Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Amir Sam DPD Lectures > Amir sam 6 > Flashcards

Amir sam 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the features of immediate transfusion reactions. (6)

A 
Fever. 
Rigor. 
High PR. 
Low BP. 
Chest pain. 
Dark Urine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
What do these features indicate:Fever. 
Rigor. 
High PR. 
Low BP. 
Chest pain. 
Dark Urine.
A

Immediate transfusion reaction (haemolysis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some causes of a low MCV. (3)

A

Iron deficiency anaemia.
Beta thalassaemia.
Anaemic of chronic disease (eg RA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some causes of macrocytic anaemia. (5)

A 
Alcohol. 
Myelodysplasia. 
Hypothyroidism. 
Liver disease. 
Folate/B12 deficiency.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the features of alcohol induced macrocytic anaemia. (2)

A

History of alcohol abuse.

Raised GGT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the presentations of polycythaemia. (7)

A 
Headache. 
Pruritus after hot bath. 
Blurred vision (hyperviscosity). 
Tinnutus. 
Thrombosis (stroke, DVT). 
Gangrene. 
Choreiform movements.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do you manage an acute painful crisis in sickle cell disease. (4)

A

Analgesia.
Oxygen.
IV fluids.
Antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the symptoms of sequestration crisis of the lungs. (3)

A

Shortness of breath.
Cough.
Fever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the management for stroke in the context of sickle cell disease.

A

Exchange blood transfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the management of sequestration crisis of the spleen in sickle cell disease.

A

Splenectomy for repeated episodes of splenic sequestration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the consequence of a sequestration crisis of the spleen in sick cell disease.

A

Exacerbation of anaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the treatment for gallstones and chronic cholecystitis in sickle cell disease.

A

Cholecystectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the features of multiple myeloma. (6)

A 
Calcium (raised). 
Renal failure. 
Anaemia (breathlessness, lethargy). 
Bone (pain, osteoporosis, fractures). 
Infection. 
Cord compression.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the diagnosis:

Anaemia with raised reticulocyte count.

A

Haemolytic crisis.

or haemorrhage!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the diagnosis: anaemia with low reticulocyte count. (3)

A

Parvovirus B19 infection.
Aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anaemia.
Blood transfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the characteristics of T1DM. (6)

A

Young, thin, insulin deficiency.
Weight loss.
Ketones.
Acidosis.

17
Q

What are the characteristics of T2DM. (3)

A

Older.
Overweight or obese.
Insulin resistant.

18
Q

What is the typical presentation of a patient with Graves’ disease. (9)

A 
Weight loss. 
Increased appetite. 
Irritability. 
Palpitations. 
Irregular periods. 
Tremor. 
Proptosis. 
Smooth goitre. 
Pretibial myxoedema.
19
Q

What are the risk factors for thyroid cancer. (4)

A

Radiation exposure.
FH.
Rapid thyroid enlargement/compression.
Lymphadenopathy.

20
Q

What is the characteristic of thyroid cancer on an uptake scan.

A

Cold nodules.

21
Q

What are the symptoms of a prolactinoma. (4)

A

Amenorrhoea.
Galactorrhoea.
Bitemporal hemianopia.
(Sexual dysfunction).

22
Q

What are the discriminatory signs of Cushing’s disease. (4)

A

Bruising.
Myopathy.
Purple striae >1cm wide.
DM, HTN and osteoporosis at a young age.

23
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for amenorrhoea/oligomenorrhea. (6)

A 
Pregnancy. 
Hypothalamic. 
Pituitary. 
Thyroid (hyper/hypo).
PCOS. 
Ovarian failure.
24
Q

What is the typical presentation of hypokalaemia. (3)

A

Weakness.
Arrhythmia
Polyuria.

25
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for hypokalaemia. (3)

A

Vomiting.
Diuretics.
Primary hyperaldosteronism (bilateral hyperplasia, Conn’s).

26
Q

How is osmolality calculated.

A

2 x (sodium + potassium) + urea + glucose.

27
Q

What are some causes for high plasma osmolality. (3)

A

Dehydration.
HHS.
T2DM.

28
Q

What is a cause of low plasma osmolality.

A

DI.

29
Q

What are the causes of AKI. (3)

A

Pre-renal.
Renal.
Post renal.

30
Q

What are some pre-renal causes of AKI. (2)

A

Hypovolaemia.

Sepsis.

31
Q

What are some renal causes of AKI. (2)

A

Drugs.

Glomerulonephritis.

32
Q

What is a post renal cause of AKI.

A

Obstruction.

33
Q

What is the investigation of choice in renal artery stenosis.

A

Magnetic Resonance Angiography (MRA).

34
Q

What is a cause of renal artery stenosis.

A

Deterioration of renal function with ACE inhibitors (causes bilateral renal artery stenosis).

Amir Sam DPD Lectures (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions