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Seminar 1 > [ANA] Head/Neck Review > Flashcards

[ANA] Head/Neck Review Flashcards

1
Q

The most superior part of the skull is called:
A. Bregma
B. Vertex
C. Inion
D. Calvaria
E. NOTA

A

Vertex: The vertex is the highest point of the skull, located at the top of the cranium.
Rationalization: While Bregma (A) and Calvaria (D) are related to the skull, the vertex specifically refers to the highest point.

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2
Q

This suture joins the frontal and parietal bones:
A. Sagittal
B. Lambdoid
C. Coronal
D. Nasion
E. NOTA

A

Coronal: The coronal suture is the junction between the frontal bone and the two parietal bones.
Rationalization: The sagittal suture (A) joins the two parietal bones, and the lambdoid suture (B) joins the parietal bones with the occipital bone. Nasion (D) is a point, not a suture.

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3
Q

The most prominent projection in the posterior part of the skull is called:
A. Inion
B. External occipital protuberance
C. Superior nuchal line
D. Inferior nuchal line
E. NOTA

A

A. Inion

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4
Q

The area where the four bones on the lateral aspect of the skull articulate with each other is called:
A. Temporal fossa
B. Zygomatic arch
C. Pterion
D. Sphenoid
E. NOTA

A

Pterion: This is the region where the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet.
Rationalization: The temporal fossa (A) and zygomatic arch (B) are nearby structures, but Pterion is specifically where these four bones articulate.

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5
Q

The largest and strongest of the facial bones is:
A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Nasal bone
D. Temporal
E. Frontal

A

Mandible: The mandible is the largest and strongest bone in the face, forming the lower jaw.
Rationalization: The maxilla (A) is large but not as strong as the mandible, which supports the lower teeth and facilitates mastication.

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6
Q

In superficial laceration of the scalp, the wound does not gape due to the strength of this layer:
A. Skin
B. Connective tissue
C. Aponeurosis epicranialis
D. Loose areolar tissue
E. Pericranium

A

Aponeurosis epicranialis: This layer, also known as the galea aponeurotica, provides tensile strength and holds the scalp together.
Rationalization: The other layers (skin, connective tissue, loose areolar tissue, and pericranium) do not have the same tensile strength to prevent gaping.

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7
Q

Considered the dangerous area of the scalp because blood and pus can easily spread through this layer:
A. Skin
B. Connective tissue
C. Aponeurosis epicranialis
D. Loose areolar tissue
E. Pericranium

A

Loose areolar tissue: This layer allows easy spread of infection and blood due to its loose structure.
Rationalization: The other layers (skin, connective tissue, aponeurosis epicranialis, and pericranium) are more confined and do not facilitate such spread.

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8
Q

Muscles of facial expression are innervated by:
A. Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
B. Vagus nerve (CN X)
C. Facial nerve (CN VII)
D. Oculomotor nerve (CN III)
E. NOTA

A

Facial nerve (CN VII): This nerve controls the muscles responsible for facial expressions.
Rationalization: The trigeminal nerve (A) is primarily responsible for sensation, not muscle movement.

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9
Q

This nerve is sensory to the skin covering the tip of the nose:
A. CN V1
B. CN V2
C. CN V3
D. CN VII
E. NOTA

A

CN V1 (Ophthalmic branch of Trigeminal nerve): The tip of the nose is innervated by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.
Rationalization: CN V2 and CN V3 innervate other areas of the face, and CN VII is responsible for motor functions, not sensory.

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10
Q

The chief artery of the face is:
A. Superficial temporal artery
B. Facial artery
C. Transverse facial artery
D. Lingual artery
E. NOTA

A

Facial artery: This artery is the main supplier of blood to the face.
Rationalization: While the superficial temporal artery (A) and transverse facial artery (C) also supply the face, the facial artery is the primary artery providing extensive branches to various facial regions.

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11
Q

The following bones make up the orbit, EXCEPT:
A. Ethmoid
B. Sphenoid
C. Maxillary
D. Nasal
E. NOTA

A

Nasal: The nasal bone forms the bridge of the nose and does not contribute to the formation of the orbit.
Rationalization: Ethmoid, sphenoid, and maxillary bones all contribute to the orbit, but the nasal bone is not part of it.

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12
Q

Which intraocular muscle is innervated by the abducent nerve?
A. Superior oblique
B. Superior rectus
C. Inferior oblique
D. Lateral rectus
E. NOTA

A

Lateral rectus: The abducent nerve (CN VI) specifically innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which abducts the eye.
Rationalization: The superior oblique is innervated by the trochlear nerve (CN IV), and the other muscles are innervated by the oculomotor nerve (CN III).

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13
Q

The central depressed area of the macula, which has the most acute vision, is called:
A. Optic fundus
B. Fovea centralis
C. Retina
D. Optic disc
E. Optic papilla

A

Fovea centralis: This area of the macula provides the sharpest vision due to a high concentration of cone cells.
Rationalization: The optic fundus is the back of the eye, the retina is the light-sensitive layer, and the optic disc is the blind spot where the optic nerve exits.

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14
Q

Of the structures traversing the parotid gland, which is the most superficial?
A. Facial nerve
B. Retromandibular vein
C. External carotid artery
D. Internal jugular vein
E. Internal carotid artery

A

Facial nerve: The facial nerve is the most superficial of the structures passing through the parotid gland.
Rationalization: The retromandibular vein and external carotid artery are deeper within the parotid gland.

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15
Q

This branch of the facial nerve innervates the mentalis muscle:
A. Zygomatic
B. Buccal
C. Cervical
D. Mandibular
E. Temporal

A

Mandibular: The mandibular branch of the facial nerve (CN VII) innervates the mentalis muscle.
Rationalization: The other branches of the facial nerve innervate different facial muscles.

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16
Q

Stensen’s duct opens opposite to the:
A. Lower 2nd premolar tooth
B. Upper 1st premolar tooth
C. Upper 2nd molar tooth
D. Base of tongue
E. NOTA

A

Upper 2nd molar tooth: Stensen’s duct, the duct of the parotid gland, opens in the oral cavity opposite the upper second molar.
Rationalization: The other options do not correspond to the opening site of Stensen’s duct.

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17
Q

The main arterial supply of the infratemporal fossa is:
A. Lingual artery
B. Facial artery
C. Superficial temporal artery
D. Maxillary artery
E. NOTA

A

Maxillary artery: The maxillary artery is the primary source of blood for the infratemporal fossa.
Rationalization: Other arteries mentioned supply different regions of the face and neck.

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18
Q

The following are muscles that produce the biting movement EXCEPT:
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral pterygoid
E. NOTA

A

Lateral pterygoid: This muscle primarily assists in opening the mouth and protruding the mandible, not in biting.
Rationalization: The masseter, temporalis, and medial pterygoid are involved in biting and elevating the mandible.

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19
Q

This muscle divides the maxillary artery into three parts:
A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Masseter
D. Buccinator
E. SCM

A

Lateral pterygoid: The maxillary artery is divided into three parts relative to the lateral pterygoid muscle.
Rationalization: Other muscles mentioned do not divide the maxillary artery into segments.

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20
Q

The dorsal aspect of the tongue is divided into the oral and pharyngeal parts by:
A. Foramen cecum
B. Vallate papillae
C. Lingual frenulum
D. Sulcus terminalis
E. None of the above

A

Sulcus terminalis: This V-shaped groove marks the division between the oral and pharyngeal parts of the tongue.
Rationalization: The foramen cecum is a pit at the apex of the sulcus terminalis, the lingual frenulum is on the underside of the tongue, and the vallate papillae are located anterior to the sulcus terminalis.

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21
Q

The largest of the extrinsic muscles of the tongue is:
A. Genioglossus
B. Hyoglossus
C. Styloglossus
D. Palatoglossus
E. NOTA

A

Genioglossus: This muscle is the largest and strongest of the extrinsic tongue muscles, responsible for protruding the tongue.
Rationalization: The other muscles (hyoglossus, styloglossus, palatoglossus) are smaller and perform different functions.

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22
Q

The part of the tooth that projects from the gingiva and meets with the tooth in the opposite jaw is:
A. Cementum
B. Crown
C. Dentine
D. Enamel

A

Crown: The crown is the visible part of the tooth above the gum line that meets with the tooth in the opposite jaw.
Rationalization: Cementum covers the root, dentine forms the bulk of the tooth beneath the enamel, and enamel is the outermost layer but does not define the projecting part alone.

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23
Q

The following are main components of the nasal septum, EXCEPT:
A. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone
B. Cribriform plate
C. Vomer
D. Septal cartilage
E. NOTA

A

Cribriform plate: This part of the ethmoid bone forms the roof of the nasal cavity but is not part of the nasal septum.
Rationalization: The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, vomer, and septal cartilage all contribute to the nasal septum.

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24
Q

The nasolacrimal duct opens into:
A. Sphenoethmoidal recess
B. Superior meatus
C. Middle meatus
D. Inferior meatus
E. NOTA

A

Inferior meatus: This duct drains tears from the lacrimal sac into the nasal cavity at the inferior meatus.
Rationalization: The other options are incorrect locations for the opening of the nasolacrimal duct.

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25
Q

Which branch of the maxillary artery supplies most of the blood to the nasal mucosa?
A. Greater palatine
B. Sphenopalatine
C. Anterior ethmoidal
D. Ascending palatine
E. NOTA

A

Sphenopalatine: This artery is the primary supplier of blood to the nasal mucosa.
Rationalization: The greater palatine artery supplies the hard palate, the anterior ethmoidal artery supplies the anterior ethmoidal sinuses, and the ascending palatine artery supplies parts of the palate and pharynx.

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26
Q

This paranasal sinus is located posterior to the orbit:
A. Frontal
B. Ethmoidal
C. Sphenoid
D. Maxillary
E. NOTA

A

Sphenoid: The sphenoid sinuses are located posterior to the orbit.
Rationalization: The other sinuses (frontal, ethmoidal, maxillary) are not located posterior to the orbit.

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27
Q

The following ducts/sinuses drain into the middle meatus, EXCEPT:
A. Frontonasal duct
B. Anterior ethmoidal cells
C. Middle ethmoidal cells
D. Posterior ethmoidal cells
E. NOTA

A

Posterior ethmoidal cells: These cells drain into the superior meatus.
Rationalization: The frontonasal duct, anterior ethmoidal cells, and middle ethmoidal cells all drain into the middle meatus.

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28
Q

This structure separates the middle ear from the external ear:
A. Auricle
B. Auditory tube
C. Tympanic membrane
D. Concha
E. NOTA

A

Tympanic membrane: This membrane separates the external ear from the middle ear.
Rationalization: The auricle is the outer ear structure, the auditory tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, and the concha is part of the outer ear.

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29
Q

This part of the auricle is devoid of cartilage:
A. Helix
B. Tragus
C. Earlobe
D. Opening of the external acoustic meatus
E. AOTA

A

Earlobe: The earlobe (lobule) is the only part of the auricle that lacks cartilage.
Rationalization: The helix, tragus, and opening of the external acoustic meatus all contain cartilage.

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30
Q

The central depression in the tympanic membrane formed by the handle of the malleus is called:
A. Pyramid
B. Pars tensa
C. Anterior mallear fold
D. Umbo
E. Pars flaccida

A

Umbo: This is the point where the handle of the malleus attaches to the tympanic membrane, creating a central depression.
Rationalization: The pyramid, pars tensa, anterior mallear fold, and pars flaccida are other parts of the tympanic membrane but do not describe the central depression.

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31
Q

Features of the medial wall of the tympanic cavity, EXCEPT:
A. Fenestra cochlea
B. Fenestra vestibuli
C. Promontory
D. Tympanic plexus nerves
E. NOTA

A

Fenestra cochlea: The correct term is fenestra cochleae, also known as the round window, which is part of the inner ear.
Rationalization: Fenestra vestibuli (B), promontory (C), and tympanic plexus nerves (D) are all features of the medial wall of the tympanic cavity. The term “fenestra cochlea” is incorrect.

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32
Q

This funnel-shaped structure connects the nasopharynx to the middle ear:
A. Tubal tonsil
B. Eustachian Tube
C. Petrosquamous fissure
D. Pyramidal eminence
E. NOTA

A

Eustachian Tube: Also known as the auditory tube, it connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx.
Rationalization: Tubal tonsil (A) is a lymphoid tissue, petrosquamous fissure (C) is a cranial fissure, and pyramidal eminence (D) is a part of the middle ear but not the connecting structure.

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33
Q

The primary organ for balance is:
A. Cochlea
B. Vestibule
C. Semicircular canals
D. Perilymph
E. NOTA

A

Vestibule: The vestibule, along with the semicircular canals, is a crucial component of the inner ear that contributes to balance and spatial orientation.
Rationalization: While the semicircular canals (C) play a significant role in detecting rotational movements, the vestibule (B) contains the utricle and saccule, which detect linear accelerations and head position relative to gravity, making it a primary organ for balance. The cochlea (A) is involved in hearing, and perilymph (D) is a fluid within the inner ear that supports both balance and hearing functions, but it is not an organ.

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34
Q

The laryngeal prominence (Adam’s apple) in the anterior neck is produced by:
A. Cricoid cartilage
B. Hyoid bone
C. Thyroid cartilage
D. Tracheal rings
E. NOTA

A

Thyroid cartilage: This cartilage forms the Adam’s apple.
Rationalization: The cricoid cartilage (A) is located below the thyroid cartilage, the hyoid bone (B) is above the thyroid cartilage, and tracheal rings (D) are below the cricoid cartilage.

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35
Q

Which muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles?
A. Platysma
B. Trapezius
C. Sternohyoid
D. SCM (Sternocleidomastoid)
E. NOTA

A

SCM (Sternocleidomastoid): This muscle divides the neck into the anterior and posterior triangles.
Rationalization: The platysma (A) is a superficial muscle, the trapezius (B) is a back muscle, and the sternohyoid (C) is a strap muscle in the anterior neck.

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36
Q

This nerve divides the posterior cervical triangle into equal superior and inferior parts:
A. Spinal accessory nerve
B. Great auricular nerve
C. Lesser occipital nerve
D. Supraclavicular nerve
E. NOTA

A

Spinal accessory nerve: This nerve traverses the posterior cervical triangle and divides it.
Rationalization: The great auricular nerve (B), lesser occipital nerve (C), and supraclavicular nerve (D) do not divide the posterior cervical triangle.

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37
Q

This muscle divides both the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck into smaller triangles (sub-triangles):
A. Digastric
B. SCM (Sternocleidomastoid)
C. Platysma
D. Omohyoid
E. Scalenus medius

A

Omohyoid: This muscle divides the neck’s triangles into smaller sub-triangles.
Rationalization: The digastric (A) muscle primarily affects the submandibular triangle, the SCM (B) divides the main triangles, the platysma (C) is superficial, and the scalenus medius (E) is deeper.

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38
Q

The vertebra prominens, the most pointed part of the back of the neck, is the spinous process of what bone?
A. C6
B. C7
C. T1
D. T2
E. One of the above

A

C7: The spinous process of the seventh cervical vertebra is the vertebra prominens.
Rationalization: C6 (A) is not as prominent, and T1 (C) and T2 (D) are thoracic vertebrae.

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39
Q

The following are subdivisions of the anterior cervical triangle, EXCEPT:
A. Muscular
B. Submental
C. Carotid
D. Submandibular
E. Occipital

A

Occipital: The occipital triangle is a subdivision of the posterior cervical triangle.
Rationalization: The muscular (A), submental (B), carotid (C), and submandibular (D) triangles are all subdivisions of the anterior cervical triangle.

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40
Q

This anterior neck sub-triangle contains the cervical viscera:
A. Submandibular
B. Muscular
C. Carotid
D. Submental
E. Occipital

A

Muscular: This triangle contains the infrahyoid muscles, thyroid gland, and parathyroid glands, which are part of the cervical viscera.
Rationalization: The submandibular (A), carotid (C), and submental (D) triangles do not contain the cervical viscera. The occipital triangle (E) is part of the posterior triangle.

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41
Q

The following vessels supply the thyroid gland, EXCEPT:
A. Superior thyroid artery
B. Middle thyroid artery
C. Inferior thyroid artery
D. Thyroidea ima artery
E. NOTA

A

Middle thyroid artery: There is no middle thyroid artery; the main vessels supplying the thyroid gland are the superior thyroid artery, the inferior thyroid artery, and occasionally the thyroidea ima artery.
Rationalization: The superior thyroid artery (A), inferior thyroid artery (C), and thyroidea ima artery (D) all supply the thyroid gland.

42
Q

True of parathyroid glands, EXCEPT:
A. They number 2-6
B. Superior parathyroids are more constant in position than inferior parathyroids
C. Yellow-brown color in real life
D. Supplied by the inferior thyroid artery
E. NOTA

A

NOTA: All the provided statements about the parathyroid glands are true.
Rationalization: Parathyroid glands typically number 2-6 (A), the superior parathyroids are more constant in position (B), they are yellow-brown in color (C), and they are usually supplied by the inferior thyroid artery (D).

43
Q

Continuation of the digestive system from the oral cavity:
A. Esophagus
B. Tongue
C. Pharynx
D. Larynx
E. Mouth

A

Pharynx: The pharynx continues the digestive tract posterior to the oral cavity.
Rationalization: The esophagus (A) follows the pharynx in the digestive pathway, the tongue (B) is within the oral cavity, the larynx (D) is part of the respiratory system, and the mouth (E) is the oral cavity itself.

44
Q

This layer of the pharyngeal wall is made up of a tough fibrous sheath:
A. Mucous membrane
B. Submucosa
C. Pharyngobasilar fascia
D. Muscular layer
E. Buccopharyngeal fascia

A

Pharyngobasilar fascia: This tough fibrous sheath provides structural support to the pharyngeal wall.
Rationalization: The mucous membrane (A) is the innermost layer, the submucosa (B) lies beneath the mucosa, the muscular layer (D) provides movement, and the buccopharyngeal fascia (E) is the outermost layer covering the pharynx.

45
Q

All pharyngeal muscles are innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X), EXCEPT:
A. Constrictor muscles
B. Stylopharyngeus
C. Salpingopharyngeus
D. Palatopharyngeus
E. NOTA

A

Stylopharyngeus: This muscle is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX).
Rationalization: The constrictor muscles (A), salpingopharyngeus (C), and palatopharyngeus (D) are innervated by the vagus nerve.

46
Q

The following constitute the laryngeal skeleton, EXCEPT:
A. Thyroid cartilage
B. Epiglottis
C. Corniculate cartilage
D. Hyoid bone
E. NOTA

A

Hyoid bone: The hyoid bone supports the larynx but is not part of the laryngeal skeleton itself.
Rationalization: The thyroid cartilage (A), epiglottis (B), and corniculate cartilage (C) are all part of the laryngeal skeleton.

47
Q

All laryngeal muscles are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve, EXCEPT:
A. Cricothyroid
B. Cricoarytenoid
C. Thyroarytenoid
D. Vocalis
E. NOTA

A

Cricothyroid: This muscle is innervated by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, not the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Rationalization: The cricoarytenoid (B), thyroarytenoid (C), and vocalis (D) muscles are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

48
Q

The glottis is the structure most directly concerned with voice production and is related to the:
A. Vestibule
B. Vocal folds
C. Vocal cords
D. Ventricle
E. Infraglottic cavity

A

Vocal folds: The vocal folds, also known as vocal cords, are the primary structures involved in voice production.
Rationalization: The vestibule (A) is above the vocal folds, the vocal cords (C) is another term for vocal folds, the ventricle (D) is a space between the vocal and vestibular folds, and the infraglottic cavity (E) is below the vocal folds.

49
Q

This cervical fascia completely encircles the neck:
A. Pretracheal
B. Investing layer
C. Prevertebral
D. Carotid sheath
E. NOTA

A

Investing layer: This layer of the deep cervical fascia completely encircles the neck, enclosing the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles.
Rationalization: The pretracheal fascia (A) is limited to the anterior part of the neck, the prevertebral fascia (C) covers the vertebral column and associated muscles, and the carotid sheath (D) encloses the carotid artery, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve.

50
Q

The carotid sheath contains the following structures, EXCEPT:
A. Carotid artery
B. Internal jugular vein (IJV)
C. Vagus nerve
D. Esophagus
E. NOTA

A

Esophagus: The esophagus is not contained within the carotid sheath.
Rationalization: The carotid artery (A), internal jugular vein (B), and vagus nerve (C) are all enclosed within the carotid sheath.

51
Q

The transtubercular plane in the abdomen passes through which vertebral level?
A. T10
B. T12
C. L1
D. L3
E. L5

A

L5: The transtubercular plane is an imaginary horizontal plane that passes through the body of the fifth lumbar vertebra.
Rationalization: The other vertebral levels (T10, T12, L1, L3) do not correspond to the transtubercular plane.

52
Q

In which of the following regions of the abdomen is the approximate location of the pancreas?
A. Right hypochondriac
B. Epigastric
C. Umbilical
D. Hypogastric
E. Left lumbar

A

Epigastric: The pancreas is primarily located in the epigastric region of the abdomen.
Rationalization: The right hypochondriac (A), umbilical (C), hypogastric (D), and left lumbar (E) regions are not the primary locations of the pancreas.

53
Q

Which of the following landmarks/structures mark the inferior limit of the posterior rectus sheath?
A. Symphysis pubis
B. Linea alba
C. Linea semilunaris
D. Arcuate line
E. Inguinal ligament

A

Arcuate line: This line marks the lower limit of the posterior layer of the rectus sheath.
Rationalization: The other landmarks (symphysis pubis, linea alba, linea semilunaris, inguinal ligament) are not related to the inferior limit of the posterior rectus sheath.

54
Q

The superficial inguinal ring transmits the following structures, EXCEPT:
A. Ilioinguinal nerve
B. Testicular artery
C. Round ligament of uterus
D. Superficial circumflex iliac artery
E. Pampiniform plexus of veins

A

Superficial circumflex iliac artery: This artery does not pass through the superficial inguinal ring.
Rationalization: The ilioinguinal nerve (A), testicular artery (B), round ligament of uterus (C), and pampiniform plexus of veins (E) all pass through the superficial inguinal ring.

55
Q

The esophageal hiatus transmits the following structures, EXCEPT:
A. Posterior vagal trunk
B. Thoracic duct
C. Left phrenic nerve
D. Esophagus
E. Esophageal branch of left gastric artery

A

Thoracic duct: The thoracic duct passes through the aortic hiatus, not the esophageal hiatus.
Rationalization: The other options (posterior vagal trunk, left phrenic nerve, esophagus, esophageal branch of left gastric artery) all pass through the esophageal hiatus.

56
Q

The following structures are contained within the porta hepatis, EXCEPT:
A. Hepatic artery proper
B. Hepatic vein
C. Hepatic ducts
D. Hepatic nerve plexus
E. Portal vein

A

Hepatic vein: The hepatic veins drain directly into the inferior vena cava and do not pass through the porta hepatis.
Rationalization: The hepatic artery proper (A), hepatic ducts (C), hepatic nerve plexus (D), and portal vein (E) are all contained within the porta hepatis.

57
Q

On the ventral surface of the liver, the right sagittal limb of fissures is occupied by the:
A. Ductus venosus
B. Ligamentum venosum
C. Umbilical vein
D. Ligamentum teres
E. Inferior vena cava

A

Inferior vena cava: This large vein is located in the right sagittal limb of fissures on the ventral surface of the liver.
Rationalization: The ductus venosus (A) and ligamentum venosum (B) are located in different regions, and the umbilical vein (C) and ligamentum teres (D) are on the left side.

58
Q

Which of the following structures define the bare area of the liver?
A. Coronary ligaments
B. Ligamentum teres
C. Ligamentum venosum
D. Triangular ligaments
E. Falciform ligament

A

Coronary ligaments: These ligaments demarcate the bare area of the liver.
Rationalization: The ligamentum teres (B), ligamentum venosum (C), triangular ligaments (D), and falciform ligament (E) do not define the bare area.

59
Q

The common bile duct and pancreatic duct unite to form the:
A. Duct of Santorini
B. Duct of Wirsung
C. Hepatopancreatic ampulla
D. Duct of Wharton
E. Duct of Rivinus

A

Hepatopancreatic ampulla: Also known as the ampulla of Vater, this structure is formed by the union of the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct.
Rationalization: The duct of Santorini (A) is an accessory pancreatic duct, the duct of Wirsung (B) is another name for the main pancreatic duct, the duct of Wharton (D) is associated with the submandibular gland, and the duct of Rivinus (E) refers to small ducts of the sublingual gland.

60
Q

The triangle of Calot is an imaginary area used to locate the approximate location of the:
A. Cystic duct
B. Right hepatic duct
C. Common hepatic bile duct
D. Cystic artery
E. Right hepatic artery

A

Cystic artery: The triangle of Calot, defined by the cystic duct, common hepatic duct, and inferior edge of the liver, is used to locate the cystic artery.
Rationalization: The cystic duct (A), right hepatic duct (B), and common hepatic bile duct (C) are boundaries, not the focus of the triangle. The right hepatic artery (E) is not specifically located within this triangle.

61
Q

Which of the following landmarks demarcate the junction between the body of the stomach and the pylorus?
A. Greater curvature
B. Cardia
C. Cardiac notch
D. Incisura angularis
E. Fundus

A

Incisura angularis: This notch marks the angular incision on the lesser curvature of the stomach and serves as a landmark for the junction between the body and pylorus.
Rationalization: The greater curvature (A), cardia (B), cardiac notch (C), and fundus (E) are not involved in demarcating this junction.

62
Q

The stomach receives blood supply from the following arteries, EXCEPT:
A. Common hepatic
B. Superior mesenteric
C. Gastroduodenal
D. Splenic
E. Hepatic artery proper

A

Superior mesenteric: This artery primarily supplies the midgut, not the stomach.
Rationalization: The common hepatic (A), gastroduodenal (C), splenic (D), and hepatic artery proper (E) all contribute to the blood supply of the stomach.

63
Q

Which part of the stomach is drained by the right gastric group of lymph nodes?
A. Fundus
B. Body
C. Greater curvature
D. Lesser curvature
E. Pylorus

A

Lesser curvature: The right gastric lymph nodes are associated with the lesser curvature of the stomach.
Rationalization: The fundus (A), body (B), greater curvature (C), and pylorus (E) are drained by different groups of lymph nodes.

64
Q

Which of the following organs DOES NOT make an impression on the visceral surface of the spleen?
A. Stomach
B. Pancreas
C. Kidney
D. Colon
E. None of the above

A

Pancreas: The pancreas does not directly make an impression on the spleen.
Rationalization: The stomach (A), kidney (C), and colon (D) all make impressions on the visceral surface of the spleen.

65
Q

The major duodenal papilla is located along which part of the descending duodenum?
A. Posterior
B. Anteromedial
C. Posteromedial
D. Posterolateral
E. Anterolateral

A

Posteromedial: The major duodenal papilla is located on the posteromedial wall of the descending duodenum.
Rationalization: The other locations (posterior, anteromedial, posterolateral, anterolateral) are not correct for the major duodenal papilla.

66
Q

Which of the following vessels is the largest branch of the celiac trunk?
A. Left gastric
B. Gastroduodenal
C. Common hepatic
D. Splenic
E. Hepatic artery proper

A

Splenic: The splenic artery is typically the largest branch of the celiac trunk.
Rationalization: The left gastric (A), gastroduodenal (B), common hepatic (C), and hepatic artery proper (E) are smaller branches compared to the splenic artery.

67
Q

The accessory pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum via the:
A. Hepatopancreatic ampulla
B. Uncinate process
C. Minor duodenal papilla
D. Major duodenal papilla
E. Tuber omentale

A

Minor duodenal papilla: This is the opening for the accessory pancreatic duct.
Rationalization: The hepatopancreatic ampulla (A) is for the main pancreatic duct, the uncinate process (B) is a part of the pancreas, and the major duodenal papilla (D) is for the main pancreatic duct. Tuber omentale (E) is a part of the pancreas.

68
Q

Which of the following segments is the widest and most fixed part of the small intestine?
A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C. Jejunum
D. Ileum
E. Cecum

A

Duodenum: The duodenum is the widest and most fixed part of the small intestine.
Rationalization: The stomach (A) is not part of the small intestine, and the jejunum (C), ileum (D), and cecum (E) are more mobile.

69
Q

Which part of the duodenum is considered to be mobile?
A. Descending
B. Transverse
C. Superior
D. Ascending
E. Oblique

A

Superior: The first part of the duodenum, also known as the superior part, is considered to be the most mobile.
Rationalization: The descending (A), transverse (B), and ascending (D) parts of the duodenum are relatively fixed due to their retroperitoneal positioning.

70
Q

Which of the following structures define the duodenojejunal junction?
A. Celiac trunk
B. Triangle of Calot
C. Taenia coli
D. Ligament of Treitz
E. Falciform ligament

A

Ligament of Treitz: This ligament supports the duodenojejunal flexure and marks the junction between the duodenum and jejunum.
Rationalization: The celiac trunk (A), triangle of Calot (B), taenia coli (C), and falciform ligament (E) are not involved in defining this junction.

71
Q

Thicker/heavier wall:
A. Jejunum
B. Ileum
C. Large intestine

A

Jejunum: The wall of the jejunum is thicker and more muscular compared to the ileum and large intestine.
Rationalization: The jejunum has thicker walls due to more prominent circular folds and a greater density of blood vessels, aiding in absorption.

72
Q

Numerous, short vasa recta:
A. Jejunum
B. Ileum
C. Large intestine

A

Ileum: The ileum has numerous but shorter vasa recta compared to the jejunum.
Rationalization: In the jejunum, the vasa recta are longer and less numerous, while in the ileum, they are shorter and more numerous.

73
Q

Abundant plicae circulares:
A. Jejunum
B. Ileum
C. Large intestine

A

Jejunum: The jejunum contains more numerous and prominent plicae circulares compared to the ileum and large intestine.
Rationalization: These circular folds increase the surface area for absorption in the jejunum.

74
Q

Peyer’s patches:
A. Jejunum
B. Ileum
C. Large intestine

A

Ileum: Peyer’s patches, which are lymphoid nodules, are abundant in the ileum.
Rationalization: The ileum contains many Peyer’s patches as part of the immune system to monitor intestinal bacteria and prevent infection.

75
Q

Fat deposits near root, scanty near the intestine:
A. Jejunum
B. Ileum
C. Large intestine

A

Jejunum: Fat is more concentrated near the root of the mesentery and scanty near the intestinal wall in the jejunum.
Rationalization: In the ileum, fat is more evenly distributed, and in the large intestine, fat is primarily stored in appendices epiploicae.

76
Q

Sacculated walls:
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Jejunum

A

Large intestine: The walls of the large intestine are sacculated, forming pouches called haustra.
Rationalization: The small intestine has smooth walls without sacculations.

77
Q

Entirely mobile:
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Ileum

A

Small intestine: The small intestine, particularly the jejunum and ileum, is entirely mobile due to its mesentery.
Rationalization: The large intestine is partially fixed, especially the ascending and descending colon.

78
Q

Folds in mucous membrane:
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Ileum

A

Small intestine: The small intestine contains numerous folds called plicae circulares in the mucous membrane.
Rationalization: These folds are present throughout the small intestine, particularly in the jejunum.

79
Q

Three bands of longitudinal muscle:
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Jejunum

A

Large intestine: The large intestine has three distinct longitudinal muscle bands called teniae coli.
Rationalization: These bands are not present in the small intestine.

80
Q

Appendices epiploicae:
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Jejunum

A

Large intestine: The large intestine is characterized by the presence of appendices epiploicae, which are small fat-filled pouches of peritoneum.
Rationalization: These structures are not found in the small intestine.

81
Q

Which of the following vessels is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery?
A. Ileocolic
B. Gonadal
C. Left colic
D. Sigmoid
E. Superior rectal

A

A. Ileocolic
Rationalization: The ileocolic artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) and supplies the terminal ileum, cecum, and appendix. The gonadal artery (B) branches from the aorta, the left colic (C) and sigmoid (D) arteries are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery, and the superior rectal (E) is the terminal branch of the inferior mesenteric artery.

82
Q

In a great majority of cases, the cystic artery branches from the:
A. Left hepatic artery
B. Right hepatic artery
C. Hepatic artery proper
D. Gastroduodenal artery
E. Common hepatic artery

A

B. Right hepatic artery
Rationalization: The cystic artery typically branches from the right hepatic artery, which supplies the gallbladder. The other arteries listed (left hepatic, hepatic artery proper, gastroduodenal, and common hepatic) are not the usual source of the cystic artery.

83
Q

Which of the following arteries is considered the terminal end of the inferior mesenteric artery?
A. Left colic
B. Middle colic
C. Artery of Drummond
D. Superior rectal
E. Sigmoid

A

D. Superior rectal
Rationalization: The superior rectal artery is the terminal branch of the inferior mesenteric artery and supplies the rectum. The left colic (A) and sigmoid (E) are other branches of the inferior mesenteric artery, while the middle colic (B) is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery, and the artery of Drummond (C) is a marginal artery.

84
Q

Which of the following veins form a porto-caval anastomosis?
A. Left and right gastric veins
B. Hepatic vein and IVC
C. Superior and middle rectal veins
D. Superficial and inferior epigastric veins
E. Superior rectal

A

C. Superior and middle rectal veins
Rationalization: The superior rectal vein drains into the portal system via the inferior mesenteric vein, and the middle rectal vein drains into the systemic venous system via the internal iliac vein, creating a porto-caval anastomosis. The other vein pairs listed do not form porto-caval anastomoses.

85
Q

The cecum is supplied by which blood vessel?
A. Left colic artery
B. Right colic artery
C. Middle colic artery
D. Inferior mesenteric artery
E. Ileocolic artery

A

E. Ileocolic artery
Rationalization: The ileocolic artery, a branch of the superior mesenteric artery, supplies blood to the cecum. The left colic (A) and sigmoid (E) arteries are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery, while the right colic (B) and middle colic (C) arteries are also branches of the superior mesenteric artery but do not directly supply the cecum.

86
Q

To which vessel does the left gonadal vein drain into?
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Azygos vein
C. Inferior mesenteric vein
D. Renal vein
E. Portal vein

A

D. Renal vein
Rationalization: The left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein. The right gonadal vein drains directly into the inferior vena cava (A). The azygos vein (B), inferior mesenteric vein (C), and portal vein (E) are not involved in the drainage of the left gonadal vein.

87
Q

Which of the following structures provides a connection between the lesser and greater sacs?
A. Ligament of Treitz
B. Foramen of Winslow
C. Ampulla of Vater
D. Arc of Riolan
E. White line of Toldt

A

B. Foramen of Winslow
Rationalization: The foramen of Winslow, also known as the epiploic foramen, connects the lesser sac (omental bursa) with the greater sac. The ligament of Treitz (A) is the suspensory ligament of the duodenum, the ampulla of Vater (C) is where the bile and pancreatic ducts empty into the duodenum, the arc of Riolan (D) is a vascular connection, and the white line of Toldt (E) is a peritoneal reflection.

88
Q

The most common position of the appendix is:
A. Post-ileal
B. Subcecal
C. Retrocecal
D. Paracecal
E. Pelvic

A

C. Retrocecal
Rationalization: The appendix is most commonly found in a retrocecal position, located behind the cecum. Other positions (post-ileal, subcecal, paracecal, pelvic) are less common.

89
Q

The renal medulla is composed of tissue called:
A. Nephron
B. Renal pyramid
C. Renal sinus
D. Renal calyx
E. Renal cortex

A

B. Renal pyramid
Rationalization: The renal medulla is composed of renal pyramids, which contain the nephron loops and collecting ducts. Nephron (A) refers to the functional unit of the kidney, the renal sinus (C) is a cavity within the kidney, the renal calyx (D) is part of the collecting system, and the renal cortex (E) is the outer part of the kidney.

90
Q

At the renal hilum, which structure is most anterior?
A. Renal vein
B. Renal artery
C. Renal pelvis
D. Ureter
E. Major calyx

A

A. Renal vein
Rationalization: At the renal hilum, the renal vein is the most anterior structure, followed by the renal artery and then the renal pelvis. The ureter (D) and major calyx (E) are not typically described in this context but are related to the renal pelvis.

91
Q

Which of the following structures intimately encloses the kidney?
A. Renal capsule
B. Perirenal fat
C. Renal fascia
D. Pararenal fat
E. Peritoneum

A

A. Renal capsule
Rationalization: The renal capsule is a tough fibrous layer that directly encloses the kidney. Perirenal fat (B) surrounds the kidney and adrenal gland, renal fascia (C) encloses the perirenal fat, pararenal fat (D) is external to the renal fascia, and the peritoneum (E) is the serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity.

92
Q

Which of the following structures envelopes both the kidney and adrenal gland?
A. Renal capsule
B. Perirenal fat
C. Renal fascia
D. Pararenal fat
E. Peritoneum

A

C. Renal fascia
Rationalization: The renal fascia (Gerota’s fascia) envelops both the kidney and adrenal gland, along with the perirenal fat. The renal capsule (A) encloses only the kidney, perirenal fat (B) is within the renal fascia, pararenal fat (D) is outside the renal fascia, and the peritoneum (E) is not specific to these organs.

93
Q

Which of the following structures divide the abdominal cavity into supracolic and infracolic compartments?
A. Transverse mesocolon
B. Falciform ligament
C. Mesentery proper
D. Ligament of Treitz
E. Peritoneum

A

A. Transverse mesocolon
Rationalization: The transverse mesocolon divides the abdominal cavity into supracolic (above) and infracolic (below) compartments. The falciform ligament (B) attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall, the mesentery proper (C) supports the small intestine, the ligament of Treitz (D) suspends the duodenojejunal junction, and the peritoneum (E) lines the abdominal cavity but does not create these compartments.

94
Q

Which of the following structures is occupied by staghorn calculi?
A. Appendix
B. Stomach
C. Ureter
D. Renal calyx
E. Colon

A

D. Renal calyx
Rationalization: Staghorn calculi are large kidney stones that occupy the renal calyces and pelvis. The appendix (A), stomach (B), ureter (C), and colon (E) do not typically contain staghorn calculi.

95
Q

The infracolic compartment is further divided into right and left spaces by which structure?
A. Abdominal aorta
B. Paracolic gutter
C. Falciform ligament
D. Mesentery of small intestine
E. Greater omentum

A

D. Mesentery of small intestine
Rationalization: The mesentery of the small intestine divides the infracolic compartment into right and left spaces. The abdominal aorta (A) is a midline structure, the paracolic gutters (B) are lateral to the infracolic compartment, the falciform ligament (C) is associated with the liver, and the greater omentum (E) hangs from the stomach.

96
Q

In which of the following organs is Meckel’s diverticulum most commonly found?
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Ascending colon
E. Sigmoid colon

A

C. Ileum
Rationalization: Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital outpouching found in the ileum. It is not found in the duodenum (A), jejunum (B), ascending colon (D), or sigmoid colon (E).

97
Q

Which of the following is the surface marking of McBurney’s point?
A. 1/3 distance from ASIS to umbilicus
B. 1/3 distance from PSIS to umbilicus
C. 2/3 distance from ASIS to umbilicus
D. 2/3 distance from PSIS to umbilicus
E. Midway between the ASIS and the umbilicus

A

A. 1/3 distance from ASIS to umbilicus
Rationalization: McBurney’s point is classically located at one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the umbilicus. This point is used as a clinical landmark for the location of the base of the appendix, which is relatively constant in this position. The other options are incorrect measurements for McBurney’s point.

98
Q

The following structures comprise the stomach bed, EXCEPT:
A. Splenic vein
B. Pancreas
C. Splenic artery
D. Transverse mesocolon
E. Left suprarenal gland

A

A. Splenic vein
Rationalization: The splenic vein is not typically considered part of the stomach bed. The pancreas (B), splenic artery (C), transverse mesocolon (D), and left suprarenal gland (E) are all structures forming the stomach bed.

99
Q

Which forms the medial border of the rectus sheath?
A. Inguinal ligament
B. Linea alba
C. Semilunar line
D. Tendinous insertions
E. Transumbilical plane

A

B. Linea alba
Rationalization: The linea alba is a fibrous structure that forms the medial border of the rectus sheath. The inguinal ligament (A) forms the lower border of the abdomen, the semilunar line (C) forms the lateral border of the rectus sheath, tendinous insertions (D) are horizontal bands within the rectus abdominis, and the transumbilical plane (E) is a horizontal plane through the umbilicus.

100
Q

Which of the following structures is the primary venous drainage of the liver?
A. Hepatic vein
B. Portal vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Splenic vein
E. Cystic vein

A

A. Hepatic vein
- Rationalization: The hepatic veins are responsible for draining blood from the liver into the inferior vena cava. The portal vein (B) supplies blood to the liver, the inferior vena cava (C) receives blood from the hepatic veins, the splenic vein (D) is part of the portal system, and the cystic vein (E) drains the gallbladder.

Seminar 1 (16 decks)

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