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00-01-09: pharmacology > ALL THE DRUGS > Flashcards

ALL THE DRUGS Flashcards

1
Q

furosemide

mi

A

diuretic

blocks reabsorption of chloride in the loop of Henle

CHF, pulm edema, pleural effusion, ascites, renal failure

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2
Q

spironolactone

mi

A

diuretic

aldosterone antagonist (aldosterone acts on kidney to retain water)

2nd line CHF

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3
Q

hydrochlorothiazide

i

A

weak diuretic (thiazide diuretics)

mgmt of ascites & edema, used w/ spironolactone

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4
Q

rank diuretics from most to least powerful

A

furosemide > spironolactone > thiazide diuretics

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5
Q

ACE inhibitors

mi

A

vasodilator

blocks ACE (angiotensin)

CHF, hypertension

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6
Q

amlodipine

i

A

vasodilator

hypertension

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7
Q

nitrogylcerin

i

A

vasodilator

CHF

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8
Q

hydralazine

indications

A

vasodilator

CHF, hypertension

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9
Q

prazosin

i

A

vasodilator

CHF, refractory hypertension

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10
Q

mech of action of class 1 antiarrhtythmics?

A
  1. inhibit fast sodium channels, inhibit rate of spontaneous depolarization
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11
Q

lidocaine

i

A

class 1 antiarrhythmic

druge of choice to treat life threatening ventricular arrhtyhmias

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12
Q

procainamide

i

A

class 1 antiarrhythmic

used IV for lidocaine-refractory ventricular arrythmias

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13
Q

mexiletine

oral analoge of what?

i

A

class 1 antiarrhythmic

lidocaine

oral drug of choice for ventricular arrhtythmias in dogs

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14
Q

quinidine

i

A

class 1 antiarrhythmic

atrial fibrillation

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15
Q

beta blockers (class II antiarrhythmic)

mech of action

A

adrenergic receptor antagonists

(decrease sinus heart rate, ^ refractory period of the AV node, decrease myocardial oxygen demand)

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16
Q

propanolol

i

A

class II antiarrhythmic

supraventricular arrhythmias

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17
Q

atenolol, metoprolol, esmolol

i

A

class II antiarrhythmic

supraventricular arrythmias

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18
Q

class III antiarrhythmic

mech of action

A

block K channels -> prolong refractory period, ^ duration of AP

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19
Q

solatol

i

A

combo class II and III antirythmic

refractory ventricular arrythmias

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20
Q

amiodarone

structural analoge of what

i

A

class III antiarrhythmic

thyroid hormone

reserved for refractory ventricular tachycardia

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21
Q

calcium channel blockers (class IV antiarrhythmics)

mech

A

slows AV conduction velocity and prolongs refractory period

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22
Q

diltizaem

i

A

Ca channel blockers (class IV antiarrhythmic)

supraventicular tachyarrhythmias (Atrial fib), HCM (cats)

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23
Q

verapamil

i

A

Ca channel blockers (class IV antiarrhythmic)

supraventricular tachyarrythmias

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24
Q

adrenergic agonists - what do they do?

A

sympathomimietic -> ^ sympathetic response

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25
Q

dobutamine

i

A

adrenergic agonist

cardiogenic shock (for short term use)

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26
Q

dopamine

i

A

adrenergic agonist

hypotension, acute renal failure

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27
Q

digoxin

A

adrenergic agonist (mild positive inotrope)

CHF (decreased contractility), supraventricular tachycardia

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28
Q

what do phosphodiesterase inhibitors do?

A

positive inotropes or vasodilators

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29
Q

pimobendan

i

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitor

CHF, DCM or valve dz

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30
Q

Amrinone, milrinone

i

A

phosphodiesterase inhibitor

CHF: DCM or valvular dz

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31
Q

theophylline

mi

A

methylxanthine

smooth muscle relaxation of bronchi and pulm vasc

bronchospasm

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32
Q

beta-2 adrenergic agonists (for pulm)

what do they do?

A
  1. relax bronchial smooth muscle
  2. stimulate mucus secretion
  3. enhance mucociliary clearance
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33
Q

terbutaline, albuterol

i

A

beta-2 adrenergic agonist

bronchospasm

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34
Q

epinephrine (pulm)

i

A

beta-2 adrenergic agonist

allergic reactions, bronchspasm

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35
Q

butorphanol

A

opiod cough suppressant

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36
Q

hydrocodone

A

opiod cough suppressant

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37
Q

fluticasone

i

A

inhaled glucocorticoids

allergic airway dz and feline asthma

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38
Q

cimentidine, ranitidine, famotidine

i

A

H2 blockers (block HCl secretion)

reflux esophagitis, gastric ulcers, etc

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39
Q

omeprazole

i

A

PPI

reflux esophagitis, ulcers, etc.

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40
Q

sucralfate

i

A

gastroprotectant

ulcers

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41
Q

misopristol

i

A

gastroprotectant (PGE1 analogue)

prevention and tx of NSAID-induced gastric and duodenal ulcers

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42
Q

metoclopramide, cisapride

i

A

prokinetics

gastric atony, ileus, megaesophagus

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43
Q

phenothiazines (chlorpromazine)

mi

A

antiemetics

inhibit dopaminergic, cholinergic, and histaminergic receptors to reduce input to emetic center

refractory vomiting of defined cause

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44
Q

ondansetorn, dolasteron

mi

A

antiemetic: serotonergic antagonists

blocks inpute to emetic center

vomiting and nausea

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45
Q

diphenhydramine (for GI…)

m

A

antiemetic

H1 receptor antagonist; block input to emetic center

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46
Q

bismuth subsalicylate (pepto-bismol), kaolin and pectin

i

A

antidiarrheals (adsorbents)

acute diarrhea

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47
Q

loperamide

mi

A

opiod antidiarrheals

^ segmentation contractions of gut, but decrease downstream movement

acute diarrhea in dogs

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48
Q

salicylate derivatives (sulfasalazine)

i

A

antiinflammatories

chronic inflammatory colitis in dogs

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49
Q

prednisone/prenisolone/dexamethasone (GI)

i

A

glucocorticoids (anti-inflammatories)

histo evidence of GI inflammatory infiltrates of lymphangiectasia

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50
Q

azathioprine (imuran) (GI)

i

A

anti-inflammatory

lymphangiectasia, refractory or severe IBD

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51
Q

cyclosporine (GI)

MI

A

anti-inflammatory

inhibitor of T-cell fxn

lymphangiectasia, refractory or severe IBD

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52
Q

lactulose

A

osmotic laxative

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53
Q

Docusate sodium

A

surfactants (stool softener)

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54
Q

cisapride

A

prokinetic (GI)

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55
Q

ursodiol

mi

A

hepatoprotectat

^ bile flow

inflammatory/cholestatic liver dz

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56
Q

S-adenosylmethionine

mi

A

hepatoprotectant

glutathione precursor

hepatic inflammation and necrosis

57
Q

silymarin (milk thistle extract)

mi

A

hepatoprotectant

antioxidant

hepatic inflam and necrosis

58
Q

lactulose (liver)

mi

A

osmostic laxative

converted to osmotically active acids in colon; traps ammonia

hepatic encephalopathy

59
Q

neomycin (drugs for hepatic encephalopathy)

mi

A

inhibits ammonia generation in colon

60
Q

metronidazole (drugs for hepatic encephalopathy)

mi

A

kills ammonia-producing anaerobes in colon

61
Q

D-penicillamine

A

liver decoppering agent

62
Q

zinc (liver)

does what?

A

decreases copper absoprtion

63
Q

methimazole

m

A

hyperthyroidism tx

inhibits thyroid peroxidase and thyroid hormone synth

64
Q

radioiodine

m

A

hyperthyroid tx

destroys active thyroid tissue via local beta irradiation

65
Q

L-thyroxine

m

A

hypothyroid tx

T4 replacement

66
Q

mitotane

mi

A

cushings tx

toxic to zona fasciculata and zona reticularis layers of the adrenal glands

pituitary dependent cushing’s treatment

67
Q

trilostane

mi

A

cushing’s tx

inhibits adrenal enzymes

pituitary dependent cushings

68
Q

deoxycorticosterone pivalate (DOCP)

i

A

mineralocorticoid supplement

hypoadrenocorticism

69
Q

fludrocortisone

i

A

short acting mineralocorticoid

hypoadrenocorticism

70
Q

prednisone (for metabolic dz)

i

A

precursor of prednisolone with cortisol-like effects

physiologic replacement of cortisol in hypoadrenocorticism

71
Q

dexamethasone (metabolic)

how poweful compared to prednisone

mineralocorticoid activity?

A

for hypoadrenocorticism

6-10 X more powerful

no

72
Q

what do mineralocorticoids do?

what is the main one?

A

act on kidneys to resorb Na and therefore water

aldosterone

73
Q

mannitol (renal disease)

i

A

osmotic diuretic

non-ostructive oliguric renal failure, promote diuresis in some toxicoses

74
Q

dopamine (renal disease)

i

A

endogenous catecholamine (fight or flight)

oliguric renal failure

75
Q

ACE inhibitors (enalapril, benazepril) (renal disease)

mi

A

vasodilator

inhibit ACE to decrease angiotensin II

hypertension, particularly that assoc w/ renal failure

76
Q

EPO - what is it?

mi

A

human recombinant erythropoietin

stims erythropoeisis

anemia of chronic renal failure

77
Q

phenoxybenzamine

i

A

alpha adrenergic blocker

urethrospasm (relaxation of internal urethral sphincter)

78
Q

bethanecol

mi

A

cholinergic agonist

increases bladder detrusor tone

urinary retention w/o obstruction

79
Q

amitriptylline

i

A

tricyclic antidepressant

spraying in cats, interstitial cystitis in cats, separation anxiety

80
Q

phenylpropanolamine (-)

mi

A

alpha-adrenergic agonist

incontinence from decreased internal urethral sphincter tone

81
Q

DES (diethlstilbestrol)

i

A

synthetic estrogen

hormone-responsive (spay) incontinence in dogs

82
Q

penicillins (penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin)

good against?

A

antibiotics

anaerobics, some g- and g+

83
Q

cephalosporins (cephalexin, cefazolin)

mechanism?

good for?

A

antibacterials

inhibit bacterial cell-wall synthesis

g+, anaerobes, lesser g- (2nd and third generation get better with gram -)

84
Q

fluoroquinolones (enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin)

mech?

coverage?

A

antibacterials

inhibit DNA gyrase -> prevent bacterial DNA synthesis

g-, staph, mycoplasma, no anaerobes

85
Q

tetracyclines (tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline)

mi

A

antibacterials

inhibit protein synth (bind to 30S and 50S ribosomal subunits)

ricketsiall, anaplams, mycopslams, brucella, chlamydia, spirochetes (leptospira, borrelia)

86
Q

potentiated sulfonamindes (trimethoprim-sulfa)

mi

A

anti-bacterials

false folate analogues

some g-, nocardia, pneumocystis

87
Q

aminoglycosides (gentamicin, amikacin)

mi

A

inhibit protein synth

serious g- infections, no anaerobes

88
Q

metronidazole

i

A

antibacterials

anaerobics (also used in IBD)

89
Q

macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin, tylosin)

coverage?

A

antibacterials

first two: anaerobes and g+

last one: colitis

90
Q

lincosamides (clindamycin)

i

A

antibacterials

toxoplasma, mycoplasma, chlamydia, anaerobes and g+

91
Q

chloramphenicol and florfenicol

spectrum?

A

antibacterials

anaerobes

92
Q

rifampin

spectrrum

A

antibacterial

mycobacteria

93
Q

Azoles (ketoconazole, itraconazole, fluconazole)

mi

A

antifungals

block ergosterol synth

fight most fungi

94
Q

amphotericin B

mi

A

antibiotic antifungal

binds ergosterol

systemic mycoses (aspergillus is resistant)

95
Q

griseofulvin

mi

A

antibiotic antifungals

binds microtubules and disrupts mitosis

active against dermatophytes (none against yeast )

96
Q

glucocorticoids

  1. act how?
A
  1. bind intracellular glucocorticoid receptor and modify expression profile of genes containing the glucocorticoid response element
97
Q

glucocorticoids

effects on metabolism?

A

catabolic

^ gluconeogenesis, decrease protein synth, ^lipolysis or lipogenesis depending on tissue

98
Q

(glucocorticoids)

  1. effect on musculoskeletal system?
  2. on CNS?
  3. on GI?
A
  1. enhanced bone resportion, muscle atrophy
  2. change in behavior (hyperactivity or drowsiness)
  3. ^ acid secretion and decreased mucosal cell turnover
99
Q

(glucocorticoids)

  1. renal effects?
  2. on cardiovascular?
A
  1. polyuria, ^ K and Ca excretion
  2. ^ vasomotor tone
100
Q

(glucocorticoids)

  1. effect on hematopoeitc (lots ehre)
A
  1. thrombocytosis
  2. neutrophilia, monocytosis
  3. eosinopenia, lymphopenia
  4. decrease inflammatory mediators
  5. decrease leukocytes phagocytosis, chemotaxis, and antigen processing
101
Q

(glucocorticoids)

1-5. indications?

A
  1. inflammatory diseases
  2. immune-mediated diseases
  3. atopy and allergic diseases
  4. treatment of hypoadrenocorticism
  5. hypercalcemia
102
Q

(glucocorticoids - side fx)

A
103
Q

(glucocorticoids)

A
104
Q

(glucocorticoids)

  1. short acting?
  2. intermediate-acting?
  3. long-acting?
A
  1. hydrocortisone
  2. prednisone or prednisolone, methylprednisolone
  3. dexamethasone
105
Q

NSAIDS

mech?

A

inhibition of cyclo-oxygenases 1 or 2 (COX-1, COX-2), leading to inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis from arachidonic acid

106
Q

NSAIDS

four major effects?

A
  1. anti-inflammatory
  2. antipyretic
  3. analgesic
  4. inhibition of platelet aggregation (via COX-1 inhibition)
107
Q

NSAIDs

1-3. 3 indications?

A
  1. musculoskeletal pain
  2. postop pain and inflammation
  3. fever
108
Q

NSAIDs

1-5. side fx?

A
  1. vomiting, diarhea
  2. gastric ulceration
  3. impaired renal blood flow
  4. hemorrhage due to impaired platelet function
  5. idiosyncratic liver tox
109
Q

NSAIDs

1-5. contraindications

A
  1. GI ulcers
  2. bleeding disorders
  3. compromised renal fxn
  4. dehydration
  5. liver dysfx
110
Q

(NSAIDS)

  1. non-selective xamples?
  2. COX-2 preferential
  3. COX-2 selective
A
  1. aspirin, phenylbutazone, flunixine, piroxicam
  2. carprofen, meloxicam
  3. deracoxib
111
Q

opioid analgesics

what are the three kinds of receptors and where are they found?

A

mu, kappa, delta

mu in brainstem

mu, kappa, delta in spinal cord

112
Q

(opioid analgesics)

  1. rank receptors in order of analgesia provided
  2. in order of sedation
  3. which receptor causes most resp depression, heart rate depression, hypothermia?
  4. which one has lots of GI side fx (nausea, vomiting, defecation)?
A
  1. mu > delta > kappa
  2. mu > delta (little) > kappa (none)
  3. mu
  4. mu
113
Q

morphine

mi

A

full opioid agonist

interacts with all receptors (but mu provides most effects)

analgesia for moderate to severe pain

114
Q

oxymorphone

i

A

full opioid agonist (morphine derivative)

analgesia for moderate to severe pain (specifically approved for dogs and cats)

115
Q

fentanyl

i

A

full opioid agonist (highly selective for mu)

analgesia for moderate to severe pain (duration of action around 20 minutes) - transdermal patches available for prolonged use

116
Q

hydromorphone

i

A

full opiod agonist

sedation and analgesia

117
Q

buprenorphine

i

A

partial opioid agonists

analgesia (mild), little to no sedation

antitussive in dogs

118
Q

naloxone

i

A

pure opioid antagonist

reverses CNS and resp depression

119
Q

tramadol

i

A

opioid - weak agonist on mu receptor

analgesia (minimal effect on resp, cardio, GI systems)

120
Q

heparin

m

A

anticoagulant

binds with antithrombin to inhibit thrombin formation

121
Q

aspirin (effect on blood)

A

anticoagulant (at low dose)

122
Q

phenobarbital

i

A

anticonvulsant

epileptic seizures

123
Q

bromide

A

anticonvulsant

124
Q

fenbendazole

i

A

anthelmintic

roundworms, hookworms, whipworms, giardia, lungworms

125
Q

fenbantel

i

A

anthelmintic

same as fenbendazole (roundworms, hookworms, whipworms, giardia, lungworms)

126
Q

pyrantel

i

A

anhtelmintic

roundworms and hookworms

127
Q

praziquantel

i

A

tapeworms

128
Q

ivermectin (heartguard and heartguard plus)

i

A

yeah…

infective stage of heartworm larvae

129
Q

milbemycin oxime

A

same as heartguard

130
Q

selamectin

A

same as heartguard (plus hookworms and roundworms in cats)

131
Q

melarsomie (immiticide)

A

treatment of adult heartworms and L5 larvae in dogs

132
Q

pyrethrins and pyrethroids

i

A

ectoparasiticide

effective against flies, fleas, lice, and ticks

133
Q

carbamates

i

A

ectoparasiticide

insecticide (fleas, lice, and flies), acaricide (mites and ticks)

134
Q

amitraz

i

A

ectoparasiticide

topical generalized canine demodicosis

135
Q

imidacloprid (advantage)

i

A

topical adulticide (kills fleas but not ticks)

136
Q

fipronil (frontline)

i

A

ectoparasiticides

active against fleas and ticks for 1 month

137
Q

ivermectin

i

A

ectoparasiticides

sarcoptic mange and demodicosis in dogs

138
Q

selamectin

i

A

ectoparasiticides

fleas and ear mites in dogs and cats

mange and ticks in dogs

00-01-09: pharmacology (6 decks)

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