalamus also makes two hormones
that are transported along the axons of the
hypothalamic _____

A

Neurosecretory cells

470
Q

Stimulates powerful uterine contractions and causes milk ejection in the nursing women

A

Oxytocin

471
Q

Causes kidney
tubule cells to reabsorb and conserve body
water and increases blood pressure by constricting blood vessel

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

472
Q

Hyposecretion of ADH leads to

A

Diabetes insipidus

473
Q

Except for growth hormone and prolactin, hormones of the anterior pituitary are all ____ which stimulate other glands to secrete hormones

A

Tropic hormones

474
Q

An anabolic and
protein-conserving hormone that promotes
total body growth

A

Growth hormone

475
Q

Stimulates production of
breast milk

A

Prolactin (PRL)

476
Q

Stimulates the adrenal cortex to release its hormones, mainly glucocorticoids

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

477
Q

Stimulates the thyroid gland to release thyroid
hormone

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

478
Q

Include FSH and
LH; hyposecretion of either results in sterility

A

Gonadotropic hormones

479
Q

Stimulates follicle development and estrogen
production by the female ovaries

A

Follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH)

480
Q

Stimulates
ovulation (at puberty), causes the ruptured
ovarian follicle to produce progesterone;
stimulates testes to produce testosterone

A

Luteinizing hormone

481
Q

Located posterior to the third
ventricle of the brain, releases melatonin, which
affects sleep-wake cycles

A

Pineal gland

482
Q

located in the anterior
throat, makes two hormones: thyroid hormone and calcitonin

A

Thyroid gland

483
Q

Lack of iodine leads to ____caused by a
buildup of inactive thyroid hormone

A

Goiter

484
Q

Hyposecretion of thyroxine results in _____
in children and _____ in adults

A

cretinism, myxedema

485
Q

Is released by parafollicular cells
surrounding the thyroid follicles in response to a
high blood calcium ion level

A

Calcitonin

486
Q

Four small glands
located on the posterior aspect of the thyroid gland

A

Parathyroid glands

487
Q

Parathyroid glands to release _______ in response to low blood calcium ion levels

A

Parathyroid hormone
(PTH)

488
Q

Hyposecretion of PTH results in

A

Tetany

489
Q

Located in the upper thorax;
secretes the hormone thymosin

A

Thymus

490
Q

Paired glands perched
on the kidneys; each gland has two functional
endocrine portions, the cortex and the medulla

A

Adrenal glands

491
Q

Produces steroid hormones, collectively called corticosteroids

A

Adrenal cortex

492
Q

Regulates
sodium ion (Na+) reabsorption and potassium
ion (K+) secretion by the kidneys

A

Mineralocorticoids - aldosterone

493
Q

Reduces blood volume and blood pressure

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide

494
Q

Enable the body to resist
long-term stress by increasing the blood glucose
level and depressing the inflammatory response

A

Glucocorticoids

495
Q

Major hormone of glucocorticoids

A

Cortisone and cortisol

496
Q

Generalized hypoactivity of the adrenal cortex
results in

A

Addison’s disease

497
Q

The adrenal medulla produces

A

Catecholamines

498
Q

Also called islets of
Langerhans—endocrine cells of the pancreas,
located in the abdomen close to the stomach

A

Pancreatic islets

499
Q

Is released by beta cells in response to
high blood glucose levels

A

Insulin

500
Q

Is released by alpha cells in response to low blood glucose levels

A

Glucagon

501
Q

Released by ovarian follicles beginning at puberty, stimulated by FSH

A

Estrogen

502
Q

Released from the ovary in response to a high blood level of LH

A

Progesterone

503
Q

Is a temporary organ formed in the
uterus of pregnant women that produce estrogen and progesterone and maintain pregnancy and ready the breasts for lactation

A

Placenta

504
Q

Placental hormone that relaxes pelvic
ligaments and pubic symphysis joint to ease
birthing pathway

A

Relaxin

505
Q

657777777

A

Midterms (5 decks)

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