Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Chemistry Paper 2 > All topics > Flashcards

All topics Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Chemistry flashcards Periodic Table flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards
1
Q

what group in the periodic table are the alkali metals in

A

group 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are some properties of alkali metals that make it different to transitional metals

A

are soft
have low melting points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

give 3 alkali metals

A

sodium
potassium
lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the work equation for the reaction between sodium and water

A

sodium + water –> sodium hydroxide + hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the density of alkali metals

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how are alkali metals stored to prevent rusting

A

in oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how does reactivity increase in alkali metals

A

the more you go down the more reactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

why is potassium more reactive than lithium

A

because it is bigger so the final outer electron is further away from the nucleus than lithium. meaning the forces of electrostatic attraction between the potassium nucleus and its outer electron is less so it is given away in reactions easier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe what the reaction between lithium and water looks like

A

fizzes steadily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe what the reaction between sodium and water looks like

A

melts into a ball from heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe what the reaction between potassium and water looks like

A

gives off sparks and burns with a lilac flame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe what the reaction between rubidium and water looks like

A

reacts vigorously
sparks and bursting into flames explosively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what group are halogens in

A

group 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are 4 halogens and their colours

A

fluorine - pale yellow
chlorine - yellow-green
bromine - red brown
iodine - dark grey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the state of fluorine

A

gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the state of chorine

A

gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the state of bromine

A

liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the state of iodine

A

solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how do melting and boiling points change as you go down the halogens and why

A

increase - the intermolecular forces of attraction increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the test for chlorine

A

damp blue litmus paper will turn red then is bleached white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

halogens + alkali metals –>

A

metal halides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how does reactivity change as you go through the halogens and why

A

they decrease as the outer shell gets further away from the nucleus which means there is more shielding for the electrostatic forces of attraction so it will be harder to react and attract another electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a halogen displacement reaction

A

when a more reactive halogen displaces a less reactive one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what group are noble gases in

A

group 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are some chemical properties of noble gases

A

do not react

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what word is used to describe the unreactiveness of noble gases

A

inert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

why are noble gases inert

A

full outer shell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are 3 noble gases

A

helium
argon
krypton
xenon
argon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the use of helium and what properties does it have to make it good for its purpose

A

lifting gas
- low density
non-flammable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the use of argon, krypton, and xenon and why

A

filling gas - inert so it will stop it from burning away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the use of argon and why

A

sheiling gas - is denser than air so keeps it away from metal
inert so will not oxidise metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how does density and boiling point change as you go down the noble has group

A

density increases
boiling point increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the greater the rate of reaction…

A

the greater frequency of successful collisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what 2 things are needed for 2 particles to react

A

they must collide with each other
they must have enough energy to activate the reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the activation energy

A

the minimum energy needed for the reaction to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what 3 factors affect the rate of reaction

A

concentration and pressure
SA: V
temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how does concentration affect the rate of reaction

A

as conc increases the ROR increases as there will be more particles in the same volume so the frequency of successful collisions will increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how does temperature affect the rate of reaction

A

the rate of reaction increases when the temperature increases. because the particles have more kinetic energy and move faster increases the frequency of collision and the energy of collisions so a greater proportion of collisions are successful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how does SA:V ratio affect the rate of reaction

A

the rate of reaction increases as the SA:V ratio increases as there will be more particles of reactant available so the frequency of successful collisions will increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the 2 types of reaction

A

endothermic and exothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is an exothermic reaction

A

where heat energy is given out and the temperature of the surroundings increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is an endothermic reaction

A

heat energy is taken in and the temperature of the surroundings decreases in temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are 4 types of exothermic reaction

A

neutralisation
displacement
precipitation
dissolving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are 3 types of endothermic reactions

A

neutralisations
precipitation
dissolving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what type of reaction is always exothermic

A

displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

why does an exothermic reaction give out energy

A

as it releases more energy making bonds that it loses by breaking bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

why does an endothermic reaction give out energy

A

as it takes in more energy breaking bonds than it releases by making bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

describe the energy differences of the reactants and products in an exothermic reaction

A

the reactants have more energy than the products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

describe the energy differences of the reactants and products in an endothermic reaction

A

the reactants have less energy than the products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is bond energy

A

the energy needed to break 1 mol of a particular covalent bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

if the overall energy change of a reaction is negative what type of reaction is it

A

exothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is crude oil

A

a fossil fuel that is from over millions of years from ancient remains of marine organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is a hydrocarbon

A

a compound that is made out of only carbon and hydrogen atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is a finite resource

A

a resource that is no longer being made or being made extremely slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are 3 uses of hydrocarbons

A

fuels
feedstock
petrochemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is feedstock

A

The starting material for a chemical process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is a petrochemical

A

the use of crude oils to manufacture products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

give the steps of the fractional distillation of crude oil

A
  1. oil is heated to evaporate it
  2. vapours rise in a fractionating column
  3. the column has a temperature gradient of hot at the bottom and cool at the top
  4. each fraction will condense where it becomes cool enough and is piped out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is fractional distillation

A

the separation of a soluble mixture using boiling points of the substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

how is the number of carbon atoms increase as the boiling point increases

A

the number of C atoms increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is more ignitable a fraction with a low number of carbon atoms or one with lots of carbon atoms

A

one will less carbon atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

how does viscosity change as boiling point changes

A

as boiling point increases viscosity increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are the 6 fractions in crude oil

A

gases
petrol
kerosene
diesel oil
fuel oil
bitumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is gas from crude oil used for

A

domestic heating and cooking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is petrol used for

A

fuel for cars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is kerosene used for

A

fuel for aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is diesel used for

A

fuel for cars and trains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is fuel oil

A

fuel for large ships and power stations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is bitumen used for

A

surfacing roads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what are the 3 factors of a homologous series

A
  • the molecular formulae of neighbouring members differ by CH2
  • show a gradual variation in physical properties such as boiling points
  • have similar chemical properties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what are the 2 homologous series used as fuel

A

alkanes
alkenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the general formula of alkanes

A

CnH2n+2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is incomplete combustion

A

when there is not enough oxygen for complete combustion to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are the products of complete combustion

A

carbon dioxide and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what are the products of incomplete combustion

A

carbon
carbon monoxide
carbon dioxide
water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

why is complete combustion more efficient than incomplete combustion

A

it gives out more energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is the danger of carbon monoxide

A

it is a colourless and odourless gas that can attach to haemoglobin in red blood cells instead of oxygen. this can reduce the amount of oxygen being carried around the body in the bloodstream

78
Q

what are 2 reasons why soot is dangerous

A

it can build up in chimneys and can cause fire
tiny soot particles can be breathed in which can cause lung disease

79
Q

what is acid rain

A

rain that is more acidic due to pollution

80
Q

what 2 chemicals are responsible for acid rain

A

sulfur dioxide
nitrogen oxides

81
Q

how is acid rain created

A

waste gases such as Sulfur dioxide are released into the air
they dissolve in water in the air acidifying it

82
Q

what are 3 negatives of acid rain

A

trees are damaged
organisms that live in water could be harmed
speeds up the weathering of buildings such as statues

83
Q

what are 3 ways to reduce acid rain

A
  1. remove sulfur from fuels at refineries before being sold
  2. prevent sulfur dioxide from leaving power station chimneys - flue gas desulfurization
  3. Add calcium carbonate
84
Q

how do nitrogen oxides cause acid rain

A

air goes into the engine so that the fuel can burn. nitrogen and oxygen from the react together at the high temperatures in the engine to form nitrogen oxides which dissolve in rain to make it acidic

85
Q

what does a non-renewable resource

A

a resource that is being used up faster than they are formed

86
Q

write the word equation for the combustion of hydrogen

A

hydrogen + oxygen –> water

87
Q

what are 3 ways hydrogen is manufactured

A
  • electrolysis of water
  • cracking of oil fractions
  • reacting natural gas with steam
88
Q

what are the 4 features of a good fuel

A

brun easily
doesn’t produce soot or ash
releases a lot of energy
easy to transport and store

89
Q

what are the 3 pros of petrol as a fuel

A

burns easily
does not produce ash
is a liquid so it is easy to store

90
Q

what is a negative of petrol as a fuel

A

produces carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide

91
Q

what are 3 pros of hydrogen as a fuel

A

burns easily
does not produce soot or smoke
releases more energy

92
Q

what are 2 cons of hydrogen as a fuel

A

is a gas so is difficult to store
new infrastructure will need to be built

93
Q

what is cracking

A

breaking down larger alkanes into smaller more useful alkanes and alkenes

94
Q

describe the experiment for cracking

A

pass paraffine vapour over some heated broken porous pot. this will break the paraffin into ethene as it is a catalyst

95
Q

what gas was most prominent in the early atmosphere and 2 pieces of evidence to support it

A

carbon dioxide
- volcanoes produce carbon dioxide
- atmospheres of other planets have lots of CO2

96
Q

what are the 2 main gases in today’s atmosphere

A

nitrogen and oxygen

97
Q

why did the levels of carbon dioxide decrease

A

as the earth cooled and oceans formed. carbon dioxide dissolved in the oceans and marine organisms use the dissolved carbon dioxide to make shells. these shells would fall to the seabed and get squashed into sedimentary rock

98
Q

why did the levels of oxygen increase

A

as life began to evolve photosynthesis released oxygen which built up in the atmosphere

99
Q

what is the evidence for low oxygen levels in early atmosphere

A

very old rocks as they do not contain iron oxides while later rocks do. this is because there would have been no oxygen in the atmosphere to oxidise iron

100
Q

what is the greenhouse effect

A

where greenhouse gases in the atmosphere abosrb heat radiated from the earth and reflect it back into atmosphere, preventing it from escaping and increasing the global temperatures

101
Q

what are the 3 greenhouse gases

A

carbon dioxide
methane
water vapour

102
Q

what is a source of CO2

A

fossil fuels

103
Q

what is a source of methane

A

livestock farming

104
Q

what is the global warming

A

increasing global temperatures

105
Q

what are 2 effects of global warming

A

climate change
rising sea levels

106
Q

what is climate change

A

long term changes to weather patterns

107
Q

what are the 2 metal ion tests you need to know

A

flame tests
hydroxide precipitates

108
Q

what 5 ions can be tested for using flam tests and what colour does each one go

A

lithium - red
sodium - yellow
potassium - lilac
calcium - orange-red
copper - Bluegreen

109
Q

describe the hydroxide precipitate test

A

some metal ions form coloured hydroxide precipitate. the sample is added to a few drops of sodium hydroxide. it will form a coloured precipitate

110
Q

what 5 ions can be tested for using precipitate tests and what colour does each one go

A

copper - blue
iron(II) - green
iron(III) - brown
calcium - white
aluminium - white

111
Q

why do calcium and aluminium for white precipitates

A

they are not transitional metals

112
Q

how do you identify between aluminium and calcium using a hydroxide precipitate test

A

add excess sodium hydroxide precipitate. the aluminium precipitate will dissolve and go clear while calcium hydroxide will not

113
Q

what 4 non-metal ions can be tested for

A

sulfates and carbonates
halide ions
ammonium ions

114
Q

describe the test for sulfate ions

A

add dilute hydrochloric acid
add barium chloride solution
if present a white precipitate of barium sulfate will form

115
Q

describe the test for carbonate ions

A

add hydrochloric acid
if carbonate ions present carbon dioxide bubbles can be seen

116
Q

describe the test for halide ios

A

add dilute nitric acid
add silver nitrate solution
check precipitate colour

117
Q

what colour does each halide ion go during the halide ions test

A

chloride - white
bromide - cream
iodide - yellow

118
Q

describe the test for ammonium ions

A

add sodium hydroxide solution
heat
if ammonium is present ammonia gas will be released

119
Q

what are 2 tests for ammonia gas

A
  • damp red litmus paper turns blue
  • sharp distinct smell
120
Q

give 2 reasons why nitric acid is used in halide ions test

A

reacts with carbonate ions so a false positive result cannot be given
will not mess up will test as nitric acid does not contain halides

121
Q

what is the general formula for alkanes

A

CnHn+2

122
Q

what the difference between alkanes and alkenes chemically

A

alkanes do not have double bonds
alkenes do

123
Q

what are the first 4 alkanes

A

methane
ethane
propane
butane

124
Q

what is the general formula for alkenes

A

CnH2n

125
Q

how many double bonds does an alkene have

A

one

126
Q

what is the test to determine if a substance is alkane or alkene

A

react substance with bromine water
- if it stays orange it is alkane (alkanes are saturated - have no double bonds, so cannot react)
- if it goes clear it is an alkene(as alkenes will react as they are unsaturated and have a double bond that can be broken to react)

127
Q

what is an isomer

A

compounds with the same molecular formula but a different arrangement

128
Q

what are the 2 types of polymerisations

A

addition and condensation

129
Q

what is a polymer

A

a substance with high molecular mass made up of repeating units

130
Q

what is the name given to a polymer made by combining ethene molecules

A

poly(ethene)

131
Q

This is a monomer

A

the repeating units in a polymer

132
Q

what is additional polymerisation

A

where a polymer is made by combining alkenes together

133
Q

what are the 4 polymers made using additional polymerisation

A

Poly(ethene)
Poly(propene)
poly(chloroethene) - PVC
poly(tetrafluoroethene) - PTFE

134
Q

what are the properties and uses of poly(ethene)

A
  • flexible, cheap, good insulator
  • plastic bags, bottles and clingfilm
135
Q

what are the properties and uses of poly(propene)

A

flexible, shatterproof, has a high softening point

buckets and bowls

136
Q

what are the properties and uses of poly(chloroethene)

A

tough, cheap, long-lasting, good electrical insulator

window frames, gutters and pipes, electrical insulation for wires

137
Q

what are the properties and uses of PTFE

A

tough, slippery, resistant to corrosion, good electrical insulator

nonstick coatings, containers for corrosive substances, electrical insulation for wires

138
Q

what is the name given to a polymer made using condensation polymerisation

A

polyesters

139
Q

what 2 monomers are needed for condensation polymerisation

A

molecule with 2 carboxylic acid groups
a molecule with 2 alcohol groups

140
Q

describe the process of condensation polymerisation

A

the O-H from the carboxylic acid group and H for the alcohol group react
creating an ester link and water

141
Q

what are 2 biological polymers

A

DNA
Proteins

142
Q

what is the shape of DNA

A

double helix

143
Q

what is the monomer of a DNA strand

A

nucleotide

144
Q

what is a nucleotide made up of

A

phosphate
sugar
base

145
Q

what are the 4 different bases

A

ACTG

146
Q

what are the monomers that make up proteins

A

Amino acids

147
Q

what is the monomer that makes up starch

A

glucose

148
Q

what is the problem of manufacturing monomers

A

uses crude oil which a finite non-renewable recources

149
Q

what does biodegradable mean

A

material that eventually rot away as microbes feed on them and they break down

150
Q

what is an advantage and disadvantage of polymers being non-biodegradable

A

will last a long time
do not break down when disposed of so is bad for the environment

151
Q

what are 4 ways to dispose of polymers

A

Landfill sites
burning
recycling
biodegradable polymers

152
Q

what is the negative of burning polymers to dispose of them

A

release toxic gases

153
Q

what are 2 advantages of landfills

A

waste is disposed of quickly
out of sight when covered

154
Q

what are 3 disadvantages of landfills

A

takes up lots of space
most polymers are not biodegradable and will last for years
unsightly and attract pests

155
Q

what are a 2 pros and 2 cons of recycling polymers

A

less waste go to landfills
save finite resource of crude oil
expensive as they need to be collected and sorted
some polymers will not be recyclable

156
Q

give the 2 homologous series (not alkanes/alkenes)

A

carboxylic acids
alcohols

157
Q

what is the functional group for alcohol

A

-OH

158
Q

what are the first 4 alcohols

A

methanol
ethanol
propanol
butanol

159
Q

what process is used to produce ethanol

A

fermentation

160
Q

describe the process of fermentation to produce ethanol

A

using yeast to break sugars from ethanol

161
Q

what is yeast

A

a single-celled fungus

162
Q

what are the conditions for yeast

A

35’C
anaerobic respiration

163
Q

what is the byproduct of fermentation

A

carbon dioxide

164
Q

what process is used after fermentation to get more concentrated ethanol

A

fractional distillation

165
Q

what is the functional group for carboxylic acids

A

-COOH

166
Q

are carboxylic acids weak or strong and why

A

they are weak as they only partially dissociate into ions

167
Q

what are the first 4 carboxylic acids

A

methanoic acid
ethanoic acid
propanoic acid
butanoic acid

168
Q

what are nanoparticles

A

structures consisting of only a few hundred atoms

169
Q

what are the 4 uses of nanoparticles

A

sunscreens
tennis rackets
future drug delivery systems
catalysts

170
Q

why are nanoparticles used in tennis rackets

A

as they can form lightweight and strong materials such as carbon nanotubes for tennis rackets

171
Q

why are nanoparticles used in sunscreens

A

they can absorb harmful ultraviolet light but are so small they cannot be seen on the skin

172
Q

how are nanoparticles used for future drug delivery systems

A

they can formed into hollow buckyballs made up of carbon atoms that can carry medicines

173
Q

why are nanoparticles useful as catalysts

A

they have a large surface area: volume ratio so that they can catalyse reactions quickly

174
Q

what are 3 risks of nanoparticles

A
  1. can be breathed in or absorbed through the skin
  2. take a long time to break
  3. attract toxic substances to their surface
175
Q

what is the size of nanoparticles

A

1nm to 100nm

176
Q

what are 4 bulk materials

A

polymers
glass ceramics
clay ceramics
metals

177
Q

what are some properties of glass ceramics

A

transparent, hard and brittle
poor conductors of heat and electricity

178
Q

what are some uses of glass ceramics

A

windows and bottles

179
Q

what are some properties of polymers

A

can be transparent or opaque
poor conductors of heat and electricity
tough and ductile

180
Q

what are some properties of clay ceramics

A

opaque hard and brittle
poor conductors of heat and electricity

181
Q

what are some properties of metals

A

shiny
good conductor of heat and electricity
hard tough and ductile

182
Q

what are some uses of polymers

A

bottles
crates
carrier bags

183
Q

what are some uses of clay ceramics

A

bricks
China
porcelain

184
Q

what are some uses of metals

A

cars
bridges
electrical cables

185
Q

what does transparent mean

A

clear and fully seen through

186
Q

what does translucent mean

A

Let light through but not detailed shapes

187
Q

what does opaque mean

A

does not let light through

188
Q

what does ductile mean

A

can be bent twisted or stretched without cracking or breaking

189
Q

what does brittle mean

A

will crack or break when hit

190
Q

what is a composite material

A

a material that is 2 or more materials combined together each with different properties.

190
Q

give an example of a composite material

A

concrete reinforced with steel

191
Q

why is concrete reinforced with solid steel?

A

concrete is strong in compression but weak in tension while steel is strong in tension so combining both produces a composite material that is both strong in compression and tension

Chemistry Paper 2 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions