Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Molecular cell bio > all combined final > Flashcards

all combined final Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

4 phases of cell cycle

A

G1, S, G2, M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

true or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe what happens at prophase (3)

A

Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What happens at prometaphase?

A

Prometaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe metaphase

A

Metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe anaphase

A

Anaphase is pulling apart of sister chromatids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe telophase (2)

A

•Telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe cytokinesis: (2)

A

•Cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Just read

A

okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Metaphase is a ___________ phase bc as soon as fully done, anaphase occurs

A

transient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the key entry point of mitosis and what is it dependent on?

A

The key start point of mitosis is NEB and it is highly dependent on cdk1-cyclin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe how cdk1-cyclin B causes NEB?

A
  • phosphorylation of nuclear lamins –> disassembly of nuclear lamina –> nuclear envelope breakdown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what other activities are dependent on CDK1-cyclin B activity?

A

Assembly of mitotic spindle and capture of chromosomes by spindle microtubules depends on Cdk1-cyclin B activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Therefore, NEB, mitotic spindle assembly, and spindle attachment are all dependent on cdk1-cyclin B. true or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What requires cdk1 inactivation? Explain.

A

Spindle elongation and separation of sister chromatids in anaphase require inactivation of Cdk1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain how cdk inactivation occurs and what it is necessary for (2):

A

•APC/C (Anaphase Promoting Complex/Cyclosome) ubiquitinates cyclins –> leading to cyclin destruction –> inactivation of Cdks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 2 approaches to studying the cell cycle?

A

•Genetic screens in S. cerevisiae and S. pombe –> genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the genetic screen experiments that were done on yeast cell cycle

A
  • large-scale mutagenesis and screen for temp sensitive mutants (cause protein to not fold properly but at lower temps, will fold properly, but increasing temp will prevent folding and give mutant phenotype)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Yeast ts-mutants can be isolated that arrest cell division with a morphology corresponding to a specific stage in the cell cycle. true or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does a metaphase arrest result from? (general statement)

A

gene required for anaphase is mutated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does a late anaphase arrest result from? (general statement)

A

gene required for cytokinesis is mutated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What specifically were the important results found in the yeast study of arrest?

A

One gene important in pombe - cdc2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the procedure that was done to determine the gene that caused the cell cycle arrest in S. pombe:

A

•S. pombe cdc2 = G2/M regulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe cloning of the S. cerevisiae cdc28 (G1/S regulator)

A

Genetic screens in S. cerevisiae identified the cdc28 gene, required for G1/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Just read

A

okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lil more reading

A

okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

They started just calling cdc28 and cdc2 as what?

A

CDK1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe how they determined that CDK1 is a kinase?

A

•in vitro kinase assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

So, describe the experiment that they did that shows the cyclic activity of CDK1:

A

-synchronize yeast cells (Hydroxyurea block then release)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Reading is for champions. Are you a champion?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How are mitosis and meiosis similar?

A

•entry into meiosis - NEB (aka maturation) - is similar in many respects to entry into mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

•meiosis II is very similar to a mitotic division (sister chromatids segregate)

A

homologues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe how meiosis is regulated:

A

-prophase –> NEB (progesterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

meiosis is followed by what?

A

zygote formation and specialized rapid mitotic cell divisions (early embryo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

___________ causes nuclear breakdown, meiosis progresses until metaphase II and the ___________ triggers completion of meiosis and you get rapid mitotic divisions of embryogenesis

A

oocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe meiosis regulation

A

Oocytes arrest in prophase of meiosis I until Progesterone triggers maturation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Remains in meiosis II until what?

A

Remains in meiosis II until fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe the experiment that started the biochemical approach to cell cycle and what important component of regulation it introduced

A

-Remove cytoplasm from mitotically cycling embryos (eggs that have been released from meiosis II arrest by fertilization or in vitro activation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe the experiment that showed cyclic character of MPF

A

•1977 - Cytoplasm taken from embryos at given times before or after activation - has different abilities to induce maturation in arrested oocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

He also took cytoplasm from ________ arrested, inject into immature oocyte and could promote maturation

A

csf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Explain how the cyclic nature of MPF was proven to require protein synthesis

A

•Cycloheximide (blocks protein synthesis) added to dividing embryo leads to arrest before nuclear envelope breakdown (prophase arrest).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describe the identification of cyclin B

A

35S-Met added to eggs to label all proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe CSF arrest and CSF extracts:

A

CSF arrest: after completion of meiosis I, eggs enter meiosis II and arrest in metaphase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe the in vitro mitotic cell cycle using CSF extracts and how it showed the necessity of cyclin B for entry into mitosis:

A

•Production of cycling extracts: cytoplasm from CSF arrested eggs + sperm nuclei + ATP + Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How did the yeast work and cyclin work come together?

A

•1989 -Affinity purification of Cdk1 from starfish oocytes. Cyclin B copurifies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

So they co-purified and MPF was identified as cdk1-cyclin. True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Name the different cdk-cyclin pairs that are active at different phases of the cell cycle:

A

G1 CDK –> CDK4-CyclinD or CDK6-cyclinD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

All Cdk’s are ___________ kinases that depend on a cyclin partner for activity and specificity.

A

Ser/Thr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Describe the process of activation of CDKs: (4)

A

1.cyclin binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

So describe the multi-functionality of CDK7

A

So cdk7 has multiple important roles, it phosphorylates CTD of RNA pol II and phosphorylates cdk1 and cdk2 in order to activate them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Describe wee1 kinase

A

Wee1 kinase is an inactivating kinase, so the phosphorylation from wee1 kinase inactivates cdk, so it needs to be removed from cdk for activation (cdc25 phosphatase does this)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe the positive feedback loop of CDK1:

A

Positive feedback loop occurs because active cdk can phosphorylate cdc25 and wee1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Prophase events

A

•chromosome condensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Events of prophase all occur bc of cdk1 and then a critical level is reached that allows for __________

A

segregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

in Prophase:

A

Condensin forms a ring that is thought to loop together parts of the same chromosome to condense it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Explain why interphase chromosomes are decondensed, why prophase are condensed, and describe what is needed for condensation:

A

•Interphase chromosomes are decondensed - allows for transcription and for DNA replication at S-phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Prometaphase events

A

•nuclear envelope breakdown (NEB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Describe nuclear envelope breakdown

A

•NEB is the key initiating event of mitosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Describe the mitotic spindles (characteristics and types):

A

They are polar, having a minus end at the centrosome and plus end that goes out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is this?

A

Astral microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is this?

A

interpolar microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is this?

A

kinetochore microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Replicated sister chromatids are held together by __________.

A

cohesins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Separation of sister chromatids requires loss of _____________ and pulling of kinetochore microtubules

A

kinetochore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Centromere of chromosome binds to kinetochore proteins which binds to spindle. True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Describe kinetochore attachment and the shortening of the spindle

A

Kinetochore attachment:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In prometaphase, kinetochore attachments are ____________.

A

unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Read over WELL

A

okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Define the following: monotelic, syntelic, and merotelic:

A

monotelic - single attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe how bipolarity is ultimately established in mitosis:

A

Proper segregation requires capture of both sister chromatids by microtubules from the opposite poles (amphitelic attachment).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Read over well

A

okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Why do chromosomes remain at the midzone during metaphase?

A

In metaphase, chromosomes remain at the midzone because they are attached to each other via cohesins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Why does anaphase occur? What does this require?

A

Anaphase occurs when cohesin bonds are broken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

•Destruction of ____________ and ____________ depends on a ____________ ____________, the ____________

A

securin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What showed that cyclin B gets degraded?

A

Add 35-S-CycB (radioactive labeled Cyclin B) in the in vitro mitotic cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How did they identify the sequence for degradation (destruction sequence)?

A

Make deletions from N-terminus –> assay for degradation in cycling extract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

they got rid of first 90 Aas from N-terminus end resulted in non degradation, so something there was important. true or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What did they notice about the non-degradable cyclin B (delta90CycB)? Explain the significance:

A

The extract arrests in mitosis (Early anaphase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

So, this arrest was not because it was non-functional. It was its presence when it should’ve been broken down that caused the arrest. True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What happens if you add both delta90 and normal cyclin B?

A

The normal cyclin B gets degraded, but arrest still occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

When a cycling extract has CycBD90 added:

A

mitotic extract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

So summarize what happens if you deleted first 90 AA of cyclin B:

A

-still able to induce entry into metaphase in Xenopus extracts or eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

List the 3 aspects of CDK-cyclinB that have been covered:

A

•MPF (Cdk1-cyclin B) is necessary for entry into mitosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How can you determine what sequence within the 90 aa is important for cyclin destruction?

A

-look for conserved motifs within this region amongst cyclins from different species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

After they found the destruction box, indicate what 2 things they needed to find out about the sequence and how they found them out:

A

•Determine that this sequence is necessary and sufficient to mediate cyclin B destruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What happened to protein A when fused with the destruction box? Explain what was seen on the gel and the meaning.

A

Protein A fused to destruction box is destroyed over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

get slide 79 of lec15-16 ?

A

okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Explain the relationship between cdk-cycB and the APC

A

the cdk cyclin B activates the APC, which targets the cyclin for destruction, thereby inactivating cdk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How is the cdk-cycB and APC interaction affected if mitotic extract is used (delta90 cycB or mutation)?

A

In a situation where cyclin B is incomplete (missing 90 Aas or has a mutation), it is still active in that the cdk can still phosphorylate APC because it can still interact with cyclin B, but it cannot be degraded because destruction box is missing or mutated, so it cannot be ubiquitinated and thus degraded. So, CDK activity keeps up, but APC degradation of cyclin cannot occur despite being active.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Summarize the process of Cyclin B cycling and mitosis:

A

•Cdk1-cycB promotes NEB and other events of mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How do we get a cycling of active and unactive APC?

A

Remember, because you get degraded cyclin as a result of active APC, you no longer have cdk activity, meaning you lose APC activity. This makes the cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

____________ must be destroyed for late anaphase to proceed

A

securin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

When are cohesin complexes assembled?

A

s-phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Cohesins keep sister chromatids together until ______________ of mitosis

A

anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Describe sister chromatid cohesion:

A

•During DNA replication (S-phase), cohesin complexes assemble and keep sister chromatids together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

_______ is important bc it is the subunit (of cohesion) that is proteolytically cleaved during anaphase - cut in half

A

scc1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Key event of anaphase:

A

cleavage of scc1 protein (removal of cohesin ring allows for sister chromatid separation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

3) delta90 Cyclin B

A

1) 2 sister chromatids are separated to the daughter nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Molecularly, what happens during anaphase to get separation of sister chromatids? Start with sister chromatids being together.

A

Sister chromatids together bc of cohesin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Indicate when APC mutants arrest and the state of the chromosomes:

A

APC mutants arrest in metaphase with sister chromatids still associated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Indicate when stabilized cyclin B arrests and the state of the chromosomes:

A

•stabilized cyclin B results in arrest with sister chromatids separated (early anaphase - cannot proceed to late anaphase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What happens in securin mutants?

A

Securin mutants mean that you get active separase when you shouldn’t, meaning you get faulty and premature separation (before anaphase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What happens securin D-box mutants?

A

•D-box mutant of Securin results in failed sister chromatid segregation, just like APC mutants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The main function of APC is to target __________, and the main purpose of __________is to prevent anaphase

A

securin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

3) APC/securin double mutant

A

1) would look just like WT, separated chromatids because separase would prematurely separate before anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Explain why APC/securin double mutant gets separation AND arrests in late anaphase:

A

Separation makes sense because securin mutation means it premature separation as a result of active separase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Securin prevents anaphase by protecting ________. APC promotes anaphase by promoting Securin destruction.

A

scc1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

3) APC/securin double mutant

A

1) No because got degraded by separase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How did they discover separase?

A

Took securin protein, fused it to beads and identified proteins that can bind to it (like a Co-IP). They found separase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What did separase mutant show?

A

no separation, looks like APC mutant!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

true or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Describe what is expected from a separase/securin double mutant

A

looks like separase mutant (or APC mutant) because securin is only needed to inactivate separase, which is not active bc of the mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Mutants with stabilized scc1 arrest where?

A

metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Briefly indicate the Securin, Scc1 and Separase interactions

A

•Prior to anaphase securin binds to and inhibits separase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What keeps the APC inactive?

A

Spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Describe the introductory experiment to the SAC

A

•Treatment of cells with colchicine or vinblastine (microtubule destabilizing drugs) or with taxol (microtubule stabilizing drug) leads to a mitotic arrest. Cdk activity is high, cyclin B and securin are stable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Describe how the Spindle Assembly Checkpoint works:

A

•The APC is kept inactive until all kinetochores have made stable connections to spindle microtubules from both poles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

As proper attachment occurs, SAC is inactivated at that kinetochore. True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Mad2 is activated when SAC is activate (it is a part of SAC), promotes the inhibition of what?

A

cdc20 of APC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

SAC is recruited to what?

A

unattached kinetochores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How does mad2 work?

A

•Mad2 component of SAC is recruited to kinetochore, activated, released.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Describe the kiss and run model of sac:

A

Mad2 cycles off of kinetochores as long as it is not occupied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

true or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Describe what happens in prometaphase, then metaphase, then anaphase as a result of APC/C and SAC activity

A

In prometaphase, some chromosomes are properly attached while others are still unattached or have monotelic attachments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Run through diagram on slide 98 of 15/16

A

okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

slide 100

A

okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

As microtubules gets shortened, it stays attached, causing pull force that drives anaphase B

A

collar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Anaphase is initiated by ___________ mediated destruction of ___________ and ___________

A

APC/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Describe what initiates anaphase A and B respectively and what they result in:

A

•Anaphase A - Securin destruction –> loss of cohesion - pulling forces of kinetochore microtubules partially separates sister chromatids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What does this describe?

A

cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Describe the midbody in cytokinesis:

A

Cytokinesis continues until a thin bridge connects the two cells. This contains remnants of the central spindle, actin/myosin and matrix material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Important for determining where cytokinesis occurred in the first place.

A

Interpolar microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

________________ _________________ release signal that instruct cytokinesis to occur at this site

A

Interpolar microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Them together pulls the membrane together

A

actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

myosin II in contraction of non-muscle cells:

A

Myosin is a motor protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Motor activity of myosin brings membrane closer together. true or false?

A

TRUE

141
Q

There are different models for how the contractile ring is established. There is good evidence for one in which the _____________ _____________ (_____________ _____________ ) sets up the contractile ring

A

central spindle (spindle midzone)

142
Q

How does the central spindle play a key role in contractile ring formation of cytokinesis?

A

Determining where contraction occurs

143
Q

__________ is essential for the assembly of the actin/myosin contractile ring

A

RhoA

144
Q

Describe RhoA

A

RhoA - activated near central spindle (interpolar microtubules)

145
Q

Describe the experiment result that proved RhoA recruits actin and myosin to the contractile ring

A

WT cell undergoing cytokinesis

146
Q

Describe the latrunculin A experiment (depolymerization of actin):

A

Drug depolymerizes actin and prevents cytokinesis (no pinching seen)

147
Q

Describe myosin heavy chain (MHC) RNAi knockdown result:

A

Cell doesn’t form cleavage furrow

148
Q

What did the latrunculin A and MHC knockdown experiments conclude?

A

actin and myosin are both necessary for cytokinesis, but RhoA is in an upstream pathway of actin and myosin because it doesnt depend on them being present for it to be present.

149
Q

What is ECT2?

A

The GEF for RhoA –> promotes its active GTP-bound state

150
Q

Actin and myosin localize at the site of cleavage, but ECT2 actually localizes to the overlapping interpolar microtubules at the central spindle (spindle midzone). True or false?

A

TRUE

151
Q

What is the fate of ECT2 RNAi cells?

A

failure to undergo cytokinesis

152
Q

What is ETC2 necessary for?

A

RhoA accumulation at the contractile ring (localization of RhoA)

153
Q

Provide the full pathway for mitotic spindle dependent contractile ring assembly:

A

•CYK-4 associates with the mitotic central spindle

154
Q

Describe CYK-4 role and studies:

A

CYK-4 is necessary for cytokinesis and for localization of MHC, actin, ECT2 and RhoA.

155
Q

Describe the experiment that answered the following question. “How is RhoA activation regulated so it is active only after mitosis?”

A

Start with cells synchronized in metaphase at time 0

156
Q

State what they found to be the thing that stops the binding between ect2 and cyk4 and why it makes sense:

A

Cdk1 phosphorylation stops the binding, which makes sense because in anaphase cdk1 is degraded, which means that the binding can occur in anaphase, allowing for activation of RhoA

157
Q

ECT2 immunoprecipitates CYK-4 in _____________.

A

anaphase

158
Q

Phosphorylation of ECT2 (pTP) correlates with ability or inability to bind?

A

inability

159
Q

Therefore Cdk1 phosphorylation of ECT2 prevents recruitment of ECT2 to the spindle midzone. Anaphase cyclin destruction permits ECT2 recruitment. True or false?

A

TRUE

160
Q

get slide 17 info from lec 17-18

A

okay

161
Q

Summarize the model for RhoA activation at the contractile ring:

A

•CYK-4 associates with the mitotic central spindle (interpolar microtubules that don’t associate with stuff)

162
Q

In g1 of cell cycle, what complex is formed and what 2 kinases are a result of its formation (provide what the kinases do in the context too)

A

Prereplicative complex forms (preRC)

163
Q

In order of appearance in the cell cycle, name the CDK/cyclin pairs that pertain to each phase or checkpoint and what they are inhibited by:

A

•G1: Cdk4/cyclinD (inhibited by INK4)

164
Q

Which cdk cyclin pair needs to be activated for S to occur?

A

Cdk2/cyclin A

165
Q

Describe what happens in embryonic cells meiosis and mitosis with no G1 phase in terms of cyclin and APC:

A

No G1:

166
Q

What happens in cells with G1 phase (normal cells) in regards to their cyclin and apc in M and G1:

A

Cells that have a G1 phase

167
Q

Describe the relationship between the types of APC

A

apc/c-cdc20 gets phosphorylated to be activated, but then it gets inactivated and APC/C-cdh1 comes along as the first goes down because they are oppositely regulated by phosphorylation

168
Q

What are the reasons for low cdk activity in g1? (3)

A
  • cdh1-APC/C is active, which keeps m-cyclin (cyclinB) level low
169
Q

•________ inhibits Cdk4-cyclinD

A

p27, p21

170
Q

-•Cells that are terminally ___________ (most cells in our body) arrest permanently in a G1-like state - referred to as ___________

A
  • cdc20
171
Q

The decision whether to enter S phase is coupled to what?

A

growth

172
Q

•All cells have some mechanism of coupling cell division and growth. Briefly explain this in unicellular and multicellular organisms:

A

•In unicellular organisms the main determinant of rate of division is nutrient availability for that cell.

173
Q

•In most cells, the decision of when and if to divide is made in ________ of the cell cycle

A

G1

174
Q

Entry into S-phase involves what sequential activation?

A

G1-Cdks –> G1/S-Cdks –> S-Cdks

175
Q

rate of cell division must be coupled to rate of cell growth

A

protein synthesis

176
Q

In S. cerevisiae, nutrients entering the cell activate what pathway? List what this pathway generally promotes (not just in yeast):

A

TOR kinase

177
Q

Describe Growth and Cell cycle control in budding yeast starting from the accumulation of nutrients in the cell:

A

•low nutrients –> yeast cell makes less proteins and does not divide.

178
Q

Explain specifically why S phase is so dependent on nutrients levels/growth:

A

•The G1 cyclin Cln3 is very unstable (constantly subject to ubiquitin-proteasome degradation) AND its translation is inefficient.

179
Q

get slide 31 info from lecture 17-18

A

okay

180
Q

•Many mitogens are also ____________ ____________.

A

•In multicellular organisms both growth and the cell cycle are highly regulated.

181
Q

Get info from slide 32 lec 17-18

A

okay

182
Q

and 33

A

ight

183
Q

Many mitogens such as _________ and _________activate the __________________ pathway.

A

PDGF

184
Q

Describe the Ras/MAPK pathway and how it is involved in control of growth and cell cycle

A

Receptor binding by mitogen (ex. pdgf, egf)–> transphosphorylation

185
Q

Just read

A

okay

186
Q

Myc and fos promote activity of what?

A

G1-CDK activity

187
Q

Myc and fos promote G1-Cdk activity. Explain:

A

•Mitogen signaling leads to transcription of myc and fos.

188
Q

G1-Cdk activity promotes G1/S. Explain:

A

•Cdk4-cyclin D binds p27, helping to relieve inhibition of Cdk2-cyclin E.

189
Q

Mitogens and Cdk4/cyclin D inhibit p27, helping to relieve inhibition of Cdk2/cyclin E. How does cyclin E get further promoted?

A

-Cdk4-cyclin D sequesters p27, allowing low level activation of Cdk2-cyclin E

190
Q

What is the no turning back point for S phase?

A

Mitogens promote activation of the E2F transcription factor

191
Q

get slide 44 info (lect17-18)

A

okay

192
Q

What is responsible for a rapid increase in levels of G1/S and S-cyclins?

A

E2F1 and other activator E2Fs

193
Q

•In G0 and G1, E2F1 is kept inactive by binding to ________ .

A

s-phase

194
Q

G1-Cdks promote S-phase by activating E2F1. Explain this process:

A

•Mitogens promote Cdk4-cyclin D activity and low levels of Cdk2-cyclin E activity (by sequestering p27).

195
Q

Describe activation of the S-Cdk, Cdk2-cyclin A:

A

•E2F1 promotes high level transcription of itself, cyclin E and cyclin A.

196
Q

Provide a summary of the G1 to S transition in higher eukaryotes:

A

•mitogens activate ras/MAPK pathway leading to myc, fos transcription.

197
Q

Describe growth and cell cycle control in yeast vs higher eukaryotes

A

•In yeast the major cue for growth is nutrient levels and the cue for cell division is growth.

198
Q

Describe how replication is initiated in terms of the molecular recruitment that takes place:

A

ORC recruits Cdc6

199
Q

What are the roles of CDK2-cyclin A and DDK and what do they result in?

A

S-Cdk = Cdk2-cyclin A

200
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

201
Q

Briefly describe the status of DNA replication in terms of before during and after S phase (3):

A

•pre-replication complex (preRC) formation in G1

202
Q

Describe the process of BrdU incorporation and what it shows us:

A

BrdU Incorporation

203
Q

•Pre-RC assembly is inhibited after __________ to ensure that ______________ does not occur.

A

S-phase

204
Q

What would happen if re-replication wasn’t stopped by inhibiting Pre-RC assembly after S-phase?

A

re-replication would result in tetraploidy - frequently a first step in cancer development.

205
Q

Summarize the activities of the 2 APC complexes in mitosis and G1:

A

•APC/C Cdc20

206
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

207
Q

•S phase initiation requires an ordered sequence of events starting right after completion of mitosis:

A

-anaphase/early G1(low Cdk activity due to APCCdh1)

208
Q

Pre Rc only forms when there is _________ cdk activity, which is only found in ______ as a result of APC/C _________

A

low

209
Q

At S and on there is high cdk activity occurs, preventing formation of another pre RC. True or false?

A

TRUE

210
Q

Get info from slide 59 of 17/18

A

okay

211
Q

In regards to replication, what happens in G1?

A

G1 pre-RC assembly (licensing)

212
Q

In regards to replication, what happens in S? (3)

A

S phase- Initiation of replication

213
Q

In terms of replication, what happens in G2/M?

A

G2/M- Prevention of re-replication

214
Q

In terms of replication, what happens in anaphase?

A

Anaphase- re-creating conditions for pre-RC formation (licensing)

215
Q

Describe what happens in terms of preRC formation, then inactivation of its components, then how they are eventually promoted again:

A

pre-RC: ORC recruits Cdc6 and Cdt1 which recruit Mcm helicase.

216
Q

Summarize main events and main activities of the cell cycle:

A

•G1- low Cdk activity. PreRCs assemble.

217
Q

What are cell cycle checkpoints?

A

•Delay or arrest in cell cycle progression in response to problems completing a specific step in the cell cycle or in response to other cellular problems

218
Q

How do checkpoints take action? (3)

A

•Checkpoints may pause the cell cycle and promote repair before continuing. Checkpoints can also induce permanent arrest or apoptosis.

219
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

220
Q

What are the important checkpoints? (3)

A
  1. Spindle assembly checkpoint
221
Q

Describe what the spindle assembly checkpoint is and the way it takes place:

A

•APC/Cdc20 is inhibited in response to incomplete kinetochore/microtubule attachments.

222
Q

Briefly describe G1 DNA damage checkpoint and its significance:

A

•activated if DNA damage is detected in G1 –> G1 arrest.

223
Q

Briefly describe replicative senescence and its significance:

A

•Replicative senescence - telomere shortening –> G0 arrest (senescence).

224
Q

What are the three situations that trigger the DNA damage checkpoint?

A
  1. Stalled replication fork
225
Q

What do the 3 DNA damage triggers result in?

A

They recruit ATR and ATM, 2 kinases that phosphorylate 2 downstream kinases (chk1 and chk2).

226
Q

What are ATR and ATM responsible for (aside from chk1 and chk2 phosphorylation)?

A

ATM - double strand breaks (leads to permanent cell-cycle arrest or cell death)

227
Q

What do chk1 and chk2 do?

A

Chk1: production of DNA repair enzymes

228
Q

ATM (and ATR) has two functions at these sites:

A
  1. help recruit repair machinery
229
Q

What did they do to cells to show ATM recruitment?

A

hit em with ionizing radiation

230
Q

Read over well

A

okay

231
Q

Wee1 and cdc25 act on what?

A

cdk1 and cdk2

232
Q

Get info from slide 9 of lecture 19

A

okay

233
Q

Provide the G1 DNA damage checkpoint pathway:

A

•ATR and ATM both recognize different types of DNA damage.

234
Q

A very similar checkpoint to DNA damage in g1 can be activated in G2:

A

•Cdk1 remains phosphorylated by Wee1

235
Q

•In case of more severe damage ATM,ATR, Chk1 and Chk2 phosphorylate and activate what?

A

p53

236
Q

Describe p53 activity:

A

•p53 is a transcription factor that induces a permanent cell cycle arrest by activating p21 expression

237
Q

Explain how p53 mediates G1 arrest in response to DNA damage:

A

In undamaged cells p53 is inactive due to Mdm2 binding

238
Q

Briefly indicate how telomeres are protected and what they are protected from:

A

•Telomeres Are Protected by telomere binding proteins - sheltrin complex

239
Q

Describe replicative senescence pathway:

A

•Telomere shortening at each cell division eventually leads to loss of all of the telomere repeats.

240
Q

Why is p53 considered the cellular gatekeeper?

A

because many issues like DNA damage, telomere shortening and hypoxia lead to its activation, resulting in cell cycle arrest, senescence, or apoptosis

241
Q

What is apoptosis and briefly how does it get triggered?

A

•Apoptosis is often referred to as programmed cell death or cell suicide.

242
Q

What are these?

A

Examples of apoptosis as a developmental process

243
Q

•Apoptosis as a response to cell cycle and other cellular checkpoints. True or false?

A

TRUE

244
Q

What are the big advantages of using c. elegans for apoptosis?

A

One of the big advantages in c.elegans is that it has a very limited number of cells and because it is see-through, you can follow every single cell during development

245
Q

What information did they get from c. elegans on apoptosis?

A

Showed that programmed cell death was revealed through cell lineage maps

246
Q

Explain the difference between apoptosis and necrosis:

A

•Apoptosis involves activation of a cell death pathway while necrosis is a passive process resulting from damage to the cell.

247
Q

•Features of apoptotic cells: (things that happen)

A

-cytoskeleton collapse, nuclear envelope breaks down, chromatin condenses and breaks into fragments, cell surface blebbing, apoptotic bodies

248
Q

Apoptotic cells identified by incubation in Acridine Orange between digits of hands. Describe how this can be determined experimentally:

A

Incubating with dna dye called acridine orange binds to dna regardless of alive or dead. But, it cannot enter the membrane of a living cell. The cell membrane loses its integrity in apoptosis, so it allows for acridine orange to enter, so it specifically shows where apoptotic cells are.

249
Q

What would you see on a DNA gel in apoptotic cell?

A

Chromosomal DNA fragmentation detected on a DNA gel (fragmentation as time goes on)

250
Q

Describe TUNEL labelling:

A

TUNEL labeling - apoptotic cells have fragmented chromosomes. Label DNA ends with Terminal deoxynucleotidyl Transferase

251
Q

Name and describe the 5 assays for apoptosis:

A

•Plasma membrane loses integrity

252
Q

What is the state of caspases during normal times in the cell?

A

Caspases are in our cells at all times in a state in which they need the n terminus to be cleaved to be active (procaspase to caspase)

253
Q

get slide 9 of lecture 20 info

A

okay

254
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

255
Q

Two classes of caspase:

A

•Initiator (activator) caspases - cleave other caspases

256
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

257
Q

What are the 2 pathways for activation of caspases?

A

Intrinsic and extrinsic pathway

258
Q

Briefly explain the intrinsic pathway:

A

-cellular response to various stresses, DNA damage, depletion of survival factors.

259
Q

Briefly explain the extrinsic pathway:

A

-apoptosis induced via signal from specialized cells - eg cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

260
Q

What does this describe?

A

Intrinsic pathway

261
Q

What is the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis promoted by? Explain.

A

•regulated by BH-Domain family of proteins

262
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

263
Q

3 important categories of BH-domain proteins. Name and briefly indicate the role of each:

A

BH123 - forms the mitochondrial pore which releases cytochrome c (and anti-IAPs)

264
Q

Bh3-only are pro-apoptotic because they bind to and inhibit ___________, allowing for ___________ pore formation in mitochondrial membrane

A

bcl2

265
Q

Read over well

A

okay

266
Q

Cytochrome C release from the mitochondria is a key event in the ___________ pathway.

A

Intrinsic

267
Q

Explain what happens once cytochrome C is released from the mitochondria:

A

Cytochrome C release - binding to Apaf1 –> CARD domain exposed - multimerization (Apoptosome)

268
Q

•________________ activated by cleavage - cleaves ________________ caspases.

A

BH123

269
Q

What are IAPs?

A

IAPs are inhibitors of apoptosis, they sit around and are ready to bind to any activated caspase to block it. They can block apoptosis even if initiated properly.

270
Q

What are anti-IAPs? Give an example of one and describe what they do:

A

Ex. Hid

271
Q

What does this describe?

A

IAPs

272
Q

What does this describe?

A

Anti-IAPs

273
Q

Summarize the Intrinsic Pathway of Apoptosis

A

•aggregation of BH123 proteins - make a pore in mitochondria

274
Q

Describe the regulation of the intrinsic pathway:

A

•survival factors (anti-apoptotic)

275
Q

add info from slide 28 of lecture 20

A

okay

276
Q

add info from slide 29 of lecture 20

A

okay

277
Q

Describe how cell competition leads to apoptosis:

A

•Cell competition leads to apoptosis. Major mechanism for organizing neural connections.

278
Q

Describe how growth factors can be survival factors:

A

A growth factor/survival factor binds to a receptor, stimulating a pathway in which Akt kinase is activated, which can phosphorylate Bad (BH3-only protein) to allow for active Bcl2. This Bcl2 can go on to block apoptosis by preventing BH123 aggregation and mitochondrial pore formation

279
Q

Describe how mitogens can be survival factors:

A

Mitogen binds to activate a receptor that stimulates a pathway that activates MAPK, which can phosphorylate Hid (anti-IAP) to inactivate it, allowing for IAPs to be free to block apoptosis by binding to caspase

280
Q

is p53 anti or pro apoptotic?

A

pro-apoptotic

281
Q

get info from slide 35 lecture 20

A

okay

282
Q

get info from slide 36 lecture 20

A

okay

283
Q

What are the 5 ways that p53 works as a pro-apoptotic transcription factor?

A

p53 induces BH3-only expression

284
Q

Read over very well

A

okay

285
Q

What mediates extrinsic apoptosis?

A

Cytotoxic T-cells binding to virus-infected cells

286
Q

Describe the recognition of virus-infected cells:

A

MHC proteins + peptide on cell surface

287
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

288
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

289
Q

get slide 46 info from lec 20

A

okay

290
Q

What is Fas-mediated Extrinsic Apoptosis?

A

•FasL - a ligand of the Tumour Necrosis Factor (TNF) family of proteins - integral membrane protein ligands - function as homotrimers.

291
Q

p53 is primary inducer of intrinsic pathway, but also promotes extrinsic by promoting fas receptor expression. true or false?

A

TRUE

292
Q

get missing info from slide 48 of lec 20

A

okay

293
Q

Summarize all that happens in apoptosis mediated by CTLs (cytotoxic T-lymphocytes)

A

•Cytotoxic T cells identify infected cells via T cell receptor binding to foreign peptides presented on MHC receptors.

294
Q

-____________ tumour - cancer that spreads to ____________ sites - via travel of cancer cells through ____________ or ____________ system.

A

tumour

295
Q

What are carcinomas, sarcomas, leukemias, and lymphomas?

A

•Carcinomas - arise from epithelial cells - most common and most dangerous cancers in humans.

296
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

297
Q

What are the original theories on the origins of cancer? (2)

A

•Chemicals and other agents that damage DNA (mutagens) as causes of cancer

298
Q

Read over very well

A

okay

299
Q

Indicate some phenomena we see in normal cells growing in culture (4)

A

Cells grown in culture form a monolayer:

300
Q

•Chemicals and radiation can transform normal cells into cancer cells in vitro. What are the 4 traits that suggest that they have become cancer cells?

A

•loss of contact inhibition

301
Q

These 4 traits that indicate cancer cells led to what conclusion?

A

•These agents cause mutations –> cancer is caused by mutations in our genes

302
Q

Indicate the significance of Rous sarcoma virus (RSV):

A

First characterized tumour virus. Led to model that cancer is caused by infectious agents.

303
Q

Describe the experiment done with RSV and why they did it:

A
  • removed sarcoma from chicken and broke up into small tissue chunks
304
Q

1960’s - Infection with RSV leads to: (4)

A

•loss of contact inhibition

305
Q

What kind of virus is RSV?

A

Retrovirus –> rna genome, carry reverse transcriptase to make DNA copy, which is integrated into genome

306
Q

Just read

A

okay

307
Q

In 1974, they discovered how RSV was able to transform normal cells to cancerous. Briefly state what this was:

A

a single viral gene - src

308
Q

RSV contains the Src gene - and this gene is the one that confers transformation ability to cells. True or false?

A

TRUE

309
Q

Just read

A

okay

310
Q

What were the problems with the viral theory for cancer?

A
  1. They had trouble finding the viruses that caused these human cancers
311
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

312
Q

What did they later realize about src?

A

They realized that they all contain src gene whether infected or not, and it looks like a normal euk gene (introns, exons), whereas the viral src gene doesn’t have those introns

313
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

314
Q

So, what did they conclude about the src gene in RSV?

A

transforming gene from RSV is a gene that originated in the host (chicken) and got incorporated into the virus at some point. This gene gave the virus a selective advantage and was therefore retained in the viral genome.

315
Q

Ultimately, the understanding of the src gene led to the unification of the viral and genetic origin of cancer theories. Explain:

A

•Cancer is caused by overexpression of specific genes that originated from our own genome (proto-oncogenes), that are carried in viruses (viral oncogenes).

316
Q

What are these viral oncogenes usually involved in?

A

A lot of these viral oncogenes are genes that play important roles in growth and cell division.

317
Q

Slow acting vs fast acting tumour viruses: (I don’t really understand this concept)

A

•slower acting tumour viruses may act by inserting near and causing high level expression of host oncogenes. This would only occur by chance after many rounds of cell infection.

318
Q

Slower acting because it requires chance event of landing in the right place for greater expression (Enhancers). True or false?

A

TRUE

319
Q

What did these discoveries about viral oncogenes suggest about chemical mutagens? How can you prove this?

A

• Suggested the idea that chemical mutagens cause cancer by converting proto-oncogenes into oncogenes

320
Q

Describe transfection:

A

Transfection:

321
Q

true or false?

A

TRUE

322
Q

Explain how transfection can cause cancer in mice from human tumour cells?

A

•transfect normal mouse cells with DNA from a human tumour

323
Q

How were they able to identify the actual altered gene that caused the transformation of the cells?

A

•genomic DNA library from these transformed mouse cells

324
Q

True or false?

A

TRUE

325
Q

Read over well

A

okay

326
Q

What mutation in the Ras gene could have made it constitutively active?

A

Mutation in GTPase activity that makes it stuck in GTP bound state

327
Q

Name and describe the 4 ways proto-oncogenes can be converted to oncogene:

A
  1. Deletion or point mutation in coding sequence –> hyperactive protein made in normal amounts
328
Q

What can be used to identify cancer as a result of chromosomal rearrangement?

A

SKY probe that labels diff colours for diff chromosomes

329
Q

Forms of activation of oncogenes in cancer (5)

A

•viral copy of oncogene expressed at high levels by viral enhancers.

330
Q

Describe the experiments and subsequent interpretation of them that led to the discovery of tumour suppressor genes:

A

•Cell fusion experiments: Fuse a cancer cell with a normal cell

331
Q

Describe the 2 forms of retinoblastoma:

A

Familial and sporadic

332
Q

This led to the idea of the tumour suppressor and what hypothesis?

A

two-hit hypothesis

333
Q

get explanation of slide 36 (lec 21)

A

okay

334
Q

Besides genetic changes, how else could loss of heterozygosity occur?

A

•Loss of heterozygosity can also occur by epigenetic gene silencing - somatically inherited chromatin modifications

335
Q

What are Rb and INK4 considered? Why?

A

tumour suppressors

336
Q

What is the most important tumour suppressor?

A

p53

337
Q

Go through slide 39 chart of what happens as a result of p53 mutation

A

green - breast cancer

338
Q

•Rb identified as the first tumour suppressor gene. True or false?

A

TRUE

339
Q

What are most familial cancers caused by?

A

•Most familial cancers are caused by inheritance of recessive mutant alleles of tumour suppressor genes.

340
Q

Why elephants rarely get cancer

A

•elephants live almost as long as humans - up to 70 years

341
Q

What does this mean?

A

Cancer requires oncogenes and mutant tumour suppressors

342
Q

Explain Clonal Origins of Cancer:

A

•Most cancers derive from a single cell that acquires a somatic mutation that helps promote tumour formation.

343
Q

Just read over well

A

okay

344
Q

Get info from slide 48 (lecture 21)

A

okay

345
Q

When can genomic rearrangements occur?

A

As a result of genome instability:

346
Q

Explain genome instability:

A

•chromosome rearrangements, gene amplification, anneuploidy

347
Q

cancer results from accumulation of mutations that give the cell the following capabilities: (7)

A

•Self sufficiency in growth signals and/or insensitivity to anti-growth signals - eg.. ras activation, Rb loss

348
Q

Is the order of acquiring these capabilities important? Explain:

A

No. The order of acquiring these capabilities is not important but once genome instability is acquired, other mutations arise faster

Molecular cell bio (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions