Anaesthetics at WWBH Flashcards

1
Q

Anesthesia Definition

A

Anesthesia: lack of sensation/perception

Toronto notes 2016

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2
Q

4 steps to Anaesthetics

A
  1. pre-operative assessment
  2. patient optimization
3. 
plan anesthetic
various types of anesthesia
pre-medication
airway management
monitors
induction
maintenance
extubation
  1. Post-operative care

Toronto notes 2016

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3
Q

6 As of General Anesthesia

A
Anesthesia
Anxiolysis
Amnesia
Areflexia (muscle relaxation not always
required)
Autonomic stability
Analgesia

Toronto notes 2016

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4
Q

Types of Anesthesia

A
  • general
  • regional
  • local
  • sedation

Toronto notes 2016

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5
Q

Evaluation of Difficult Airway:

A
LEMON
Look – obesity, beard, dental/facial abnormalities, neck, facial/neck trauma
Evaluate – 3-2-1 rule
Mallampati score
Obstruction – stridor, foreign bodies
Neck mobility

Toronto notes 2016

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6
Q

To Assess for Ventilation Difficulty:

A
To Assess for Ventilation Difficulty: BONES
Beard
Obesity (BMI>26)
No teeth
Elderly (age>55)
Snoring Hx (sleep apnea)

Toronto notes 2016

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7
Q

Classification of oral opening

A

Mallampati
1. full view of uvula (body and base of uvula), can see tonsillar pillars

2 body and base of uvula, tonsillar pillars and tonsils (partial view)

3 base of uvula and post-pharyngeal wall

4 hard palate and no other structures visible

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8
Q

• routine pre-operative investigations are only necessary if there are comorbidities or certain

A

B
Chest Radiograph

C
ECG

B-hCG

Electrolytes and Creatinine

Fasting Glucose Level

H
CBC
Sickle Cell Screen
INR, aPTT

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9
Q

American Society of Anesthesiology Classification
• common classification of physical status at the time of surgery
• a gross predictor of overall outcome, NOT used as stratification for anesthetic risk (mortality rates)

A

• ASA 1: a healthy, fit patient
• ASA 2: a patient with mild systemic disease
ƒ e.g. controlled Type 2 DM, controlled essential HTN, obesity, smoker
• ASA 3: a patient with severe systemic disease that limits activity
ƒ e.g. stable CAD, COPD, DM, obesity
• ASA 4: a patient with incapacitating disease that is a constant threat to life
ƒ e.g. unstable CAD, renal failure, acute respiratory failure
• ASA 5: a moribund patient not expected to survive 24 h without surgery
ƒ e.g. ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), head trauma with increased ICP
• ASA 6: declared brain dead, a patient whose organs are being removed for donation purposes

• for emergency operations, add the letter E after classification (e.g. ASA 3E)

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10
Q

Layers traversed by spinal needle

A

google: The layers traversed by the spinal needle are the skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum and the dura

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11
Q

max dose of ligdocaine

A

Trilon said 2mg/kg

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12
Q

Lx spinous processes found between iliac crests

A

L4 spinous processes found between iliac crests

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13
Q

Preoperative medication to stop: oral antihyperglycemic

A

stop morning of surgery

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14
Q

Preoperative medication to stop: antidepressant

A

stop on morning of surgery

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15
Q

Preoperative medication to stop:

ACE inhibitors and angiotension receptor blockers

A

may stop on morning of surgery (controversial)

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16
Q

Preoperative medication to stop:

ASA, NSAIDs

A

discussed with surgeons

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17
Q

Preoperative medication to stop:

ASA in non-cardiac surgery

A

in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery, starting or continuing low-dose aspirin in the perioperative period does not appear to protect against post-operative MI or death, but increases the risk of major bleeding
– note: this does not apply to patients with bare metal stents or drug-eluting coronary stents

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18
Q

3 medications to adjust in pre-operative period

A

• insulin (consider insulin/dextrose infusion or holding dose), prednisone, bronchodilators

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19
Q

BP targets perioperatively

A

BP <180/110 is not an independent risk factor for perioperative cardiovascular complications
• target sBP <180 mmHg, dBP <110 mmHg
• assess for end-organ damage and treat accordingly

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20
Q

• ACC/AHA Guidelines (2014) recommend that at least x days should elapse after a MI before a noncardiac surgery in the absence of a coronary intervention

A

60

  • this period carries an increased risk of reinfarction/death
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21
Q

mortality with perioperative MI is x

A

20-50%

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22
Q

perioperative β-blockers

A

-may decrease cardiac events and mortality (controversial, as recent data suggests increased stroke risk)

continue β-blocker if patient is routinely taking it prior to surgery

  • consider initiation of β-blocker in: patients with CAD or indication for β-blocker OR intermediate risk surgery, especially vascular surgery
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23
Q

smoking effect on physiology that negatively impacts surgery

A

adverse effects: altered mucus secretion and clearance, decreased small airway caliber, and altered immune response

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24
Q

how long to abstrain from smoking preoperatively

A

abstain at least 8 wk pre-operatively if possible

if unable, abstaining even 24 h pre-operatively has shown benefit

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25
Q

avoid non-selective β-blockers due to risk of x

A

bronchospasm

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26
Q

ƒ delay elective surgery for poorly controlled asthma

A

ƒ delay elective surgery for poorly controlled asthma (increased cough or sputum production, active wheezing)

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27
Q

delay elective surgery by a minimum of x wk if patient develops URTI

A

6

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28
Q

pre-operative x for all COPD stage x patients to assess baseline respiratory acidosis and plan post-operative management of hypercapnea

cancel/delay elective surgery for x

A

ABG

Stage II and III

acute exacerbation

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29
Q

β1-receptors are located primarily in the x

A

heart and kidneys

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30
Q

β2-receptors are located in the x

A

lungs

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31
Q

Cardioselective Beta blockers for B1

A

MANBABE

Metoprolol
Atenolol
Nebivolol
Bisoprolol
Acebutolol
Betaxolol
Esmolol
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32
Q

Fasting guidelines•

x h after a meal that includes meat, fried or fatty foods

A

8

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33
Q

Fasting guidelines•

x h after a light meal (such as toast or crackers) or after ingestion of infant formula or nonhuman milk

A

6

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34
Q

Fasting guidelines•

• x h after ingestion of breast milk

A

4

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35
Q

Fasting guidelines•

x h after clear fluids (water, black coffee, tea, carbonated beverages, juice without pulp)

A

2

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36
Q

What to do for addison’s disease intraoperatively

A

consider intraoperative steroids

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37
Q

The only indispensable monitor

A

the anaesthetist

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38
Q

Inadequate anesthetic depth

A

blink reflex present when eyelashes lightly touched, HTN, tachycardia, tearing or sweating

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39
Q

excessive anesthetic depth

A

hypotension, bradycardia

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40
Q

resistance to airflow through nasal passages accounts for approximately x of total airway resistance

A

2/3

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41
Q

pharyngeal airway extends from

A

posterior aspect of the nose to cricoid cartilage

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42
Q

what is glottic opening

A

triangular space formed between the true vocal cords

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43
Q

What is the triangular space formed between the true vocal cords

A

glottic opening

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44
Q

Which vertebrae does the trachea begin at?

A

C6

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45
Q

Trachea bifurcates at which vetebral level?

A

T4-T5 (approximately the sternal angle)

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46
Q
  1. non-definitive airway (patent airway)
A

ƒ jaw thrust/chin lift
ƒ oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airway
ƒ bag mask ventilation
ƒ laryngeal mask airway

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47
Q
  1. definitive airway (patent and protected airway)
A

ƒ endotracheal tube

ƒ surgical airway (cricothyrotomy or tracheostomy)

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48
Q

LMA sizing

A

3: 40-50
4: 50-70
5: 70-100

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49
Q

• align the three axes (x, x, x,) to allow

A

mouth, pharynx, and larynx

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50
Q

sniffing position

A

ƒ “sniffing position”: flexion of lower C-spine (C5-C6), bow head forward, and extension of upper C-spine at atlanto-occipital joint (C1), nose in the air
ƒ contraindicated in known/suspected C-spine fracture/instability

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51
Q

• laryngoscope tip placed in the epiglottic x in order to visualize cord

A

epiglottic vallecula

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52
Q

Medications that can be Given Through the ETT

A
NAVEL
Naloxone
Atropine
Ventolin
Epinephrine
Lidocaine
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53
Q

laryngoscopy and ETT insertion can incite a significant sympathetic response via stimulation of cranial nerves x and x due to a “foreign body reflex” in the trachea, including x

A

9 and 10

including tachycardia, dysrhythmias, myocardial ischemia, increased BP, and coughing

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54
Q

• a malpositioned ETT is a potential hazard for the intubated patient
- if too deep, may result in x

A

deep, may result in right endobronchial intubation, which is associated with left-sided
atelectasis and right-sided tension pneumothorax

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55
Q

• a malpositioned ETT is a potential hazard for the intubated patient

  • if too shallow, x
A
  • if too shallow, may lead to accidental extubation, vocal cord trauma, or laryngeal paralysis as a result of pressure injury by the ETT cuff
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56
Q

• the tip of ETT should be located at the midpoint of the trachea at least x cm above the carina and the proximal end of the cuff should be placed at least x cm below the vocal cords
- approximately x cm mark at the right corner of the mouth for men and x cm for women

A

• the tip of ETT should be located at the midpoint of the trachea at least 2 cm above the carina and the proximal end of the cuff should be placed at least 2 cm below the vocal cords
- approximately 20-23 cm mark at the right corner of the mouth for men and 19-21 cm for women

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57
Q

Confirmation of Tracheal Placement of ETT
direct
vs
• indirect

A

direct

  • visualization of ETT passing through cords
  • bronchoscopic visualization of ETT in trachea

• indirect

  • ETCO2 in exhaled gas measured by capnography
  • auscultate for equal breath sounds bilaterally and absent breath sounds over epigastrium
  • bilateral chest movement, condensation of water vapour in ETT visible during exhalation and no abdominal distention
  • refilling of reservoir bag during exhalation
  • CXR (rarely done): only confirms position of the tip of ETT and not that ETT is in the trachea
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58
Q

Esophageal intubation suspected when

A

• esophageal intubation suspected when

  • ETCO2 zero or near zero on capnography
  • abnormal sounds during assisted ventilation
  • impairment of chest excursion
  • hypoxia/cyanosis
  • presence of gastric contents in ETT
  • distention of stomach/epigastrium with ventilation
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59
Q

Complications During Laryngoscopy and Intubation

A

Complications During Laryngoscopy and Intubation
• dental damage
• laceration (lips, gums, tongue, pharynx, esophagus)
• laryngeal trauma
• esophageal or endobronchial intubation
• accidental extubation
• insufficient cuff inflation or cuff laceration: results in leaking and aspiration
• laryngospasm (see Extubation, A18 for definition)
• bronchospasm

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60
Q

Differential Diagnosis of Poor Bilateral Breath Sounds after Intubation

A
Differential Diagnosis of Poor Bilateral Breath Sounds after Intubation
DOPE
Displaced ETT
Obstruction
Pneumothorax
Esophageal intubation
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61
Q

• if difficult airway expected, consider

A
  • awake intubation

- intubating with bronchoscope, trachlight (lighted stylet), fibre optic laryngoscope, glidescope, etc.

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62
Q

• if intubation unsuccessful after induction

A

• if intubation unsuccessful after induction

  1. CALL FOR HELP
  2. ventilate with 100% O2 via bag and mask
  3. consider returning to spontaneous ventilation and/or waking patient
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63
Q

• if bag and mask ventilation inadequate

A

• if bag and mask ventilation inadequate

  1. CALL FOR HELP
  2. attempt ventilation with oral airway
  3. consider/attempt LMA
  4. emergency invasive airway access (e.g. rigid bronchoscope, cricothyrotomy, or tracheostomy)
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64
Q

small decrease in saturation below SaO2 of x% corresponds to a large drop in arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2)

A

small decrease in saturation below SaO2 of 90% corresponds to a large drop in arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2)

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65
Q

cyanosis can be detected at SaO2

A

cyanosis can be detected at SaO2 <85%, frank cyanosis at SaO2 = 67%

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66
Q

nasal prongs, nasopharynx acts as an anatomic x that collects O2

A

nasopharynx acts as an anatomic reservoir that collects O2

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67
Q
  • delivered oxygen concentration (FiO2) can be estimated by adding x% for every additional litre of O2 delivered
  • provides FiO2 of 24-44% at O2 flow rates of 1-6 L/min
A
  • delivered oxygen concentration (FiO2) can be estimated by adding 4% for every additional litre of O2 delivered
  • provides FiO2 of 24-44% at O2 flow rates of 1-6 L/min
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68
Q

hudson mask
ƒ fed by small bore O2 tubing at a rate of at least x L/min to ensure that exhaled CO2 is flushed through the exhalation ports and not rebreathed

A

ƒ fed by small bore O2 tubing at a rate of at least 6 L/min to ensure that exhaled CO2 is flushed through the exhalation ports and not rebreathed

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69
Q

provides FiO2 of x% at O2 flow rates of 10 L/min

A

provides FiO2 of 55% at O2 flow rates of 10 L/min

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70
Q

non-rebreather mask
ƒ a reservoir bag and a series of one-way valves prevent expired gases from re-entering the bag
ƒ during the exhalation phase, the bag accumulates with oxygen
ƒ provides FiO2 of x% at O2 flow rates of 10-15 L/min

A

80

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71
Q

Venturi mask
ƒ delivers specific FiO2 by varying the size of x
ƒ oxygen concentration determined by x and x

A

Venturi mask
ƒ delivers specific FiO2 by varying the size of air entrapment
ƒ oxygen concentration determined by mask’s port and NOT the wall flow rate

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72
Q

What is the common name for assist-control ventilation

A

volume control

in basic pg 41 it says
assist-control = volume control = IPPV = volume control

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73
Q

high-frequency oscillatory ventilation (HFOV)
ƒ high breathing rate (up to x breaths/min in an adult), very low tidal volumes
ƒ used commonly in x
ƒ used in adults when x

A

high-frequency oscillatory ventilation (HFOV)
ƒ high breathing rate (up to 900 breaths/min in an adult), very low tidal volumes
ƒ used commonly in neonatal and pediatric respiratory failure
ƒ used in adults when conventional mechanical ventilation is failing

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74
Q

Causes of hypocapnea

A

hyperventilation
hypothermia
Decreased pulmonary blood flow

Technical issues
V/Q mismatch

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75
Q

causes of Hypercapnea

A

hypoventilation
hyperthermia and other hypermetabolic states
improved pulmonary blood flow after resuscitation or hypotension
technical issues
low bicarb (i don’t understand this)

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76
Q

Positive End Expiratory Pressure (PEEP)

• Positive pressure applied at the end of ventilation that helps to keep alveoli open, x V/Q mismatch

A

decreasing

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77
Q

x should be considered in patients who require ventilator support for extended periods of time
• Shown to improve patient x and give patients a x

A

Tracheostomy should be considered in patients who require ventilator support for extended periods of time
• Shown to improve patient comfort and give patients a better ability to participate in rehabilitation activities

78
Q

Management of pneumothorax in patients on mechanical ventilation?

A

chest tube

79
Q

hypoxia vs hypoxemia

A

google: Hypoxemia is defined as a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood whereas hypoxia is defined by reduced level of tissue oxygenation

80
Q

Causes of hypoxemia

A

Inadequate oxygen supply
e.g. breathing system disconnection, obstructed or malpositioned ETT, leaks in the anesthetic machine, loss of oxygen supply

Hypoventilation

Ventilation-perfusion inequalities
e.g. atelectasis, pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pneumothorax

Reduction in oxygen carrying capacity
e.g. anemia, carbon monoxide poisoning, methemoglobinemia, hemoglobinopathy

Leftward shift of the hemoglobinoxygen saturation curve
e.g. hypothermia, decreased 2,3-BPG, alkalosis, hypocarbia, carbon monoxide poisoning

Right-to-left cardiac shunt

81
Q

5 causes of hypoxemia

A

These are V/Q mismatch, right-to-left shunt, diffusion impairment, hypoventilation, and low inspired PO2.

paper: Mechanisms of hypoxemia

82
Q

Causes of Hyperthermia (>37.5-38.3ºC)

A
Causes of Hyperthermia (>37.5-38.3ºC)
• drugs (e.g. atropine)
• blood transfusion reaction
• infection/sepsis
• medical disorder (e.g. thyrotoxicosis)
• malignant hyperthermia 
• over-zealous warming efforts
83
Q

Impact of Hypothermia (<36°C)

A

Impact of Hypothermia (<36°C)
• Increased risk of wound infections due to impaired immune function
• Increases the period of hospitalization by delaying healing
• Reduces platelet function and impairs activation of coagulation cascade
increasing blood loss and transfusion requirements
• Triples the incidence of VT and morbid cardiac events
• Decreases the metabolism of anesthetic agents prolonging postoperative
recovery

84
Q

• tachycardia = HR >x bpm;

divided into what 2 groups

A

• tachycardia = HR >150 bpm; divided into narrow complex supraventricular tachycardias (SVT) or wide complex tachycardias

85
Q

examples of SVT

A

• SVT: sinus tachycardia, atrial fibrillation/flutter, accessory pathway mediated tachycardia, paroxysmal atrial tachycardia

86
Q

examples of wide complex tachycardia

A

wide complex tachycardia: VT, SVT with aberrant conduction

87
Q

• causes of sinus tachycardia

A

ƒ shock/hypovolemia/blood loss
ƒ anxiety/pain/light anesthesia
ƒ full bladder
ƒ anemia
ƒ febrile illness/sepsis
ƒ drugs (e.g. atropine, cocaine, dopamine, epinephrine, ephedrine, isoflurane, isoproterenol, pancuronium)
ƒ Addisonian crisis, hypoglycemia, transfusion reaction, malignant hyperthermia

88
Q

How much in ligdocaine 1%, 5mL

A

10mg

Jeremy Broad taught me this trick

89
Q

How much in Ropivocaine 0.2%, 15mL

A

30mg

Jeremy Broad taught me this trick

90
Q

How much in Bupivocaine 3%, 1.5mL

A

45mg

Jeremy Broad taught me this trick

91
Q

definition of anaesthesia

A

pharmacologically induced lack of sensation

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 3

92
Q

triad of anaesthesia

A

old concept that anaesthesia consists of three components

  1. narcosis/sleep
  2. relaxation
  3. analgesia

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 5

93
Q

Which is a deeper plane of anaesthetia, consciousness or movement?

A

movement
so if a patient is moving, doesn’t necessarily mean they are awake

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 5

94
Q

inducing paralysis allows a lighter plane of anaesthesia to be used, but eliminates the most reliable and important sign of light anaesthesia and awremness

A

both voluntary and involuntary movement

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 5

95
Q

what is the most important protective reflex that is spared by light anaesthetsia?

A

cardiovascular reflexes

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 5

96
Q

Measurement of _________ is used to infer the partial pressure in the brain

A

expired anaesthetic gas partial pressure

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 7

97
Q

Computerized pumps can deliver IV agents such as x according to complex algorithms that depend on height, weight and body surface area

A

remifentanil and prpofol

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 7

98
Q

What does BIS stand for

A

bispectral index

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg8

99
Q

Where does BIS monitor electrical activity?

A

cortical pyramidal cells

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg8

100
Q

BIS numbers to know

A

Less than 70=loss of recall
60= unconsciousness
40-60 = surgical anaesthesia

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg8

101
Q

What is MAC

A

minimal alveolar concentration

concentration of volatile anaesthetic agent at one atmosphere that will prevent a motor response to a painful stimulus in 50% of subjects

in humans=skin incision
mice=tail clamping

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg8

102
Q

What is the MAC of isoflurane?

A

1.1%
or 1.1 kPA

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg8

103
Q

What is the MAC of sevoflurane

A

1.8%

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg8

104
Q

Increasing age and decreasing temperature x the MAC of anaesthetic agents

A

reduce

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg8

105
Q

Decreasing age and increasing temperature x the MAC of anaesthetic agents

A

increase

106
Q

Increasing barometric pressure x the MAC of anesthetic drugs

A

increases

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg8

107
Q

Decreasing barometric pressure x the MAC of anesthetic drugs

A

decreases

108
Q

Where is the site of action of volatile anaesthetic agents?

A

site remains uncertain

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 9

109
Q

There is a strong correlation between x of a volatile anaesthetic agent and its potency

A

lipid solubility

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 9

110
Q

Volatile anaesthetic agents most likely site of action?

A

hydrophobic regions, most likely cell membranes

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 9

111
Q

Propofol and barbiturates are the IV anaesthetic agents both thought to work at?

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid receptors (GABA) by increasing chloride conductance which hyperpolarises the membrane and inhibits impulse transmission

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 9

112
Q

What are GABA receptors?

A

chloride ion channels

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 9

113
Q

Examples of adjuvants that affect depth of anaesthesia but they cannot by themselves induce anaesthesia

A

opiods and benzodiazepines

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 9

114
Q

Opiods act on?

A

opiod receptors found throughout the CNS

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 9

115
Q

Benzodiazepines act on?

A

GABA recetptors

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg 9

116
Q

In an anaesthetic context, what does awareness mean?

A

being conscious during a surgical procedure

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg10

117
Q

Are awareness and recall different?

A

Highy likely based on isolated arm technique study

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg11

118
Q

Cases at high risk of awareness are?

A

bronchoscopy
Caesarean section
Trauma cases
Cardiac surgery

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg11

119
Q

In C-sections, where is light anaesthesia the aim at least until delivery?

A

most anaesthetic agents cross the placenta and cause sedation of the baby

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg12

120
Q

In cases of ruptured aortic aneurysm, light anaesthesia is required so not to depress x

A

cardiovascular reflexes and further lower BP and CO

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg12

121
Q

What does TAP stand for?

A

Transverse abdominus plane

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg16

122
Q

The Brachial plexus is formed by the …

A

anterior rami of C5-T1

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg17

123
Q

Term that covers both spinal and epidural blocks

A

central neural blockade

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg18

124
Q

Spinal cord ends in adults at about

A

L1-2

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg18

125
Q

Name the line between the iliac crests?

A

Tuffier’s line

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg19

126
Q

Where is the epidural space

A

extends from teh foramen magnum to the lower sacrum

LA or a cateter can be inserted into it at any level

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg20

127
Q

Sympathetic outflow from the spinal cord is from …

A

T1 - T12

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg21

128
Q

Sympathetic nerves innervate the smooth muscle of blood vessels and blockade causes …

A

vasodilation and hypotension

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg21

129
Q

What is a high spinal or total spinal?

A

epidural dose of LA is accidentally injected into the subarachnoid space and the phrenic nerve is blocked, then intubation and assisted ventilation are required

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg22

130
Q

x in the spinal canal is a very serious complication and great care must be taken to prevent

A

infection

contraindicated in patients with infect, broken skin, or systemic sepsis

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg22

131
Q

neuroaxial blockade in patients taking anticoagulation is controversial because

A

formation of epidural haematoma

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg22

132
Q

signs and symptoms of spinal haematoma

A

backache
paraplegia
urinary retention

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg22

133
Q

x is generally considered an absolute contraindication to neuraxial blockade

A

full anticoaulation

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg22

134
Q

epidurals should not be performed within x hours of prophylactic administration of low-dose LMWH

A

12

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg23

135
Q

epidurals should not be performed within x hours of prophylactic administration of high-dose heparin

A

24

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg23

136
Q

an epidural catheter should not be manipulated or removed with in x hours of heparin dose

A

12

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg23

137
Q

at least x hrs should pass following removal of a catheter before further heparin is given

A

2

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg23

138
Q

Location of a spinal headache?

A

frontal or occipital

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg23

139
Q

Treatment for a spinal headache?

A

bed rest
darkened quiet room
simple analgesics
well hydrated

OR

blood patch is the definitive treatment

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg23

140
Q

Should mobilization occur after a blood patch?

A

yes

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg23

141
Q
Max doses of 
lignocaine
lignocaine with adrenaline
ropivucaine
bupivucaine
A

3mg/kg
7mg/kg
3mg/kg
2mg/kg and easy to remember because B is 2nd letter in alphabet

-dilraj thind

142
Q

Define Sedation

A

CNS depression without LOC

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg26

143
Q

Can sedation be used to compensate for inadequate local anaesthesia?

A

no

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg27

144
Q

4 major IV sedation agents

A

benzos
opiods
major tranquillisers
propofol

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg27

145
Q

Propofol is a small step from sedation to anaesthetic, where you lose xx

A

loss of airway and other reflexes

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg28

146
Q

Antidote for opiod overdose

A

naloxone

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg28

147
Q

antidote for benzo overdose

A

flumazenil

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg28

148
Q

Australia college of anaesthetics minimum monotiring for sedation is

A

BP
oximietry

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg29

149
Q

Patients that have sedation should NOT x for 24 hours

A

drive
operate machinery
make important decisions

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg29

150
Q

Define pharmacokinetics

A

What the body does to the drug
ADME= absorption distribution metabolism elimination

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg34

151
Q

Define pharmacodynamics

A

What the drug does to the body

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg34

152
Q

Explain the two compartment model

A

central compartment=circulating blood volume + well perfused tissues (brain, liver, kidenys lungs)

peripheral compartment=received much smaller proportion of cardiac output

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg35

153
Q

Volume of distribution

A

Wiki
It is the ratio of amount of drug in a body (dose) to concentration of the drug that is measured in blood, plasma, and un-bound in interstitial fluid.[3][4]

The VD of a drug represents the degree to which a drug is distributed in body tissue rather than the plasma. VD is directly proportional with the amount of drug distributed into tissue; a higher VD indicates a greater amount of tissue distribution. A VD greater than the total volume of body water (approximately 42 liters in humans[5]) is possible, and would indicate that the drug is highly distributed into tissue. In other words, the volume of distribution is smaller in the drug staying in the plasma than that of a drug that is widely distributed in tissues.[6]

In rough terms, drugs with a high lipid solubility (non-polar drugs), low rates of ionization, or low plasma protein binding capabilities have higher volumes of distribution than drugs which are more polar, more highly ionized or exhibit high plasma protein binding in the body’s environment

154
Q

Two main routes of clearancd

A

renal and hepatic

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg35

155
Q

what is a Phase I reaction

A

in hepatocytes, oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg35

156
Q

What is a phase II reaction

A

in hepatocytes, conjugation to make a substance more soluble and thus excretable

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg35

157
Q

The elmination half-life of a drug is x to its VD

A

proportional

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg35

158
Q

The elmination half-life of a drug is x to its clearance

A

inversely proportional

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg35

159
Q

In pharmacology, K refers to

A

rate constant

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg35

160
Q

drugs that are more lipid soluble tend to be x protein bound

A

more highly

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg35

161
Q

protein binding will x the VD

A

increase, as it removes drugs from the plasma event though the protein bound drug is freely interchangeable with the non-bound drug

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg35

162
Q

When plasma proteins beome saturated with the drug, a small increase in the dosage can lead to a x

A

large increase in plasma concentration

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg35

163
Q

The x form of a drug is the form that passes readily through cell membranes

A

non-ionised

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg36

164
Q

Define Potency

A

dose of a drug that is required to gain the required effect

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg36

165
Q

dose of a drug that is required to gain the required effect

A

potency

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg36

166
Q

ED50

A

Effective dose 50

dose required to have that effect in 50% of patients

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg36

167
Q

Define Efficacy

A

efficacy refers to the maximal effect that a drug can have

Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg36

168
Q

What common receptor do endorphins and encephalins act on?

A

opiod receptor

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg36

169
Q

What is the mech of action of inhaled anaesthetic agents?

A

has not been deteremined

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg36

170
Q

There is a strong corelation between x and potentecy of inahled anaesthetic agents

A

lipid solubility

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg36

171
Q

Unlike IV drugs, where effect is determined by receptor occupancy, the effect of inhalational agents is proportional to the X of the agent in the CNS

A

partial pressure

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg37

172
Q

The more blood soluable, the x it will take to equilibrate

A

longer

the way i think about it is it needs to disovle into the blood, and then it can be in gas form into the blood
-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg37

173
Q

An anaesthetic vapour with a lower blood/gas solubility and lower brain/blood solubility will eqilibrate with the brain xx than will more soluble drugs and it will have a x onset and offset

A

more quickly

quicker

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg37

174
Q

Propofol has replaced x as the most commonly used induction agent

A

thiopentone

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg37

175
Q

Propofol comes as a x% solution

A

1%

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg37

176
Q

Rapid clearance of propofol is due to x and x

A

metabolism in liver + redistribution

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

177
Q

Propofol is associated with a x incidence of nausea and vomitting

A

low

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

178
Q

Thiopentoneo can cause x if injected intra-arterially

A

ischemia

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

179
Q

Which cases a greater drop in blood pressure?

propofol vs thiopentone

A

propofol

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

180
Q

What class is thiopentone?

A

barbituate

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

181
Q

Thiopentone has x onset

options: rapid vs slow

A

rapid

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

182
Q

Why does thiopentone rapidly equilibrate with the brain?

A

high blood flow

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

183
Q

Thiopentone is metabalized by the x

A

liver

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

184
Q

Thiopentone is excreted by the

A

liver and kidneys

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

185
Q

Thipenton has a x elimination half life

A

slow

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

186
Q

How to anaesthetic agents decrease BP?

A

decrease sympathetic outflow

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

187
Q

What was the first modern anaesthetic developed?

A

Halothane

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

188
Q

Halothane has a x solubility than other commonly used vapours

A

higher

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

189
Q

All potent anaesthetic vapours have been associated with post-exposure

A

hepatitis

-Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38

190
Q

MAC of halothane is

A
  1. 7%

- Anaesthesia an introduction harley and hore pg38