All Domains Flashcards
1
Q
What is acceptance in risk management?
A
A risk response that chooses to accept the risk within the project without creating a strategy to counteract the risk event. Acceptance is often used with small risks.
2
Q
What are action items in project management?
A
Actions or assignments that team members are to complete, usually determined in a project meeting.
3
Q
What is an activity-on-the-arrow project network diagram?
A
Origin of the arrow is the ‘begin activity’ sign, and the end of the arrow is the ‘end activity’ sign. Also commonly referred to as the Arrow Diagraming Method (ADM).
4
Q
What does the activity-on-the-node project network diagram focus on?
A
The project activities rather than on the start and end of activities. AON illustrates the sequencing of activities from the start of the project through the end of the project.
5
Q
What are actual costs (AC) in earned value management?
A
Represents the actual cost of the work performed.
6
Q
What is ad hoc reporting?
A
Impromptu reports on schedule, cost, scope, or other key performance indicators (KPIs) as requested by stakeholders with enough authority to cause the project manager to create the report.
7
Q
What are add/move/change projects?
A
Generally smaller projects that add, move, or change some element within an organization. Approximately 10 percent of the project time is allotted to planning.
8
Q
What is the adjourning phase in project management?
A
Finality of project calls for the team to disperse, or adjourn, to other projects and join different project teams.
9
Q
What is administrative closure in project management?
A
When the customer or project sponsor documents and accepts the project results; also needed if a project is terminated.
10
Q
What defines agile project management?
A
A change-driven approach to project management, where the project team moves through iterations, or sprints, of planning and executing.
11
Q
What is analogous estimating?
A
A form of expert judgment that relies on historical information to predict estimates for current projects. Also known as top-down estimating.
12
Q
What is the role of an architect in a project?
A
A role that creates the high-level plan or solution for the project scope.
Architects generally create the software, network, database, or communication structure for the project scope solution.
13
Q
What does ALAP stand for in project management?
A
As late as possible constraint.
When you specify a task as ALAP, Microsoft Project will schedule the task to occur as late as possible without delaying dependent tasks.
14
Q
What does ASAP stand for in project management?
A
As soon as possible constraint.
When you specify a task as ASAP, Microsoft Project will schedule the task to occur as soon as it can.
15
Q
What is an assumptions log?
A
A document that records assumptions made during planning.
These assumptions are documented to track potential project impacts if they prove untrue.
16
Q
Define asynchronous communication.
A
Any communication that doesn’t happen in real time.
Examples include e-mail, text, or PMIS solutions.
17
Q
What is avoidance in risk management?
A
A response to a risk event where the risk is removed from the project.
This is achieved by planning a different technique.
18
Q
What is a backlog in project management?
A
The list of things to complete in the project.
This includes defect resolution, added features, or documentation.
19
Q
What is benchmarking?
A
The process of using prior projects to set quality standards.
This can be done within or external to the performing organization.
20
Q
What are benefit measurement methods?
A
Methods used to compare the value of one project against another.
These methods are often used in project selection models.
21
Q
What is a bid in project management?
A
A document from the seller to the buyer.
It is used when price is the determining factor in the decision-making process.
22
Q
What is a bidder conference?
A
A meeting with prospective sellers to clarify project details.
It allows sellers to query the buyer on product details to ensure adequate proposals.
23
Q
Define bottom-up cost estimating.
A
The process of creating a detailed estimate for each work component.
This includes labor and materials, based on the WBS and WBS dictionary.
24
Q
What is brainstorming?
A
An approach that encourages participants to generate ideas about an opportunity or business problem
Useful at the research stage to determine different types of outcomes for the project.
25
What is a budget?
The finances allotted for the completion of a project
## Footnote
Essential for project planning and management.
26
What does budget at completion (BAC) refer to?
The sum of the budget for each phase of your project; the estimated grand total of your project
## Footnote
Helps in tracking project financials.
27
What is a budget burndown chart?
Shows the amount of funds the project has spent on the overall project budget to reach a specific point in the project
## Footnote
Represented in a declining line from start to target project end date.
28
What is a budget estimate?
A somewhat broad estimate used early in the planning processes, with a range of variance, for example, -10 percent to +25 percent
## Footnote
Important for initial project assessments.
29
What is burn rate?
The rate of consumption of resources, budget, and tasks
## Footnote
Often associated with how quickly the project is utilizing funds and completing tasks.
30
What does a burndown chart show?
The estimated effort remaining needed to complete the project or phase of the project
## Footnote
Displays the diminishing number of tasks left to complete.
31
What is a burnup chart?
Shows the effort spent completing user stories in an agile project
## Footnote
Displays the accumulation of tasks toward project completion.
32
What is the role of a business analyst?
Responsible for eliciting, documenting, and supporting the product requirements of the project
## Footnote
Key role in ensuring project requirements are met.
33
What is a business case?
A document that helps the organization determine if it can justify the cost of the project in proportion to the return on investment
## Footnote
Links the value of the project's solution to the organization.
34
What are business cycles?
Times of business productivity when activities are very high or low
## Footnote
Example: An accounting firm may be busy during tax season.
35
Who are business partners?
Sellers, vendors, and contractors involved in a project through a contractual relationship
## Footnote
Provide goods, services, and subject matter experts needed for the project.
36
What is business rules analysis?
The study of business rules that define internal processes, decision-making, organizational boundaries, and governance for projects, employees, and operations.
37
What are capital expenses (CapEx)?
Purchases by an organization to provide future benefits, such as new computer hardware, buildings, and property.
38
What are capital resources?
Money or financing to charter new projects, purchase equipment, contract labor, or other physical resources.
39
What are cause-and-effect diagrams also known as?
Ishikawa diagrams and fishbone diagrams.
40
What is the purpose of cause-and-effect diagrams?
To identify and treat the root cause of problems rather than the symptoms.
41
What is centralized contracting?
A process where all contracts for projects are approved through a central contracting unit within the performing organization.
42
Who is a champion in project management?
An individual who defends the project, ensures resources, and has authority over project resources.
43
What is the role of a change control board (CCB)?
To determine the validity and need for project change requests and to approve or deny them.
44
What is a change control system (CCS)?
An internal process that blocks unauthorized changes to project deliverables without proper justification.
45
What is a change impact statement?
A formal response from the project manager summarizing the proposed plan to incorporate changes in response to a Project Change Request.
46
What does a change log document?
Records all proposed changes in the project, their effects, status, and relevant information about each change request.
47
What is a chart of accounts?
A coding system used by the accounting system to assign costs for project work.
48
Fill in the blank: Capital expenses are usually __________ acquisitions.
long-term
49
True or False: A champion is always the project sponsor.
False
50
What is a checklist?
A list of activities that workers check to ensure the work has been completed consistently
## Footnote
Checklists are used in quality control.
51
What is the closing phase in project management?
The period when a project or phase moves through formal acceptance to bring the project or phase to an orderly conclusion.
52
What is the difference between cloud-based solutions and on-premises solutions?
Cloud-based solutions are provided via web technologies, such as AWS or Google Cloud, while on-premises solutions are provided via local hardware on the organization's private network.
53
What is a code of accounts?
A numbering system that shows the different levels of WBS components and identifies which components belong to which parts of the WBS.
54
What is coercive power?
The type of power that comes with the authority to discipline project team members, also known as penalty power.
55
What are collective bargaining agreements?
Contractual agreements initiated by employee groups, unions, or other labor organizations that may act as a constraint on the project.
56
What does a communications management plan document?
It documents and organizes stakeholder needs for communication, covering the communications system, documentation, flow of communication, modalities, schedules, and stakeholder requirements.
57
What is compromising in conflict resolution?
A method that requires both parties to give up something, resulting in a blend of both sides' arguments and considered a lose-lose solution.
58
What are conferencing platforms?
Web conferencing software, such as Zoom, that allows organizations to collaborate online without needing to be co-located.
59
What is configuration management?
Activities focusing on controlling the characteristics of a product or service, including a documented process of controlling features and technical configuration.
60
What are constrained optimization methods?
Complex mathematical formulas and algorithms used to predict the success of projects and variables within projects, such as linear programming and integer algorithms.
61
What is the consultative decision-making process?
Occurs when the project team meets with the project manager to arrive at several viable solutions, from which the project manager makes a decision.
62
Define contingency plan.
A predetermined decision that will be enacted should the project go awry.
63
What is a contingency reserve?
A time or dollar amount allotted as a response to risk events that may occur within a project.
64
What are contingency/fallback plans?
Plans used in technical projects to fall back or roll back to the last known good status of the environment if something goes awry.
65
What is continuous quality improvement?
The theory that all practices within an organization are processes that can be infinitely improved.
66
What constitutes a contract?
A legal, binding agreement between a buyer and seller detailing the requirements and obligations, including an offer, an acceptance, and a consideration.
67
What is contract administration?
The process of ensuring that the buyer and the seller both perform to the specifications within the contract.
68
What is a contract change control system?
A system that defines the procedures for how contracts may be changed, including paperwork, tracking, conditions, and dispute resolution.
69
What is contract closeout?
A process for confirming that the obligations of the contract have been met as expected, involving the project manager, customer, key stakeholder, and sometimes seller.
70
What is included in a contract file?
A complete indexed set of records of the procurement process, including financial information and performance and acceptance of the procured work.
71
What are control account plans?
A control tool within the project that represents the integration of project scope, schedule, and budget, allowing management to measure progress.
72
What do control charts illustrate?
The performance of a project over time, mapping the results of inspections against a chart, typically used in repetitive activities.
73
True or False: Control charts indicate whether values are within control or out of control.
True.
74
What does controlling refer to in project management?
The project is controlled and managed, with the project manager controlling the project scope and changes, monitoring changes to the project budget, schedule, and scope.
75
What is a cost baseline?
Shows what the project is expected to spend, usually in an S-curve, predicting when the project will spend money and over what duration.
76
What is the purpose of a cost baseline?
To measure and predict project performance.
77
What is cost budgeting?
A process of aggregating the assigned cost to arrive at a budget for the entire project, showing costs over the execution of the project.
78
What does the cost budget result in?
An S-curve that becomes the cost baseline for the project.
79
What is cost change control?
Part of the integrated change control system that documents procedures to request, approve, and incorporate changes to project costs.
80
Define cost control.
An active process to control causes of cost change, document cost changes, and monitor cost fluctuations within the project.
81
What happens when approved changes occur in cost control?
The cost baseline must be updated.
82
What is cost estimating?
The process of calculating the costs, by category, of the identified resources to complete the project work.
83
What is a cost management plan?
A plan that details how changes to costs within the project will be estimated, planned, and controlled.
84
Fill in the blank: The cost of completing the project work to satisfy the project scope and expected level of quality is called _______.
cost of conformance
85
What is the cost of nonconformance?
The cost of completing the project work without meeting quality standards, including costs from redoing work and lost sales.
86
What is the cost performance index (CPI)?
A ratio of actual cumulative dollars spent on a project's work compared to the predicted budgeted amount, calculated as earned value/actual costs.
87
Define cost variance.
The difference between budgeted expense and actual expense; a negative variance indicates overspending.
88
What is the formula for cost variance?
earned value - actual costs
89
What is a cost-benefit analysis?
The ratio of the number of costs and benefits to help an organization decide on the value of an implementation or solution.
90
Cost-benefit ratios are sometimes referred to as _______.
cost-benefit ratios (CBR)
91
What is a cost-plus contract?
A contract that represents a set fee for the procured work plus a fee for the actual cost of the work
## Footnote
Some vendors try to use a cost-plus percentage of costs contract.
92
What is crashing in project management?
The addition of more resources to activities on the critical path to complete the project earlier, resulting in higher project costs
93
What does the critical path show?
The latest finish and the early finish for project activities, revealing the project duration
94
What is the critical path method (CPM)?
The most common approach to calculating when a project may finish, using forward and backward paths to reveal critical activities and float
95
Who are customers and end-user stakeholders?
Stakeholders that could be internal to the organization or customers that purchase the deliverable the project creates
96
What is a daily standup?
A daily 15-minute timeboxed meeting where participants stand to keep conversations brief and to the point
97
What are the three types of date constraints?
* No earlier than
* No later than
* On this date
98
What does the 'no earlier than' date constraint specify?
A task may happen any time after a specific date, but not earlier than the given date
99
What does the 'no later than' date constraint indicate?
The task must be completed or must start by a specific date or else
100
What is the 'on this date' constraint?
The task must be completed or must start on a specific date, with no margin for adjustment
101
What is decision tree analysis?
An analysis that determines which of two decisions is best, assisting in calculating decision value and cost
102
What is a decoder in the communications model?
The part of the model that translates an encoded message back to a usable format
103
What is a defect log?
A document that tracks escaped defects for resolution, including priority, ownership, and date of resolution
104
Fill in the blank: Escaped defects are any defects that leave the project environment and make it into _______.
production
105
What is a definitive estimate?
One of the most accurate estimates used late in the planning process with a variance range of -5% to +10%
## Footnote
It is associated with bottom-up estimates.
106
What is the Delphi Technique?
A method to query experts anonymously to gain consensus on foreseeable risks and other factors
## Footnote
It involves several rounds of anonymous discussions.
107
What are demotivators in Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory?
Elements that can negatively impact employee motivation within an organization
## Footnote
The absence of hygiene factors leads to demotivation.
108
What is the design of experiments?
An approach using statistical 'what-if' scenarios to determine the best outcome variables
## Footnote
Primarily applied to the product rather than the project itself.
109
What is a detailed variance report?
A detailed explanation of any quality, scope, cost, or schedule variance within the project
## Footnote
It helps in understanding deviations from the plan.
110
What does DevOps combine?
Software development with day-to-day operations of supporting existing software
## Footnote
It aims to enhance collaboration and productivity.
111
What is the focus of DevSecOps?
Combines software development, security, and day-to-day operational duties
## Footnote
It emphasizes integrating security practices within the DevOps process.
112
What characterizes a directive decision-making process?
The project manager makes decisions with little or no input from the project team
## Footnote
This can isolate the project manager from team collaboration.
113
What are discretionary dependencies?
The preferred order of activities that project managers can document and adhere to at their discretion
## Footnote
Also known as soft logic, based on best practices or unique conditions.
114
What is earned value (EV)?
The value of the work completed based on the budget for that work: EV = % Complete × BAC
## Footnote
It provides a measure of project performance.
115
What does earned value management (EVM) integrate?
Scope, schedule, and cost for an objective assessment of the project
## Footnote
EVM can predict the likelihood of project success or failure.
116
What is effective listening?
The receiver is involved in the listening experience by paying attention to the speaker's visual clues and paralingual intentions and by asking relevant questions.
117
What is an encoder in the communications model?
An encoder is the device or technology that packages the message to travel over the medium.
118
What does end-of-life (EOL) software refer to?
Software that is to be entirely replaced by a new version or new software.
119
What is the purpose of enhancing in risk management?
A positive risk response that tries to make the conditions just right for a positive risk to happen.
120
What are enterprise environmental factors?
Factors that describe the rules, policies, and governance the project manager must adhere to within the organization.
121
What does enterprise resource planning (ERP) software manage?
Business activities such as project management, procurement, accounting, and risk management.
122
What is an epic in agile project management?
A large user story that can be broken down into smaller components and is too large to be wholly completed within one defined iteration.
123
What does estimate at completion (EAC) represent?
A hypothesis of what the total cost of the project will be.
124
What is the formula for estimate to complete (ETC)?
ETC = EAC - AC.
125
What are evaluation criteria used for?
To rate and score proposals from sellers.
126
What does executing refer to in project management?
The project plans are carried out, or executed; the project manager coordinates people and other resources to complete the plan.
127
What is expectancy theory?
The theory that people will behave on the basis of what they expect as a result of their behavior.
128
What is expert power?
A type of power in which the authority of the project manager comes from experience in the area that the project focuses on.
129
What is the goal of exploiting a positive risk?
To take advantage of a positive risk and increase the probability of the risk event to 100 percent.
130
What is eXtreme Programming (XP)?
An agile project management approach that aims for high quality in software development, with specific rules and ceremonies.
131
What does fast tracking in project management entail?
Performing project phases in parallel that are normally done sequentially.
132
What is a feasibility study?
A documented expression of what the research has told the project manager, determining the validity of a proposed project.
133
What are the sections of a feasibility study?
* Executive summary
* Defined business problem or opportunity
* Requirements and purpose of the study
* Description of the options assessed
* Assumptions used in the study
* Audience impacted
* Financial obligations
* Recommended action
134
What is included in a final project report?
A collection of cumulative reports serving as a final record of each phase's work, including several key documents.
135
What does the finish no earlier than (FNET) constraint require?
That a task be completed on or after a specified date.
136
What does the finish no later than (FNLT) constraint require?
That a task be completed on or before a specified date.
137
What is a finish-to-finish (FF) task relationship?
Specifies that the successor tasks cannot finish until the predecessor task finishes.
138
What is a finish-to-start (FS) task relationship?
Specifies that successor tasks cannot begin until the predecessor task is completed.
139
What are fishbone/shikawa diagrams used for?
A cause analysis tool that shows causal factors and the effect to be solved.
140
What is a fixed-fee contract?
A contract that provides a set price for the work defined in the statement of work and in the contract.
141
True or False: Fixed-fee contracts are generally a low-risk solution for the buyer.
True
142
What are flexible constraints?
Constraints that do not have dates assigned to their activities and are bound only by their predecessor and successor activities.
143
What is a flexible deadline?
A deadline that doesn't assign an exact time for completion.
144
What is float in project management?
The amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the project completion.
145
What are the three types of float?
* Free float
* Total float
* Project float
146
What is a flowchart?
A chart that illustrates how the parts of a system occur in sequence.
147
What are focus groups used for in project management?
A type of stakeholder analysis that aims to gather requirements for the project.
148
True or False: Focus groups can only consist of homogenous participants.
False
149
What is force majeure?
A clause in contracts to release the parties from obligations in the case of a powerful and unexpected event.
150
What is forcing in decision-making?
A decision-making approach in which the person with the power makes the decision.
151
What is forecasting in project management?
An educated estimate of how long the project will take to complete and how much it may cost.
152
What is formal acceptance?
The formal acceptance of a project's deliverables by the client and appropriate project team members.
153
What is formal power?
The type of power in which the project manager has been assigned by senior management to be in charge of the project.
154
What happens during the forming stage of team development?
The project team comes together and learns about each other.
155
What is a fully burdened workload?
The amount of work, in hours, required by the staff to complete each phase of the project.
156
What is functional decomposition?
A method that breaks a large problem into smaller, manageable components
## Footnote
It helps manage subproblems independently while ensuring solutions are linked.
157
What is the primary goal of functional decomposition?
To manage each subproblem independently of others
158
What is a functional structure?
An organizational structure grouping staff by area of expertise
## Footnote
Examples include sales, marketing, and construction.
159
In a functional structure, to whom do project team members report?
Functional manager
160
What is a Gantt chart?
A chart that shows project tasks and their completion dates
## Footnote
Invented by Henry Gantt in 1917.
161
What does the Graphical Evaluation and Review Technique (GERT) involve?
Conditional advancement, branching, and looping of activities based on probabilistic estimates
162
What is hardware decommissioning?
The process of taking outdated or non-viable hardware out of production
163
What does Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory propose?
There are hygiene agents and motivating agents affecting worker motivation
164
What are hygiene agents according to Herzberg's theory?
Factors that do not motivate but whose absence demotivates workers
## Footnote
Examples include job security and clean working conditions.
165
What are motivating agents in Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory?
Components like rewards, recognition, and promotions that encourage success
166
What is a histogram?
A bar chart showing the distribution of data
167
What type of information is considered historical information in project management?
Information from previous projects that may be useful
168
Who are hygiene seekers in the context of Herzberg's theory?
Employees motivated or demotivated by organizational effects
## Footnote
They find comfort in salary, management, and job security.
169
What is implementation tracking?
The number of time units used can accurately display the impact on dependent tasks within the project.
170
Define indirect costs.
Costs attributed to the cost of doing business, including utilities, office space, and other overhead costs.
171
What are inflexible constraints?
Constraints that have date values associated with them but are very rigid and require activities to happen on a specific date.
172
What is an influence diagram?
A diagram that charts out a decision situation, identifying all elements, variables, decisions, and objectives and how each may influence another.
173
What is informal acceptance?
Acceptance that does not include a sign-off of the completion or acknowledgment of deliverables.
174
What does the initiating process group do?
Begins the project by identifying business needs, creating a product description, writing the project charter, and selecting the project manager.
175
What is integrated change control?
A project-wide method of researching and documenting the effect of change on the entire project.
176
What is the integration phase of a project?
The phase when the project plan is put into action.
177
What is intellectual property?
Ownership of an approach, system, or idea that an individual or organization retains.
178
Define internal audience.
Stakeholders targeted within an organization that will utilize, see, support, or otherwise interact with a project solution.
179
What are closed interview questions?
Questions that must be answered with specific information.
180
What are essay interview questions?
Questions that allow the candidate to provide information and allow the project manager to listen and observe.
181
What are interview questions that allow project managers to predict a candidate's future actions based on past situations called?
Experience questions
## Footnote
These questions assess how candidates have reacted in similar past situations.
182
What type of interview questions evolve from a candidate's answers and address inconsistencies?
Reactionary questions
## Footnote
These questions provide an opportunity for candidates to clarify their responses.
183
What is the purpose of interviewing subject matter experts and project stakeholders?
To identify project requirements and risks
## Footnote
This approach is based on the interviewees' experience.
184
What does IFB stand for in project management?
Invitation for bid
## Footnote
It is a document that requests the seller to provide a price for the procured product or service.
185
What is the Ishikawa diagram also known as?
Fishbone diagram
## Footnote
It is used to identify cause-and-effect relationships.
186
What is ISO 9000?
An international standard for following quality procedures
## Footnote
It is not a quality system but a method for organizations to adhere to their own procedures.
187
What information is required in an issue log?
Issue definition, date discovered, assigned owner, updates, resolution deadline, actual resolution date
## Footnote
This log documents all issues encountered in a project.
188
What are issues in project management?
Decisions that have yet to be made with opposing sides and opinions
## Footnote
Issues are recorded in the issue log, including the issue owner and resolution date.
189
What does IT project management focus on?
Balancing technology implementation and leading team members
## Footnote
It includes both waterfall and agile approaches to project completion.
190
What should a job description include?
Activities of a team role, scope of the position, responsibilities, working requirements
## Footnote
A job description must be clear, concise, and easily summarized.
191
What is the purpose of joint application development/joint application review sessions?
To involve customers or end users in the software development process
## Footnote
This is done through workshops where customers review work and provide input.
192
What does Kanban mean?
Kanban means signboard and shows each task as it moves through each phase of the project to completion
## Footnote
Kanban is often used in agile project management.
193
What are key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Objectives of the project; common KPIs are time, cost, and scope
## Footnote
These elements are measured for project performance and provide an overall picture of how well the project is performing.
194
What is the definition of 'lag' in project management?
The scheduled time between project tasks, or the amount of time a project task must wait before it can begin.
195
What does the law of diminishing returns state?
If one factor of production is increased while other factors remain constant, the overall returns will eventually decrease after a certain point
## Footnote
This law grew from Thomas Malthus's An Essay on the Principle of Population, published in 1798.
196
What is 'lead' in project management?
The negative time added to a task to bring it closer to the project start date.
197
What are lessons learned in project management?
An ongoing documentation of things the project manager and project team have learned throughout the project
## Footnote
Lessons learned are supplied to other project teams and documented throughout the project, not just at the end.
198
What is licensing, per connection?
A license required for each workstation-to-server connection, allowing a maximum number of connections to a server.
199
What is licensing, per station?
A license that covers the software application at the workstation where it is installed.
200
What is licensing, per station (server-based)?
A licensing method that allows an unlimited number of connections to a server covered by the licensing plan.
201
What is licensing, per usage?
A licensing plan that allows a user to run an application for a pre-set number of days or charges a fee for each instance the application is used.
202
What defines a macro project?
A project that takes more than 2,000 hours of implementation and/or more than $250,000 to complete
## Footnote
Thirty percent of the project time is allotted to project planning.
203
What is management by projects?
An approach that characterizes organizations managing their operations as projects, applying general business skills to determine value, efficiency, and return on investment.
204
What is management by walking around?
A method to manage quality and to allow yourself to be seen. It involves getting into the working environment and being available to team members.
205
What is the purpose of management reserve?
An artificial task added at the end of the project, typically 10 to 15 percent of the total project time, to cover overruns.
206
What do management summary reports detail?
The overall status of the project, changes from the original plan, execution changes, or cost variances within the budget.
207
What are managerial constraints?
Dependency relationships imposed by management decisions, including those by the project manager.
208
What is a mandatory dependency?
The logical relationship between activities based on work type, such as a foundation needing to be built before a house frame.
209
What does Maslow's hierarchy of needs describe?
A theory stating there are five layers of needs: physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization.
210
What is a master service agreement?
An agreement between two parties that serves as a framework for overall terms and conditions for future contracts.
211
What are matrix structures?
A type of organizational structure that includes weak, balanced, and strong matrices, reflecting the project manager's authority relative to functional managers.
212
What is McClelland's Theory of Needs?
A theory that suggests a person's needs are acquired over time, focusing on three needs: achievement, affiliation, and power.
213
What are McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y?
Theory X states people are lazy and need micromanagement, while Theory Y states people are self-led and motivated.
214
In the communications model, what does 'medium' refer to?
The path the message takes from the sender to the receiver, often involving electronic means like email or cell phone.
215
What is a meeting coordinator?
An individual who runs the business of a meeting to keep the topics on schedule and according to the agenda.
216
What are meeting minutes?
A document that represents a record of a meeting, the problems and situations that were discussed, and documentation of the project as it progresses.
217
What is the purpose of meeting minutes?
To keep the team aware of what has already been discussed and settled, resolutions of problems, and proof of the attendees in the meeting.
218
What are metrics in project management?
A standard of project measurement; often applied to cost, schedule, scope, quality, and performance.
219
What defines a micro project?
A project that takes fewer than 2,000 hours of implementation and/or less than $250,000 to complete.
220
What percentage of project time is typically allotted to planning a micro project?
Approximately 25 percent.
221
What does it mean to micromanage?
The negative approach to managing a subordinate's work in a meddlesome, counterproductive manner.
222
What are milestones in project management?
Represent the completion of significant tasks within a project's schedule.
223
What is a minimally viable product (MVP)?
A software product that has the smallest amount of features to satisfy the customer requirements, for use in production.
224
What is the main goal of an MVP?
To answer what is the fastest route to satisfy the requirements of the project for the customers to receive business value from the solution.
225
What is mitigation in risk management?
Reducing the probability or impact of a risk.
226
What is Monte Carlo analysis?
A process that predicts how scenarios may work out given any number of variables, offering a range of possible outcomes.
227
What does Monte Carlo analysis provide when applied to a schedule?
Optimistic completion date, pessimistic completion date, and the most likely completion date for each activity in the project.
228
What are motivation seekers according to Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory?
Elements that motivate or demotivate employees, including achievement, recognition, the work, responsibility, and advancement.
229
What does multifactor authentication require?
Additional security measures, such as texting or emailing the user a one-time use code, facial recognition, or other challenges.
230
What is a must finish on (MFO) constraint?
An inflexible constraint that requires that a deadline-oriented task be completed on a specific date.
231
What is an MSO constraint?
An inflexible constraint that requires that a task begin on a specific date.
232
What does national security information refer to?
Secretive information governed by the country where the software is developed or released.
233
What is a need-to-know basis in the context of information access?
Not all information in a project is available to all users, such as pay rates and human resource records.
234
What are nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)?
Contracts that forbid the seller from discussing the details of the contracted work with others outside of the project.
235
What does nonverbal communication include?
Facial expressions, hand gestures, and body language.
236
Approximately what percentage of communication is nonverbal?
55 percent.
237
What are operational definitions?
Quantifiable terms and values used to measure a process, activity, or work result.
238
What are operational expenses (OpEx)?
Normal day-to-day costs of doing business, such as rent, payroll, and utilities.
239
What is operational handoff?
The process where completed portions of the project scope leave the project and enter production.
240
Who are operations managers?
Managers of core business areas such as design, manufacturing, and product development.
241
What are organizational constraints?
Factors within the organization that may impact project completion, such as dependencies on other projects.
242
Fill in the blank: Operational definitions are also known as _______.
[metrics]
243
True or False: Operational expenses can be directly assigned to the cost of completing a project.
False.
