Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Block 3 > All lectures > Flashcards

All lectures Flashcards

1
Q

Glycolysis is the ____ step in the breakdown of glucose to extract energy.

A

first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Glycolysis does not use ?

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the first phase of glycolysis

A

First traps the glucose molecule and uses energy to modify it: the six-carbon sugar molecule is split into two three-carbon molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the second phase of glycolysis

A

The second extracts energy from the molecules and stores it in the form of ATP and NADH (one enzyme is pyruvate kinase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do reactive oxygen species do?

A
  • Converts ferrous of haemoglobin to ferric of methaemoglobin
  • Damage lipid membrane: short life span
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does glutathione do?

A

Scavenges reactive oxygen species

  • Oxidized form is regenerated by glutathione reductase
  • Hexose monophosphate shunt generates the necessary NADPH and uses G6PD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is EPO or erythropoietin?

A

The hormone which controls red cell production: it works on red cell precursors in the bone marrow and promotes differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

EPO is produced where?

A

Kidney under hypoxic stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where is EPO produced in the foetal and perinatal period?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is EPO produced in adults?

A

Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the definition of anaemia?

A
  • Reduction in red cell number and haemoglobin concentration of blood
  • Haemoglobin is the oxygen carrying pigmented protein in red cells
  • Consequently anaemia is important as it results in a reduction in the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Symptoms of anaemia

A
  • Tiredness, headaches
  • Dizziness
  • Shortness of breath
  • palpitations
  • Chest pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are signs of anaemia?

A
  • Pallor: conjunctivae, palmar creases

- Cardiac decompensation: tachycardia, postural hypotension, congestive cardiac failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which signs of anaemia which provide a clue to aetiology?

A
  • Angular stomatitis, glossitis, koilonychia
  • Jaundice
  • Underlying illness: systemic illness, primary bone marrow pathology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is anaemia defined by laboratory indices?

A

Reduction in red cell number and haemoglobin concentration of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Useful laboratory indices for anaemia ?

A
  • Haemoglobin (Hb)
  • Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
  • Blood film
  • Reticulocyte count
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe properties of full blood count or FBC

A
  • EDTA anticoagulated venous blood sample
  • Objective
  • Accurate and reproducible
  • Rapid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is haemoglobin measured?

A

Aliquot lysed by laurel sulphate, read by sphectrophotometry @ 540 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is Red blood cell count measured?

A

Directly measured by particle counter (impedance: passage of cell impedes current and creates a pulse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is mean corpuscular volume measured? (MCV)

A

Directly measured electronically (impedance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is MCHC measured?

A

Calculated from haemoglobin and haematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is haematocrit measured?

A

Calculated from red cell number and MCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How are white cells and platelets measured?

A

Measured optically via electrical impedance, light scatter, fluorescence and laser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Haemoglobin levels in pregnancy?

A

10-20 lower due to disproportionate rise in plasma and red cell volumes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Normal haemoglobin levels (g/L) in newborn?

A

145-220

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Normal haemoglobin level (g/L) in 3-6 months?

A

110-135

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Normal haemoglobin levels (g/L) in 6-12 years?

A

115-155

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Normal haemoglobin levels in males?

A

130-170

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Normal haemoglobin levels in females?

A

120-160

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Normal reference range for MCV?

A

80-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Reduced MCV means?

A

Microcytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Normal MCV means?

A

Normocytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Increased MCV means?

A

Macrocytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Purpose of blood film?

A
  • It validates machine cell counts and indices

- Looking for specific morphological findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Blood smears are?

A

Dried and stained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Principle of Romanowsky stains?

A
  • Basic cellular elements react with an acidic dye (eosin) and stain red-orange, e.g. haemoglobin
  • Acidic cellular elements react with a basic dye (methylene) and stain blue, e.g. nuclear DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe journey of red cell development

A
  1. proerythroblast
  2. Basophilic erythroblast
  3. Polychromatic erythroblast
  4. Pyknotic erythroblast
  5. Reticulocyte
  6. Mature red blood cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Length of bone marrow proliferation and maturation?

A

3-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Length of reticulocytes from bone marrow to blood?

A

3-4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How long does a mature red cell circulate for?

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What nutrients are required for DNA synthesis and nuclear maturation?

A

Vitamin B12 and folate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are reticulocytes ?

A
  • Young immature red cells
  • Residual RNA
  • Therefore they have a blue blush
  • On a blood film this is called polychromasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Reticulocyte count is identified by?

A

Staining residual RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Manual way of identifying reticulocyte count?

A

Residual RNA precipitated and stained with a supravital dye (New methylene blue) and manually counted)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Automated way of counting reticulocyte?

A

Residual RNA stained with fluorescent dyes (green) and enumerated by flow cytometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Reference range of reticulocyte count ?

A

50-100 x 10^9 / L or 0.5-2.0%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

List cause of anaemia

A
  • Decreased production: deficiencies of iron, B12, folate
  • Systemic illness, primary bone marrow pathology
  • Increased loss of blood (bleeding)
  • Shortened life span or increased destruction (haemolytic anaemias), either inherited (e.g. thalassaemias) or acquired autoimmune)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Anaemia with decreased or increased white cells and/or platelets due to primary bone marrow pathology when?

A

When more than one cell line is abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Anaemia is NOt a?

A

Diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

MCV < 80fL means?

A

Iron deficiency due to chronic blood loss.

Inherited Hb abnormality: the thalassaemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

MCV normal means?

A
  • Acute blood loss
  • Systemic illness
  • Primary BM pathology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

MCV > 100 fL means?

A
  • B12 and folate deficiency
  • Haemolysis
  • Liver disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is anisopoikilocytosis?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia. Hypochromic microcytic cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In B12 or folate deficiency, what happens to RBCs?

A

Macrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Spherocytes occurs?

A

Haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What happens in polychromasia?

A

Abnormally high number of immature red bloo cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What happens in sickle cell anaemia?

A

An inherited abnormal haemoglobin, aren’t enough red blood cells to carry oxygen because they’re mishapen and break down faster than normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Rouleaux disease is?

A

RBCs stacking together due to discoid shape and flat surface. Occurs in myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What happens in acute leukaemia?

A

Immature white blood cells (blast cells) continue to divide but doesn’t mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Increased reticulocytes means?

A

Increased bone marrow production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What can increase bone marrow production?

A
  • Acute haemorrhage
  • Reduced red cell life span: haemolysis
  • Response to replenished iron, B12 and folate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Normal or reduced reticulocytes means?

A

Reduced bone marrow production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What can reduce bone marrow production?

A
  • Not enough iron, B12 and folate
  • Systemic illness
  • Bone marrow pathology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Iron studies can test for?

A

Transferrin saturation and ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Haemolytic screen can test for?

A
  • Bilirubin, LDH, haptoglobin, DCT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Tests of inherited causes of haemolysis look at?

A

Haemoglobin, red cell membrane and red cell enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Lab test for creatinine looks at?

A

Renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Serology tests look for?

A

Autoimmune diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Liver function tests look for? (LFT’s)

A

Hepatic dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which diseases should be considered when primary bone marrow pathology is diagnosed? (more than one cell line is affected)

A
  • Leukaemia
  • Lymphoma
  • Myeloma
  • Myeloproliferative disease
  • Secondary carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Bone marrow biopsy are performed to?

A

Confirm or exclude a suspected diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Procedure of bone marrow biopsy?

A
  • Site: posterior iliac crest or sternum, tibia in neonates
  • Aspirates: to assess cell number, maturation and morphology
  • Trephine: to assess cellularity, architecture and abnormal cellular infiltrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Treatments of anaemia?

A
  • Transfusion: only indication is circulatory compromise: acute severe blood loss, circulatory failure especially in the elderly
  • Replace missing iron, B12 and folate
  • Rectify shortened life span, in case of haemolysis
  • Treat underlying condition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Life span of neutrophils?

A

3-4 days unless digesting bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Life span of eosinophils?

A

3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Life span of basophils?

A

3-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Life span of B cells?

A

4 days to 5 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Life span of T cells?

A

Couple days to months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Life span of monocytes?

A

1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Life span of platelets?

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Lymphoid stem cells develop into?

A

Lymphoblast, which then develops into:

  • B lymphocyte
  • T lymphocyte
  • Natural killer cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Myeloid stem cells develop into?

A
  • Red blood cells
  • Platelets
  • Myeloblast which develop into: granulocytes (basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

0-2 months foetus blood production?

A

In yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

2-7 months foetus blood production?

A

Liver, spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

5-9 months foetus blood production?

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Infants blood production where?

A

Mostly bone marrow (long and flat bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Adults blood production where?

A
  • Bone marrow in all regions of flat bones and extremities of long bones (e.g. vertebrae, ribs, sternum, skull, sacrum and pelvis, proximal ends of femur)
  • Extra-medullary depends on need
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Mature RBC does not have?

A
  • No DNA
  • No RNA
  • Cannot synthesize Hb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Reticulocytes does not have?

A
  • Doesn’t have nucleus,
  • Reduced size
  • Still contains some RNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Reticulocyte moves into peripheral blood and final maturation by?

A

Repeated passage through spleen/marrow in peripheral blood circulation ~ 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Orthochromatophilic erythroblast/normoblast haemoglobin percentage?

A

35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are basophilic erythroblast?

A

Nucleus condensing, haemoglobin formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are polychromatophilic erythroblast?

A

Cells getting smaller, losing organelles, nucleus shrinking, producing Hb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Haemoglobin is broken down into ?

A

Globin and heme, and amino acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Heme becomes bilirubin, which is?

A

Bilirubin is picked up from blood by liver, secreted into intestine in bile, metabolized to stercobilin by bacteria and excreted in feces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Iron is stored as?

A

Ferritin and haemosiderin in liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Essential factors of erythropoiesis?

A
  • Hypoxia inducible factors

- Haematinics (e.g. b12, cobalamin, B9, folic acid/folates, iron - transferrin - macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Control of erythropoiesis:

A
  • Hypoxia, anaemia

- Thyroid hormones, androgens, growth hormone, corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Essential organs of erythropoiesis?

A
  • Bone marrow

- Kidney, liver, spleen, gastrointestinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Destruction of erythrocytes?

A

Macrophages, haem breaks down to iron and bilirubin (colour)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Critical biosynthesis in erythropoiesis?

A

DNA synthesis, Hb synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Causes of iron deficiency anaemia?

A
  • Increased iron requirements: growth demands
  • Limited external supply: poor intake, malabsorption
  • Blood loss: bleeding, venesection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Stain for haemoglobin?

A

Hb is basic component, so use acidic dye (eosin) - red/orange .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Stain for DNA?

A

DNA is acidic, so use basic dye (methylene) - blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

MCV is?

A

Mean corpuscular volume or the average volume of red cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia?

A
  • Iron deficiency anaemia

- Thalassaemia (genetic disorder, abnormal Hb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Describe vitamin b12 absorption

A
  • Dietary B12 intake,
  • Dietary protein separated from B12 due to HCl and pepsin secretion
  • Haptocorrin binds to B12 protein
  • Complex goes to intestine where B12 binds to intrinsic factor
  • B12- intrinsic factor complex binds to cubman receptor which then allows it to separate, and be absorbed through MDR1 channel into blood vessels.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency leads to?

A

Macrocytic anaemia due to impaired DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Lack of Vitamin B12 or folate are caused by?

A
  • Insufficient intake

- Deficient absorption: due to gastrectomy and/or autoimmune attack such as pernicious anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Causes of normocytic anaemia?

A
  • Decreased production: anaemia of chronic disease (common)
  • Increased destruction or loss: acute bleeding, hypersplenism, haemolytic disorders
  • Increased plasma volume: pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the prevalence of anaemia?

A
  • ~8% of preschool children
  • 12% of pregnant women
  • 15% of non-pregnant women of reproductive age
  • Highly prevalent in Indigenous communities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Symptoms of anaemia? (subjective phenomenon)

A
  • Tiredness
  • Dizziness
  • Palpitation
  • Headache
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Signs of anaemia (objective phenomenon)

A
  • Pallor: conjunctivae, skin, oral mucosa
  • Jaundice
  • Koilonychia (spoon nails)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What does atrophic glossitis look like? (due to anaemia)

A
  • Smooth glossy appearance with red or pink background tongue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What does angular cheilitis as a oral manifestation of anaemia?

A
  • Inflamed and cracked skin at the angles of the mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What’s lymphoma?

A

Malignant disease in which lymphocytes proliferate in an uncontrolled manner leading to lymphocyte accumulation in lymph nodes (one or more of neck, axillae, thorax, abdomen, inguinal) and/or lymphocyte accumulation in bone marrow

117
Q

Lymphoma results in?

A

Lymph node enlargement (isolated or generalised) and occasionally
- Marrow failure (anaemia, lecopenia, thrombocytopenia)

118
Q

Epidemiology of lymphoma

A

5th and 6th most common cancers among males and females in Australia and USA.

119
Q

Lymph node groups exist where?

A
  • Adenoid
  • Tonsils
  • Thymus
  • Spleen
  • Bone marrow
  • Lymphatics of mammary gland
120
Q

Common lymphoid progenitor differentiates into?

A
  • T-lymphocyte
  • B-lymphocyte
  • NK cells
121
Q

Common myeloid progenitor differentiates into?

A
  • MEP -> Megakaryocyte, erythrocyte

- GMP -> Granulocyte, monocyte

122
Q

Which lymphoma is more common?

A

B cell lymphomas are much more common than T cell lymphomas.

T cell lymphomas are much more common than NK cell lymphomas.

123
Q

B cells function?

A

Make antibodies

124
Q

T cells function?

A

Fight viruses, fungi and tumours (specific)

125
Q

NK cells function?

A

Fight viruses, fungi and tumours (non-specific)

126
Q

Each lymphocyte (B or T) has one receptor for antigen on its surface and responds to only?

A

One antigen

127
Q

T or B lymphocyte antigen receptor remains?

A

Remains unchanged for the whole of the lymphocyte’s life.

128
Q

Describe what happens in a lymphoma

A
  • All cells share the same B cell (or T cell) receptor and the same B cell (or T cell) receptor gene sequence
  • If B cell, all cells express a single type of light chain (k/l) kappa or lamda
  • All cells express the same differentiation proteins on their surface
  • If the parent B cell produces antibody, all lymphoma cells produce that same antibody (paraprotein)
129
Q

List two types of lymphoma

A
  • Non-Hodgkins lymphoma

- Hodgkins lymphoma

130
Q

Typical histological appearance of lymphocyte

A

Small cells with little cytoplasm

131
Q

Flow cytometry for identifying lymphocyte populations

A

Examining the surface proteins (most have been assigned CD (or cluster of differentiation) numbers. A monoclonal population of mature B cells expresses either kappa or lambda light chains, not both.

132
Q

List tests for cytogenetics and molecular genetics - changes in chromosomes or genes that are on chromosomes

A
  • Cytogenetic analysis - karyotype
  • Fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH)
  • Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) ie DNA amplification
133
Q

How does FISH (fluorescence in situ hybridisation) work?

A

Probes to specific genetic locations are used to track the position of those locations in the cell: identifies translocations such as those involving bcl-2, c-myc etc

134
Q

How does polymerase chain reaction (PCR) work?

A

Identifies stretches of DNA by amplifying an intervening section through forward and reverse primer sequences e.g. translocation of bcl-2 and IgH in follicular lymphoma

135
Q

List major classes of non-hodgkin’s lymphomas

A
  • Indolent (low-grade, slow-growing): follicular, marginal zone, other
  • Aggressive (intermediate and high-grade, fast-growing): diffuse large B cell lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, other
136
Q

How do indolent NHLs present?

A

Slow growing but often widespread.

Typically asymptomatic at diagnosis.

“watch and wait” strategy can be used with low tumour burden of disease.

Responds to treatment but relapses.

Not considered curable.

can transform to higher grade lymphoma (3% annually)

137
Q

Most common type of indolent lymphoma?

A

Follicular lymphoma is the most common indolent lymphoma. Others include marginal zone lymphoma, Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia)

138
Q

Describe aggressive NHLs

A
  • Most often symptomatic at diagnosis
  • Quite often localised at diagnosis
  • Progresses relatively rapidly without treatment
  • Cause death within months to 1-2 years if not effectively treated
  • Always aggressively treated in fit patients
139
Q

Most common aggressive lymphoma?

A

diffuse large B cell lymphoma,

140
Q

Describe DLBCL (diffuse large B cell lymphoma)

A
  • Diffuse infiltrate of large B-cells in node
  • Patients of all ages
  • 50% curable with chemotherapy, those that relapse progress and die of lymphoma
  • some relapsing patients can be salvaged with a stem cell transplant usually the patient’s own stem cells
141
Q

Describe Burkitt’s lymphoma

A
  • Aggressive lymphoma with a particular genetic alteration involving a translocation between chromosomes 8 and 14 or (t8:14) that juxtaposes the c-myc oncogene and the IgH gene
  • Cells have a very high mutation rate
  • Specific morphology (starry sky appearance)
  • Affects all ages and has a predilection to involve the ileum and the nervous system
  • Requires aggressive multiagent chemotherapy that can be curative
142
Q

Describe Waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia

A
  • An indolent lymphoma of lymphoplasmacytoid cells in the bone marrow
  • Characterised by lymphoplasmacytoid morphology and the presence of an IgM paraprotein
143
Q

Waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia is frequently associated with which mutation?

A

L265P in the MyD88 signalling pathway protein

144
Q

Waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia is often associated with?

A

Anaemia and splenomegaly.

145
Q

Waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia is not treated?

A

Not treated aggressively as many cases slow to progress

146
Q

3 types of biopsy available for lymph nodes?

A
  • Fine needle biopsy
  • Core biopsy
  • Surgical biopsy (partial or complete excision)
147
Q

Surgical biopsy provides what details?

A
  • Cell detail
  • Architecture
  • Flow cytometry
  • Immunohistochemistry
  • Genetics
  • Accurate diagnosis and classification
148
Q

Core biopsy provides what details?

A
  • Uses ultrasound
  • CT if excision is difficult e.g. node site, age, patient co-morbidities
  • Limited material and architecture
149
Q

Fine needle biopsy gives what details?

A
  • Only cytology and flow cytometry, but never gives architecture and is inadequate for initial diagnosis
  • Used as an initial screen to exclude other cancers or to confirm relapse in a case of a known lymphoma.
150
Q

Immunopehnotyping is important for?

A

Lymphoma diagnosis and classification

  • Detects antigen expression (e.g. CD19, CD20, CD5, CD23) and monoclonality using kappa and lambda
  • Can be done on tissue by flow cytometry and immunohistochemistry
  • Blood and BM using flow cytometry
151
Q

What is Ann Arbor Staging system?

A
  • Originally used for staging HL; adopted for NHL
  • Accounts for: number of disease sites, presence of disease above or below diaphragm, presence of extranodal disease, systemic symptoms
  • Used to distinguish local from extensive disease
152
Q

Risk factors for diffuse large B cell lymphoma?

A
  • AGe > 60 years
  • Stages 3 or 4
  • More than 2 extranodal sites
  • ECOG performance status greater or equal 2
  • LDH > normal
153
Q

Chemotherapy for lymphoma include:

A
  • Chlorambucil
  • Cyclophosphamide (C)
  • Doxorubicin (H)
  • Vincristine (O)
  • Prednisone (P)
154
Q

Immunotherapy for lymphoma include:

A

Rituximab (R)

155
Q

What is CD20 molecule

A
  • Transmembrane phosphoprotein
  • Single extracellular loop
  • Natural ligand not identified
  • Physiologic function uncertain
  • Expressed on most B-cell malignancies
  • Resistant to internalisation or shedding after ligation by antibody.
156
Q

What is the drug for CD20

A

Rituximab: a therapeutic anti-CD20 antibody

157
Q

Function of rituximab

A

Binds CD20 molecule present on normal and malignant B cells.

Improves response rate in B cell lymphomas when given with chemotherapy

158
Q

Rituximab is used routinely as maintenance therapy in?

A

Low grade lymphoma after completion of chemo-immunotherapy where it prolongs survival

159
Q

Rituximab is used routinely in DLBCL where it?

A

Improves response rate and overall survival

160
Q

Rituximab is also used in many ?

A

Non-lymphoma situations especially where pathological auto-antibodies are formed.

161
Q

Example of immunomodulating drugs in treatment of lymphoma

A

Lenalidomide

162
Q

Proteosome inhibitor in treatment of lymphoma

A

Bortezomib

163
Q

List B cell receptor signalling inhibitors in treatment of lymphoma

A

Ibrutinib, idelalisib

164
Q

List BH3 mimetics that induce apoptosis in treatment of lymphoma

165
Q

Describe inhibitors of B cell receptor signalling pathways

A
  • Fostamatinib inhibit SYK,
  • GS-1101 inhibits PI3ko
  • Ibrutinib inhibits BTK which inhibits NF-kb production
166
Q

Lenalidomide inhibits IR4F because?

A

If IR4F is not inhibited, it upregulates CARD11 and downregulates IRF7 and IFN-beta

167
Q

Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the homozygous haemoglobin mutation?

A

Glu6 Beta- > val, which aggregates as rigid 14-strand fibres.

168
Q

Which haemoglobin causes sickle cell anaemia?

A

haemoglobin S

169
Q

Function of quinoline?

A

These anti-malarial drugs such as quinine, chloroquine, and mefloquine inhibit the chemical polymerisation of haem which accumulates in the parasite and kills it.

170
Q

Malarial parasites does what?

A

Proteolyse haemoglobin, and synthesizes parasitic proteins.

171
Q

What’s thalassaemia?

A

Normal globin chains are produced but in reduced quantity

172
Q

Examples of abnormal globin chains produced in normal quantity?

A

Sickle cell anaemia, haemoglobin C or haemoglobin E disease

173
Q

In thalassaemia, what are the major consequences of reduced production of one type of globin chain are:

A
  • The reduced production of functional haemoglobin tetramers

- An imbalance in synthesis of individual alpha and beta subunits

174
Q

What is beta thalassaemia?

A

If an abnormal gene reduces the rate of production of beta globin chains and excess alpha chains accumulate.

175
Q

What is alpha thalassaemia?

A

When alpha globin chain production is reduced, and excess beta chains accumulate

176
Q

Which chromosome encodes for alpha globin chain production?

A

Chromosome 16, making for a total of 4 genes encoding alpha chains (2 genes per chromosome)

177
Q

Which chromosome encodes for beta globin chain production?

A

Chromosome 11, total 2 genes (1 gene per chromosome)

178
Q

Most cases of beta thalassaemia are due to?

A

point mutations

179
Q

Most cases of alpha thalassaemias are due to?

A

Deletions, although some point mutations are also recognised.

180
Q

What is SOCRATES method?

A

Site, onset, character (type of pain), radiation, associated feature, timing, exacerbation or relieving factors, severity

181
Q

Associated symptoms with anaemia

A

Fatigue, weakness, dyspnoea, palpitations, headache, dizziness, tinnitus

182
Q

Associated symptoms with neutropenia

A

Unusually severe or recurrent infections

183
Q

Associated symptoms with thrombocytopenia

A

Easy bruising, excessive bleeding after trauma, spontaneous bleeding from mucous membranes

184
Q

Associated symptoms with defective coagulation

A

Excessive bleeding after trauma, spontaneous bleeding into joints and muscles

185
Q

Associated symptoms with leukaemia and lymphoma

A

Lumps caused by lymphadenopathy, pain

186
Q

Pallor possibly means?

187
Q

Lemon tint on face means?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia

188
Q

Jaundice on face means?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

189
Q

Plethora on face means?

A

Polycythaemia

190
Q

Ulcers in mouth possibly means?

A

Neutropenia

191
Q

Glossitis in mouth possibly means?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia; iron deficiency anaemia

192
Q

Angular chelitis in mouth possibly means?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia; iron deficiency anaemia

193
Q

Oral thrush in mouth possibly means?

A

Immunosuppression

194
Q

Excessive bruising on skin possibly means?

A

Coagulation disorder, thrombocytopenia

195
Q

Purpuric or petechial rash possibly means?

A

Thrombocytopenia

196
Q

Leg ulcers possibly means ?

A

Sickle cell anaemia

197
Q

Localised lymphadenopathy common causes?

A

Local bacterial, or viral infection, lymphoma, metastatic malignancy

198
Q

Generalised lymphadenopathy common causes?

A

Systemic infection, lymphoma, leukaemia, inflammatory disease, disseminated malignancy

199
Q

Slightly enlarged spleen are caused by?

A

Various acute and chronic infection

200
Q

Moderate enlarged spleen are caused by?

A

Haemolytic anaemia; infectious mononucleosis; portal hypertension

201
Q

Massive enlarged spleen are caused by?

A

Myelofibrosis; chronic myeloid leukaemia; polycythaemia vera; lymphoma; malaria; leishmaniasis

202
Q

Consistent markers of malnutrition in measuring weight?

A

> 2% in 1 week, 5% loss in 30 days, > 7.5% in 3 months, 10% loss in 180 days BMI <21

203
Q

Jaundice is due to?

A

Release of unconjugated bilirubin from lysed red cells

204
Q

All patients with haemolytic anaemia are at risk of?

A

Developing aplastic anaemia

205
Q

Aplastic anaemias are often associated with which oral manifestations?

A

Oral petechiae, gingival hyperplasia, spontaneous gingival bleeding and increased incidence of oral herpetic lesions

206
Q

Iron deficiency signs include?

A

Koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails) pruritis and pica.

Epithelial atrophy of the oral mucosa, loss of filiform and fungiform papillae, red shiny smooth atrophic tongue which is often painful (glossodynia), oral ulcerations, angular cheilitis, candidosis, xerostomia

207
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome features?

A

Dysphagia, presence of a ‘pharyngeal web’ and a high incidence of oral and oro-pharyngeal carcinoma.

208
Q

Painful glossitis or burning tongue may be a manifestation of?

A

Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency

209
Q

Painless glossitis is generally associated with?

A

Iron deficiency.

210
Q

What is the most common metabolic disorder of red blood cells?

A

X-linked glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD)

211
Q

Haemolytic crisis may be facilitated by?

A

Decreased oxygenation, oxidative drugs such as sulphonamides, chloramphenicol, aspirin by infections or eating fava beans.

212
Q

Congenital haemolytic anaemias features?

A

Delayed eruption of teeth or discoloured teeth.

213
Q

Anaesthetic medication for patients with anaemia?

A

Prilocaine and articaine could cause methaemoglobinaemia.

214
Q

What is methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Rare blood disorder where the blood is unable to carry oxygen to cells in the body

215
Q

How is methaemoglobinaemia caused?

A

The condition occurs when normal haemoglobin which containing Fe2+ is changed to abnormal haemoglobin called methaemoglobin which contains Fe3+.

216
Q

Analgesic medication for patients with anaemia

A

Aspirin/NSAIDs could cause platelet dysfunction, gastritis, acidosis; acidotic drugs cause haemolysis in congenital anaemias, so avoid paracetamol and codeine in the G6PD patient.

217
Q

Sedation medication for patients with anaemia?

A

Myelopathy and neuropathy caused by nitrous oxide toxicity. Nitrogen dioxide inactivates the cobalamin form of Vitamin B12 by oxidation. It can occur within days or weeks of exposure to nitrogen dioxide anaesthesia in people with subclinical vitamin B12 deficiency

218
Q

Antibiotics for patients with anaemia?

A

No sulpha drugs with G6PD deficiency

219
Q

Arterial supply of spleen?

A

Splenic artery and venous blood into portal circulation

220
Q

In the spleen, the arteries supplying blood to the spleen are surrounded by a sleeve of lymphocytes consisting principally of?

221
Q

Along the sleeve of lymphocytes surrounding arteries to spleen, the follicles consisting of mantle zones and germinal centres containing B cells form.

222
Q

Mantle zones and germinal centres containing B cells are known as?

A

White pulp

223
Q

Arteries that open out onto the splenic cords, a meshwork of fibroblasts and macrophages and terminate in close proximity to the splenic sinuses are known as?

224
Q

spleen function?

A

Serves as a filter culling defective or abnormal red blood cells and retaining platelets, reticulocytes and lymphocytes.

225
Q

Under normal circumstances, there is no ______ in the spleen beyond the 5th month of in utero life.

A

Haemopoiesis

226
Q

Describe congestion as a cause of splenomegaly

A

Any cause of increased portal pressure (portal hypertension) will lead to splenomegaly. These include right heart failure, hepatic vein thrombosis, hepatic cirrhosis from any cause, hepatic sinusoidal obstruction and portal vein thrombosis

227
Q

Describe increased phagocytic activity in splenomegaly

A

This may be due to abnormal red cells such as hereditary spherocytosis, thalassaemia, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia or to acute or chronic infections, including Epstein Barr infection, cytomegalovirus or malaria. Lymphoid hyperplasia may play a role in the splenomegaly associated with infections.

228
Q

List other causes of splenomegaly

A

Infiltration by abnormal cells, haemopoietic or lymphoid type. Acute and chronic leukaemias, lymphoma, myeloproliferative disorders.

Rarely: rheumatoid arthritis, sarcoidosis, thyrotoxicosis.

229
Q

Which viruses cause bone marrow failure?

A

Parvovirus, hepatitis viruses

230
Q

Which drugs cause bone marrow failure

A

Anti-cancer drugs

231
Q

What is SCT?

A

Stem cell transplantation

232
Q

List types of SCT?

A

Autologous, syngeneic, unrelated donor, and haplo-identical parent.

233
Q

Stem cells can be obtained from?

A

Bone marrow, peripheral blood and umbilical cord blood

234
Q

Allogeneic grafts does what?

A

Initiate immune reactions related to histocompatibility.

235
Q

The aggregate of oligopeptides displayed is determined by?

A

Binding specificities of a person’s HLA molecules.

236
Q

T cell receptors interact with?

A

Surface glycoproteins and bound peptides

237
Q

Donor T cells recognise recipient antigens and can cause?

A

Graft versus host disease (GVHD)

238
Q

List complications of stem cell transplantation?

A
  • Mucositis: oropharyngeal mucositis is painful and can involve the supraglottic area and require intubation. Intestinal mucositis causes nausea, cramping and diarrhea.
  • Hepatic veno-occlusive disease, a potentially fatal syndrome of painful hepatomegaly, jaundice and fluid retention.
  • Lung injury
  • Related infections
  • Acute GVHD damages the skin, gut and liver
  • Profound immunodeficiency,
  • Predisposing patient to fatal infection
  • HA mismatch
239
Q

Hodgkin’s disease presents most commonly as?

A

As a group of firm, non-tender, enlarged lymph nodes and in more than half of cases. It is mediastinal or cervical nodes that are involved.

240
Q

People with Sjogren syndrome are at increased risk of?

241
Q

Intraoral lymphoma usually involves?

A

Waldeyer’s ring (oropharynx and soft palate), but may appear anywhere in the oral cavity as a rapidly expanding swelling.

242
Q

Multiple myeloma may present with?

A

Normochromic, normocytic anaemia.

243
Q

Multiple myeloma can develop?

A

Renal impairement and hypercalcaemia can develop with the formation of osteolytic lesions.

244
Q

Chemotherapy for myeloma?

A

Biphosphonates and these drugs are associated with BONJ (biphosphonate-associated osteoradionecrosis of the jaws)

245
Q

Impaired vitamin K absorption or metabolism can lead to?

A

Profound coagulopathy, manifested by haemorrhagic episodes and a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

246
Q

Impaired vitamin K absorption can occur?

A

can occur in malabsorption, liver disease, vitamin K deficiency (e.g. in malignancy), and oral anticoagulant.

247
Q

LIver disease can result in?

A

Bleeding diathesis which includes depletion of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, failure to clear activated clotting facotrs, thrombocytopenia due to portal hypertension and hypersplenism and abnormal fibrinogen.

248
Q

In severe liver disease, what does it manifest as?

A

Prolonged PT, APTT, with variable but usually mild thrombocytopenia.

249
Q

Defibrination syndrome or disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in general has one or two possible causes?

A
  • Release of pro-coagulant material into the circulation (amniotic fluid embolism, or metastatic malignancy)
  • Widespread vascular damage (sepsis, e.g. E. coli or Meningococcus)
250
Q

Resultant coagulpathy due to DIC is due to?

A

consumption of clotting factors, especially factors V, VIII, fibrinogen, and platelets and this may lead to significant bleeding or even thrombosis.

251
Q

Therapy for DIC revolves around?

A

Removal of triggers, alleviation of acidosis, hypoxia, shock and correction of the coagulopathy by factor replacement with fresh frozen plasma, cryoprecipitate and platelets.

252
Q

Acquired anticoagulants usually?

A

Factor 8 inhibitors, these are rare but may occur with rheumatoid arthritis, pregnancy or old age. May regress spontaneously or require immunosuppressive therapy.

253
Q

Anticoagulant excess with heparin is not uncommon in a hospital setting and may lead to?

A

Retroperitoneal or other haemorrhage.

254
Q

What is HITS?

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia syndrome characterised by thrombocytopenia due to heparin-dependent antibodies and a paradoxical tendency to develop arterial thrombosis

255
Q

What is Vitamin K essential for?

A

Normal synthesis of factor 2, 7, 9 and 10.

256
Q

Impaired vitamin K metabolism leads to?

A

Profound coagulopathy, haemorrhagic episodes, prolonged prothrombin and partial thromboplastin time, e.g. malabsorption, liver disease and oral anticoagulant overdose.

257
Q

Heparin overdose may lead to?

A

Retroperitoneal or other haemorrhage

258
Q

Defibrination syndrome in general has which causes?

A
  • Release of procoagulant material into the circulation (amniotic fluid embolism or fat embolism); or widespread vascular damage (E. coli or meningococcal septicaemia).
259
Q

Resultant coagulopathy is due to?

A

Consumption of clotting factors, 5, 8, fibrinogen and platelets

260
Q

Haemophilia A is?

A

Gene disorder in distal end of the long arm of X chromosome (Xq28), resulting in a deficiency of plasma factor 8 activity.

261
Q

30% of haemophilia A are caused by?

A

Sporadic mutation

262
Q

What is lyonisation?

A

Skewed x-inactivation

263
Q

What is haemophilia B (christmas disease)

A

X-linked recessive genetic disorder resulting in deficiency of factor 9 activity. About 75% of mutations in haemophilia B are missense substitutions.

264
Q

Where is factor 9 is synthesized exclusively in?

265
Q

What happens in von Willebrand’s Disease (vWD)?

A

Plasma level of factor 8 may be reduced as a secondary phenomenon. Bleeding time roughly reflects vWF function and may be prolonged in vWD. Specific antibodies are used to detect the molecule as vWF:Ag.

266
Q

What’s a good test for von Willebrand’s Disease?

A

Ristocetin co-factor test measures the agglutination of normal platelets suspended in patient plasma and is diminished in vWD.

267
Q

Hallmarks of vWD?

A

Mucosal bleeding and occasional joint bleeds

268
Q

Most prominent symptom of haemophilia?

A

Bleeding, particularly into the joints or muscles.

Haemarthrosis commonly affecting the hinged joints (ankles, knees, elbows)

269
Q

Chronic arthropathy eventually leads to?

A

Fibrosis of the synovium and capsule and reduced swelling.

270
Q

When does chronic arthropathy usually develops around?

A

Second decade of life or earlier

271
Q

In a single fetus pregnancy, what happens to plasma volume?

A

40-50% increase

272
Q

Iron absorption increases in?

A

Pregnancy, but not sufficient to compensate for inadequate stores commonplace in women of childbearing age.

273
Q

During pregnancy, what happens to folate requirements?

A

Doubles, due to fetal and placental growth and the increase in red cell mass.

274
Q

Pregnancy stimulates production of?

A

Transferrin which elevates iron binding capacity.

275
Q

Most useful measures of iron and folate status in pregnancy?

A

Serum ferritin and red cell folate.

276
Q

What is a significant complication of pregnancy and the post-partum period in coagulation?

A

Thromboembolism

277
Q

Pregnancy’s hypercoagulable state develops as a ?

A

Protective mechanism such as fibrinogen rising 2 to 3 folds.

278
Q

Patients who are susceptible to DVT are often?

A

Medicated with anti-coagulants

279
Q

Patients who use aspirin may inhibit?

A

May inhibit platelet thromboxane production and platelet aggregation. This can increase bleeding risks.

280
Q

NSAIDs also block formation of?

A

Blocks formation of thromboxane A by inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase.

281
Q

How does warfarin work?

A

It is an oral anticoagulant that inhibits the biosynthesis of vitamin K-dependent coagulation proteins (Factor 7, 9, 10 and prothrombin). It affects both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.

282
Q

Which test is used to determine safety of warfarin?

A

INR test, 24 hours before surgery. If below 2.2, it is safe.

283
Q

Which drugs can increase warfarin effect?

A
  • Several antibiotics: metronidazole, erythromycin, penicillin G)
  • Antifungals (miconazole, and fluconazole),
  • Chloral hydrate
  • NSAIDs
284
Q

Patients receiving haemodialysis are given?

285
Q

New Oral Anticoagulants NOACs (e.g. apixaban, dabigatran, rivaroxaban) pose?

A

Poses considerable patient safety risk.

286
Q

Prothrombin time tests extrinsic pathway for ?

A

Factors 2, 5, 7, 10. Prolonged in liver disease, vitamin K deficiency, oral anticoagulants

287
Q

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) tests intrinsic pathway for?

A

Factors 8, 9, 11, 12 10.
Prolonged in factor 8, 9 deficiency (HAemophilia A, B; non Willebrand’s disease); inhibitors e.g. heparin, lupus anticoagulant)

288
Q

Recommended drugs for malaria?

A

Atovaquone, chloroquine, doxycycline, mefloquine, primaquine, tafenoquine

Block 3 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions