ANA 209 Exam 2 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Label the masseter muscle and the origin and insertion.

A
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2
Q

Label the temporalis muscle and its origin and insertion.

A
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3
Q

Label the platysma muscle and its insertion.

A
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4
Q

Label the neck flexor.

A

AKA Sternocleidomastoid muscle.

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5
Q

Label the neck extensor.

A

AKA Trapezius.

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6
Q

Label the muscles acting on humerus.

A

Deltoid

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7
Q

Label the muscles acting on the hip and femur.

A

Gluteal muscles

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8
Q

Label the heart external anatomy (anterior chambers).

A
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9
Q

Label the left coronary artery branches (anterior).

A
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10
Q

Label the thoracic aorta.

A
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11
Q

Label the inferior vena cava.

A
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12
Q

Label the arterial supply to upper limb.

A

Brachiocephalic, brachial, subclavian, axillary, radial, ulnar.

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13
Q

Label the leg arteries.

A
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14
Q

Label the thoracic duct.

A
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15
Q

Label the lymph node histology.

A
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16
Q

Label the lymph nodes.

A
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17
Q

Label the tonsils.

A
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18
Q

Define the skeletal muscle with respect to presence of absence of striations, voluntary or involuntary control, shape of cells, mitochondrial content; and term of the muscle cells.

A

Striated cells called muscle fibers or myofibers. Alternating light and dark bands.

Voluntary movement (conscious control) by attaching to bone.

Long, cylindrical and striated cell shape.

Abundance of mitochondria due to needing more ATP, but not as big or as many as cardiac muscles.

Muscle cells: Muscle fibers called myofibers.

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19
Q

Define the cardiac muscle with respect to presence of absence of striations, voluntary or involuntary control, shape of cells, mitochondrial content; and term of the muscle cells.

A

Found in the walls of the heart, striated, responsible for contraction.

Involuntary.

Short, thick cell shape. Ends of the cell are slightly branched, like a log with notches at the end.

Larger mitochondria and more than skeletal muscles and smooth muscles.

Cells are called myoctyes, cardiomyocytes, or cardiocytes.

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20
Q

Define the smooth muscle with respect to presence of absence of striations, voluntary or involuntary control, shape of cells, mitochondrial content; and term of the muscle cells.

A

No striations.

Involuntary.

Short and Fusiform cell shape. Tapered at ends. And cells are relatively small.

Less and smaller mitochondria than cardiac and smooth muscles.

Cells are called myocytes.

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21
Q

Explain the arrangement of a muscle’s endomysium and how it relates to the muscle fibers and fascicles.

A

Thin sleeve of loose connective tissue that surrounds each muscle fiber.

Creates room for blood capillaries and nerve fibers to reach each muscle fiber.

Provides extracellular chemical environment for muscle fibers and associated nerve endings.

When muscle fibers are excited, its based on the exchange of calcium, sodium, and potassium ions between the endomysial tissue fluid and the nerve and muscle fibers.

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22
Q

Explain the arrangement of a muscle’s perimysium and how it relates to the muscle fibers and fascicles.

A

Thicker connective tissue sheath, wraps muscle fibers into bundles called fascicles.

Carries the larger nerves and blood vessels as well as stretch receptors called muscle spindles.

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23
Q

Explain the arrangement of a muscle’s epimysium and how it relates to the muscle fibers and fascicles.

A

Fibrous sheath that surrounds the entire muscle.

On the outer surface, the epimysium grades into fascia.

Inner surface issues projections between the fascicles to form the perimysium.

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24
Q

What are fascicles?

A

Visible to the naked eye as parallel strands.

The “grain” in a cut of mean; tender roast beef is easily pulled apart along fascicles.

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25
Q

Define sarcomere.

A

In skeletal and cardiac muscle, the portion of a myofibril from one Z disc to the next, constituting one contractile unit.

Functional contractile unit of the muscle fiber.

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26
Q

Explain a sarcomere’s relationship to the Z discs.

A

A muscle shortens because its individual sarcomeres shorten and pull the Z discs closer to each other, and dystrophin and the linking proteins pull on the extracellular proteins of the muscle.

Sarcomere connects one Z disc to the next.

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27
Q

Explain the basic action of the sarcomeres in muscle contraction.

A

When a muscle fiber contracts, the sarcomeres become shorter and the Z discs are pulled closer together.

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28
Q

What are the components of a motor unit?

A

Located in skeletal muscle.

One motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers innervated by it.

Behaves as one functional unit.

Fibers from one unit are dispersed in muscle. And the muscle fibers

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29
Q

What is meant by the size of a motor unit?

A

Smaller motor units are found in areas where we need fine motor control. For example, muscles that cause subtle movements of the eyeball have only 3 to 6 muscle fibers per nerve fiber.

Large motor units are where strength is more important. The gastrocnemius muscle of the calf has about 1000 muscle fibers per nerve fiber.

Large motor units are stronger, but have larger neurons that are harder to stimulate, so not fine control.

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30
Q

Describe the synaptic vesicles with respect to a motor unit.

A

Axons of the motor neuron unit contain spheroidal organelles, synaptic vesicles.

Filled with a chemical called acetylcholine (ACh).

When a nerve signal reaches the terminal, some of the vesicles release ACh by exocytosis, binds to ACh receptors, Receptors respond and lead to muscle contraction.

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31
Q

Explain the blood supply to the skeletal muscles.

A

Tremendous demand for energy -> requiring a big blood supply for fuel and oxygen.

Blood capillaries run through the connective tissues of a muscle to reach every muscle fiber.

Some fibers have surface indentations to accommodate the capillaries.

The capillaries undulate or coil when the muscle is contracted, allowing them enough slack to stretch out straight when the muscle lengthens.

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32
Q

Explain the share of the circulating blood that the muscular system receives in rest and exercise.

A

At rest, muscular system receives about 1/4 of hearts output.

During heavy exercise, total cardiac output rises, and muscular system receives 3/4 + of heart’s output.

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33
Q

What is the most important muscle for opening the mouth, kissing, blowing air out, and smiling?

A

Orbicularis oris, muscle for the lips.

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34
Q

What are the 4 principal muscles that form the abdominal wall?

A

External abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique, transverse abdominal, and rectus abdominis.

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35
Q

Explain the action of the external oblique.

A

Stabilizes vertebral column during heavy lifting. Maintains posture. Compresses abdominal organs. Aids in childbirth, urination, defecation, and vomiting. Unilateral contraction: contralateral rotation of waist.

36
Q

Explain the action of the internal oblique.

A

Unilateral contraction causes ipsilateral rotation of waist.

37
Q

Explain the action of the transverse abdominal.

A

Compresses abdominal contents, but does not contribute to movements of vertebral column.

38
Q

Explain the action of the rectus abdominis.

A

Flexes waist as in bending forward or doing sit-ups. Stabilizes pelvic region during walking. Compresses abdominal viscera.

39
Q

Which muscles are important for “up” part of sit-up?

A

Rectus abdominis, obliques and finally the transverse abdominal.

40
Q

Which muscles are important for push-ups?

A

Pectoralis major and minor. Deltoid major and minor.

41
Q

Which muscles are important for standing back up straight when you are touching your toes?

A

Hamstring muscles on back of the thigh and gluteus maximus of buttocks. Erector spinae joins in when partially contracted.

The erector spinae divided into 3 groups:
1. iliocostalis
2. longissimus
3. spinalis.

42
Q

What happens to the diaphragm when it contracts?

A

It flattens slightly when it contracts, enlarging the thoracic cavity and causing air intake (inspiration).

Contraction compresses abdominal viscera and aids in childbirth and expulsion of urine and feces.

When relaxes, it rises and shrinks the thoracic cavity, expelling air (expiration).

43
Q

What are the SITS muscles of the rotator cuff?

A

The 4 scapular muscle tendons to form the rotator cuff.

Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis.

The tendons insert on the proximal end of the humerus and form a sleeve around it, providing stability for the mobile joint.

44
Q

What are the muscles that supinate the forearm?

A

Biceps brachii and Supinator

45
Q

What are the muscles that extend the elbow?

A

Triceps brachii and anconeus.

46
Q

What muscles allow you to cross your legs while sitting?

A

Lateral rotators.

Maybe Sartorius muscle as well.

47
Q

What are the components of muscles of quadriceps femoris?

A

The anterior compartment of the thigh.

Prime mover of extension of the knee and the most powerful muscle of the body.

Contains 4 heads:
1. Rectus femoris
2. Vastus lateralis
3. Vastus medialis
4. Vastus intermedius

All 4 converge on a single quadriceps tendon, which extends to the patella, then continues as the patellar ligament and inserts on the tibial tuberosity.

48
Q

What term refers to the thumb?

A

Pollex

49
Q

Explain the functions of blood.

A

Transport: Move respiratory gases (O2, CO2), nutrients, metabolic wastes, hormones, stem cells

Protection: Clotting prevents blood loss (platelets).
Inflammation, white blood cells, and antibodies fight toxins and infections

Regulation: Balancing of fluid levels, pH, and temperature. Regulate temperature by routing blood to skin for heat loss or retaining blood deeper to conserve heat.

50
Q

Explain the shape of erythrocytes.

A

Erythrocyte (RBC) is a discoidal cell with a biconcave shape - a thick rim and a thin sunken center.

No nucleus and almost no other organelles. Lacks mitochondria. Lack DNA.

51
Q

Explain the contents of blood.

A

Liquid connective tissue composed of cells and extracellular matrix.

Matrix is blood plasma (55%) : clear, light yellow fluid (over 1/2 of blood volume)

Formed elements (45%) (membrane enclosed bodies with visible structure):
- Cells and cell fragments
- Erythrocytes (red blood cells)
- Leukocytes (white blood cells) (5 kinds)
- Platelets (fragments of bone marrow cells)

52
Q

Explain the shape of blood.

A
53
Q

Explain the function of erythrocytes.

A
  1. Pick up oxygen from the lungs and deliver to tissues elsewhere
  2. Pick up carbon dioxide from tissues and unload it in the lungs

Rely on anaerobic fermentation to produce ATP.

54
Q

Name the 7 major types of formed elements and their properties.

A
  1. Erythrocytes (RBC)
  2. Platelets - Small fragments of megakaryocytes that aid in blood clotting. No nucleus but other organelles (Mitochondria!). Phagocytic and have ameboid movement.

Leukocytes (WBC)
(Granulocytes)
3. Neutrophils - 60% - 70% of WBC; Phagocytizes bacteria and secretes antimicrobial chemicals
4. Eosinophils - 2% - 4% of WBC; Phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes, allergens, and inflammatory chemicals. Secrete enzymes that weaken or destroy parasites such as worms.
5. Basophils - <0.5% of WBC; Secrete histamine which increases blood flow to a tissue. Secrete heparin, which promotes mobility of other WBCs by preventing clotting.

(Agranulocytes)
6. Lymphocytes - 25% - 33% WBCs; Destroy cancer cells, cells infected with viruses and foreign cells. Present antigens to activate other cells of immune system. Coordinate actions of other immune cells. Secrete antibodies. Serve in immune memory.
7. Monocytes - 3% - 8% WBCs; Differentiate into macrophages. Phagocytize pathogens, dead neutrophils and debris of dead cells. Present antigens to activate other cells of immune system.

55
Q

Define Hemostasis.

A

Cessation of bleeding by the mechanisms of vascular spasm.

Platelets release serotonin and clotting factors.

Serotonin triggers vasoconstriction
Platelet plug seals vessel.

Clotting factors convert fibrinogen to sticky fibrin.

Once crisis passes, platelets secrete growth factors to trigger healing and other factors that cause dissolving of the clot.

56
Q

Define Thrombocytosis.

A

A disorder in which your body produces too many platelets.

57
Q

What is the function of B cells?

A

Mature in bone marrow. Functions as an antigen-presenting cell and, in humoral immunity, differentiates into antibody-producing plasma cell.

58
Q

What is the function of neutrophil cells?

A

Phagocytize bacteria, secrete antimicrobial chemicals.

59
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

Phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes, allergens, and inflammatory chemicals. Secrete enzymes that weaken or destroy parasites such as worms.

60
Q

What is the function of platelets.

A

Secrete vasoconstrictors.

Stick together to form temporary platelet plugs.

Secrete procoagulants, clotting factors.

Initiate formation of clot-dissolving enzyme.

Secrete chemicals to attract neutrophils and monocytes to sites of inflammation.

Internalize and destroy bacteria.

Secrete growth factor to stimulate mitosis in fibroblasts and smooth muscle (maintain and repair blood vessels)

61
Q

What is the function of histamine and what blood cells that secrete it.

A

Basophils secrete this chemical.

Is a vasodilator that widens the blood vessels, speeds the flow of blood to an injured tissue. Makes blood vessels more permeable so blood components can get into the connective tissues quicker.

62
Q

Function of WBC and which type is most abundant?

A

Protection against microbial infections and other diseases.

Neutrophils are most abundant (60% - 70%)

63
Q

What are the names of the 3 layers of the heart wall and their histological compositions?

A
  1. Epicardium: Serous membrane on heart surface (Outer layer). Simple squamous epithelium overlying a thin layer of areolar tissue. Some areas include thick adipose tissue.
  2. Endocardium: Lines interior of heart chambers. Simple squamous epithelium overlying thin areolar tissue layer, no adipose. Continuous with inner lining of endothelium.
  3. Myocardium: Cardiac muscle, lies between 2 layers, most mass of the heart. Made up of cells of cardiac muscles - cardiomyocytes.
64
Q

A drop of blood returning from the big toe would enter the heart through what vessels?

A

All blood from lower limbs enters the heart through the inferior vena cava and dumps into the right atrium.

65
Q

What is the function and origin of coronary arteries? What is coronary circulation?

A

Coronary arteries:
Origin: Right and left CA, formed by aortic valve cusps.

Function:
- Anterior interventricular branch supplies blood to both ventricles and the anterior 2/3 of the interventricular septum.
- Circumflex branch supplies blood to the left atrium and posterior wall of the left ventricle.
- RCA supplies right atrium and sinuatrial node (pacemaker). 2 branches (right marginal and posterior interventricular branch)

Coronary circulation: System of blood vessels that serve the wall of the heart.

66
Q

Reasons for the differences in muscularity between the atria and ventricles and between the right and left ventricles.

A

The atria have thin and flaccid walls because they only pump blood to the ventricles.

The right ventricle wall is moderately thick as it only pumps blood to the lungs.

The left ventricle is super thick as it must pump blood to the whole body.

67
Q

Which vessel carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the tissues of the body?

A

AORTA!

Oxygenated blood pushed from the left ventricle flows into the aortic valve to the ascending aorta and then to all tissues in the body.

68
Q

What is the name and location of the pacemaker of the heart?

A

The SA/ sinoatrial

Located in the right atrium.

69
Q

What is the result of sympathetic stimulation to the heart?

A

Sympathetic activation results in increased force and rate of contraction and dilation of coronary arteries.

70
Q

What are the great vessels?

A

Pulmonary trunk, pulmonary veins, aorta, and the two venae cavae.

71
Q

Explain the great vessels relationship to the heart chamber, and branch off the aortic arch.

A

Aorta: Supplies oxygenated blood to the circulatory system. Takes blood from left half of heart (left ventricle)

brachiocephalic trunk: The brachiocephalic artery, brachiocephalic trunk, or more commonly referred to clinically as the innominate artery, is one of the three great vessels of the aortic arch that supplies blood to the head, neck and upper extremities. most proximal branch of the aortic arch. It comes off aorta and goes on anatomical right side.

72
Q

What are the major deep veins of the forearm?

A

Radial and ulnar veins.

73
Q

What are the major branches of the hepatic portal vein?

A

Inferior mesenteric vein, superior mesenteric vein, splenic vein, pancreatic vein, cystic vein, L & R gastric vein.

74
Q

Define continuous capillaries.

A

In most tissues and organs (skeletal muscle, lungs and brain)

Endothelial cells, held together by tight junctions, form a continuous tube like a water hose.

Only small solutes can pass through (like glucose).

Forms blood-brain barrier.

75
Q

Define fenestrated capillaries.

A

Endothelial cells riddled with holes called filtration pores (fenestrations). Spanned by a thin glycoprotein membrane.

Allow for rapid passage of small molecules and even large molecules like protein hormones, but still retain most proteins and large particles in the blood stream.

Important in organs that engage in rapid absorption or filtration (kidneys, endocrine glands, small intestine).

76
Q

Define sinusoids.

A

Irregular blood filled spaces in liver, bone marrow, spleen.

No basal lamina.

Large elements can pass through, this is how elements enter blood from bone marrow.

77
Q

What is the major differences between arteries and veins?

A

Arteries are (efferent) and carry blood away from the heart to tissue.

Veins are (afferent) carry blood to the heart from tissue.

Arteries and veins have three layers: an outer tunica externa of loose connective tissue; a middle tunica media of smooth muscle and connective tissue; and an inner tunica interna consisting of an endothelium overlying a basement membrane and thin connective tissue layer.

78
Q

Define the immune system.

A

A system of diverse defenses against disease, including leukocytes and other immune cells, defensive chemicals, and physical barriers to infection such as the skin and mucous membranes.

Not an organ system, a term for defensive components of multiple organ systems.

Defend the body against infection without hurting the cells within our own body.

79
Q

Define adaptive immunity.

A

Defenses against specific pathogens or other disease agents, due to prior exposure, immune memory, and rapid response upon re-exposure.

Divided into T lymphocyte-based cellular immunity and antibody-based humoral immunity.

80
Q

Define innate immunity.

A

Nonspecific defenses against infection or disease that are present or functional from birth, work equally against multiple disease agents, and do not require prior exposure.

I.e. skin, mucous membrane, inflammation, fever, and interferons.

81
Q

What is the function of B and T lymphocytes?

A

B-lymphocyte: Functions as an antigen-presenting cell. In humoral immunity, differentiates into an antibody-producing plasma cell; secrete antibodies; also called a B cell. Some become memory cells.

T-lymphocyte: Involved in innate, humoral, and cellular immunity; Develop partly in the thymus.

  • Cytotoxic T cells directly attack and kill cells infected with viruses, parasites, or bacteria, or cells that have become cancerous.
  • Helper T cells respond to antigens and stimulate other cells to mount a response.
  • Regulatory T cells prevent an excessive response.
  • Memory T cells provide long-lasting memory of the antigen so that when a person is re-exposed, the immune response is rapidly activated.
82
Q

What are the functions of antigen-presenting cells?

A

Process foreign material and bring antigenetically active fragments to the cell surface. This stimulates T cells to defend against the invader.

83
Q

Which formed elements are most responsible for humoral immunity?

A

B-lymphocytes and antibodies.

84
Q

Explain the histological property of the larger lymphatic vessels.

A

Similar to veins.

Have tunica interna with an endothelium and valves, a tunica media with elastic fibers and smooth muscle, and a thin outer tunica externa.

Their walls are thinner and their valves are closer together than those of the veins.

85
Q

Name two largest lymphatic vessels and location of their termination.

A

Right lymphatic duct & thoracic duct.

Right lymphatic duct empties into the right subclavian vein.

Thoracic duct empties in the left subclavian vein. Drains all of the body below the diaphragm, and the left upper limb and left side of he head, neck, and thorax.

86
Q

Where are germinal centers located?

A

In the nodules of lymph nodes, located in the cortex.

87
Q

What is the location and functions of the thymus?

A

Located between sternum and aortic arch in the upper mediastinum.

Houses developing lymphocytes and secrete hormones that regulate their later activity.

Site where T-cells differentiate and become immunocompetent.