ALL CARDS Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

<p>Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage</p>

A

<p>-First of four stages

- First two years of life
- Experiencing the environment
- develop !!object permanence!!
- end of stage, develops early language utilization</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

<p>Piaget's Pre-operational Stage</p>

A

<p>-toddler-7 years

- children begin to think of things symbolically
- language use becomes more mature
- develop memory and imagination
- can tell the difference between past and future
- cannot grasp more complex concepts i.e. cause&amp;amp;effect, time, and comparison</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

<p>Piaget's Concrete Operational Stage</p>

A

<p>-7-11 years of age

- logical concrete reasoning
- thinking becomes less egocentric and awareness of surrounding increases
- NO abstract/hypothetical thought</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

<p>Piaget's Formal Operational Stage</p>

A

<p>- >11 years

- able to logically use symbols related to abstract concepts, i.e. algebra and science
- Final stage of cognitive development according to Piaget</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

<p>Difference between:
Conformity
Obedience
Compliance</p>

A

<p>-Conformity: changing one's behavior in order to fit in with the norms of a particular social group, most typically a group that has a certain level of social importance

- Obedience: changing one's behavior in response to a direct command or order of a person who is in authority or is of higher social status
- Compliance- changing one's behavior in response to a request from another person who is of equal or lower status (thus differing from obedience)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

<p>Cultural Relativism</p>

A

<p>the principle of viewing aspects of a different culture from the viewpoint of that culture rather than from one's own viewpoint (the opposite of ethnocentrism)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

<p>Prejudice</p>

A

<p>a negative and often unjustified attitude or stereotypical belief about an individual or a group, and it is NOT specific to race or culture</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

<p>Discrimination</p>

A

<p>the actual behavior, typically negative, towards an individual or group</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

<p>Ethnocentrism</p>

A

<p>the tendency to believe that one's own ethnic or cultural group is the most important one, and that all other groups are measured against one's own</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

<p>Ultimate attribution error</p>

A

<p>occurs when negative behavior by a member of an out-group is attributed by an in-group member to the out-group member's characteristics (e.g., genetics, intelligence, personality, childhood background), while positive behavior by a member of an out-group is rationalized or explained away (e.g., good luck, special circumstances, etc.)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

<p>Economic Capital</p>

A

<p>command of economic resources (money, assets, property)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

<p>Social Capital</p>

A

<p>actual and potential resources linked to the possession of a durable network of institutionalized relationships of mutual acquaintance and recognition</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

<p>Cultural Capital</p>

A

<p>A person's education (knowledge and intellectual skills) that provides advantage in achieving a higher social-status in society</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

<p>Political Capital</p>

A

<p>refers to the trust, goodwill, and influence a politician has with the public and other political figures</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

<p>Manifest Functions</p>

A

<p>the recognized and intended consequences of any social pattern</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

<p>Latent Functions</p>

A

<p>those unrecognized and unintended consequences</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

<p>Explicit memory</p>

A

<p>a type of memory in which one can "declare" and clearly articulate what one knows</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

<p>self-reference effect</p>

A

<p>describes how it is easier to remember that which is personally relevant or which can be linked to other memories</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

<p>Social Learning</p>

A

<p>not about memory, but rather about learning through observing another and imitating his or her actions</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

<p>Depth of processing</p>

A

<p>concerns how deeply one thinks about the issues to be committed to memory (meaning is more easily remembered than form because one often ruminates more about the former</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

<p>Biopsychosocial approach to health and illness</p>

A

<p>Illness is determined by a variety of influences, rather than a single cause. The causes and effects of illness can be examined at multiple levels in the life of an individual, and no single level provides the whole picture. Collecting info about psychosocial context is key to the understanding of physical health and illness.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

<p>Biomedical approach to health and illness

| </p>

A

<p>Disease is studied by examining only the biological factors of illness, neglecting contributing factors of psychological life and sociological context.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

<p>Models</p>

A

<p>Provide an approximation (physical/conceptual representation) of a scientific phenomenon that cannot be observed directly</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

<p>Theories</p>

A

<p>Provides the conceptual framework for understanding objects of study</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

<p>Social constructionism

| </p>

A

<p>Human actors actively construct their "reality", rather than discovering a reality that has inherent validity, through their social interactions. The beliefs and shared understandings of individuals create social realities.
In the context of illness, there is a gap b/t the biological reality of a medical condition and the societally created meaning of the condition. (ex. changing conceptualizations of mental illness results in changes to the DSM). It is a dynamic, ongoing process</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

<p>Brute facts vs Institutional Facts</p>

A

<p>-Part of WEAK social constructionism

- Brute facts are physical realities that exist outside of human input
- Institutional facts only exist as a function of society's structures and beliefs</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

<p>Symbolic interactionism

| </p>

A

<p>Micro social perspective. Focuses on the smaller scale interactions between individuals in small groups. Through social interactions, individuals develop shared meanings and labels for various symbols. Allows for human agency in creating and changing meaning in society, rather than society acting upon the individual. Meaning can change with a single interaction, so addresses subjective meanings. Humans ascribe meaning to things, act based on those meanings, use language to generate meaning through social interaction, and modify meanings through thought processes. However, ignores larger societal forces that shape people's lives.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

<p>Symbols

| </p>

A

<p>Terms, concepts, or items that represent specific meanings by accepted convention. Meanings ascribed to symbols are determined by social norms and cultural values.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

<p>Functionalism</p>

A

<p>Founder: Emile Durkheim
Macrosocial perspective
-Factions of society work together to maintain stability. Society is a system that consists of different components working together, with distinct institutions that contribute to functioning. Seeks to understand what different structures in society contribute to society at large. When disruptions occur, the interacting systems respond to get back to a stable state. Explains societal stability but NOT societal change (assumes stability is the ideal)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

<p>Conflict Theory</p>

A

<p>Founder: Karl Marx
Macrosocial perspective
Views society in terms of competing groups that act according to their own self-interests, rather than according to the need for societal equilibrium. Society is a competition for limited resources. Explains societal changes but NOT societal societal stability (assumes stability is undesirable to societal groups that are oppressed) Views human actions in terms of larger forces of inequality, but leaves motivations choices of individuals unexamined. Ignores the non-forceful ways in which people reach agreement, and approaches society more from those who lack power. Tends to be too economically focused.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

<p>Culture</p>

A

<p>All of the beliefs, assumptions, objects, behaviors, and processes that make up a shared way of life. Has a pervasive effect on worldview.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

<p>Culture shock

| </p>

A

<p>The discomfort and ensuring reevaluation of personal cultural assumptions when an individual experiences a culture different from her own

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

<p>Material culture

| </p>

A

<p>Objects involved in a certain way of life

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

<p>Nonmaterial culture

| </p>

A

<p>Encompasses the elements of cultures that are not physical. Includes shared ideas, knowledge, assumptions, values, and beliefs that unify a group of people.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

<p>Social norms

| </p>

A

<p>Expectations that govern what behavior is acceptable within a group. Social interactions help define a culture by establishing these

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

<p>Social group

| </p>

A

<p>A subset of a population that maintains social interactions. Alternatively, includes a collection of shared experiences that create a group identity among a set of individuals

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

<p>Symbolic culture

| </p>

A

<p>Non-material culture that consists of the elements of culture that only have meaning in the mind. Based on a shared system of collective beliefs in the form of symbols. Includes the meanings ascribed to rituals, gestures, and objects.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

<p>Language</p>

A

<p>The use of symbols to represent ideas

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

<p>Society</p>

A

<p>Two or more individuals living together in a definable area and/or sharing elements of a culture. A society can encompass multiple cultures.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

<p>Social institutions

| </p>

A

<p>Stable hierarchical systems that bring order to interpersonal interactions, structuring society. Examples are government/economy, education, religion, family, and health/medicine. Provide predictability and organization for individuals within a society, and mediate social behavior between people.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

<p>Government/economy as a social institution

| </p>

A

<p>Provides order to a society through the services it provides and the making and enforcement of law

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

<p>Education as a social institution

| </p>

A

<p>Provides a formal structure during childhood and the transition to adulthood, and an opportunity to instruct youth on social norms, expectations for behavior, knowledge, and skills needed to operate within society. Its manifest function is to systematically pass down knowledge and give status to those who have been educated. Its latent function is socialization, serving as agents of change, and maintaining social control. Serves to reinforce and perpetuate social inequalities. Experience educational segregation because of differential funding of schools based on residential segregation.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

<p>Religion as a social institution

| </p>

A

<p>Acts as an organized structure of behaviors and social interactions that addresses the spiritual needs of society. From a functionalist standpoint, can create social cohesion/dissent, social change/control, and provide believers with meaning and purpose.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

<p>Religion</p>

A

<p>A system of beliefs that affects how people make sense of their experiences and provides a framework for questions about life, death, and the purpose of existence

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

<p>Family as a social institution

| </p>

A

<p>Creates a social group in which to procreate, rear children, pass on cultural knowledge, and cooperate to better meet life's challenge

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

<p>The nuclear family

| </p>

A

<p>The concept of family in which one man and one woman live together with their children; most common concept of family in the US. Consists of DIRECT blood relations.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

<p>Polygamy</p>

A

<p>An individual married to more than one individual

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

<p>Polyandry</p>

A

<p>More than one man married to one woman

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

<p>Health/medicine as a social institution

| </p>

A

<p>Fulfills the need for healthcare in an organized manner, with beliefs about diseases and approaches to healing varying between societies and cultures

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

<p>Demographics</p>

A

<p>Statistics used to examine the nature of a specific population by quantifying subsets of that population. They are a statistical snapshot in time, and do not capture the ever-changing nature of society.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

<p>Quantified demographic parameters include:

| </p>

A

<p>Age, gender, nationality, race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, SES, immigration status, education level

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

<p>Demographic transition

| </p>

A

<p>A demographic change that takes place over time

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

<p>Fertility

| </p>

A

<p>The production of offspring within a population

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

<p>Cohort study

| </p>

A

<p>Following a subset of a population over a lifetime

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

<p>Period study

| </p>

A

<p>Examining the number of offspring produced during a specific time period

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

<p>Mortality

| </p>

A

<p>The death rate within a population.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

<p>Migration</p>

A

<p>The relocation of people from one place to another; influences population size

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

<p>Immigration</p>

A

<p>The influx of new people to a specific area; increases population size

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

<p>Emigration</p>

A

<p>The outflow of people to other areas; reduces population size

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

<p>Social movement

| </p>

A

<p>Group of people who share an ideology and work together toward a specific set of goals

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

<p>Urbanization

| </p>

A

<p>Increase in the proportion of people living in specified urban areas, due to industrialization

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

<p>Globalization

| </p>

A

<p>Increasing amount of interaction and integration on the international scale through exchange of products, services, ideas and information

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

<p>Social inequality

| </p>

A

<p>The unequal distribution of opportunities or treatment of individuals within a society based on various demographic categories

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

<p>Spatial inequality

| </p>

A

<p>Unequal access to resources and variable quantity of life within a population or geographical distribution. Can be affected by income, unemployment, and unequal access to resources. Influences health by affecting access to healthcare

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

<p>Environmental justice

| </p>

A

<p>The equal treatment of all people regardless of race, gender, or other social grouping with regard to prevention and relief from environmental and health hazards

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

<p>Residential segregation

| </p>

A

<p>Instance of social inequality on the local scale, where demographic groups are separated into different locations with unequal access to resources

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

<p>Food deserts

| </p>

A

<p>Areas where it is difficult to find affordable, healthy food options. More common in highly populated low-income urban neighborhoods where there are fewer grocery stores/transportation options to seek out other food choices. Contribute to obesity in these areas bc people resort to buying cheap, highly caloric foods

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

<p>Social class

| </p>

A

<p>System of stratification that groups members of society according to similarities in social standing. Multifaceted, and tied to status within a community and power

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

<p>Power

| </p>

A

<p>Influence over a community

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
<p>People in higher social class tend to have more:
</p>
A

<p>Power, Privilege, and Prestige

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

<p>Socioeconomic status (SES)

| </p>

A

<p>Defines the economic and social position of a person in terms of income, wealth, education, and occupation

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

<p>Income vs wealth

| </p>

A

<p>Income is assets EARNED while wealth is assets already OWNED.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

<p>Prestige</p>

A

<p>the relative value assigned to something within a particular society

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

<p>White-collar work

| </p>

A

<p>Jobs that are professional, administrative, or managerial in nature; defines the middle class

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

<p>Blue-collar work

| </p>

A

<p>Occupations that require skilled or unskilled manual labor

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

<p>Caste system

| </p>

A

<p>Hierarchy of society is strictly defined, position is inherited, and movement or marriage between castes is prohibited

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

<p>Upward mobility

| </p>

A

<p>The movement of an individual up the class hierarchy. Achieved through education, marriage, career, or financial success

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

<p>Downward mobility

| </p>

A

<p>The movement of an individual down the class hierarchy. Due to unemployment, underemployment, reduced household income, lack of education, or health issues

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

<p>Intragenerational mobility

| </p>

A

<p>Movement of a young person from a lower social class to a higher social class through merit (achieving the "American dream")

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

<p>Intergenerational mobility

| </p>

A

<p>Movement through the class system between generations (old generation is poor/rich, sets up environment for new generation to become rich/poor)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

<p>Meritocracy

| </p>

A

<p>Society in which advancement is based solely on the abilities and achievements of the individual

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

<p>Cultural capital

| </p>

A

<p>The set of non-monetary social factors that contribute to social mobility. Examples include dress, accent, vernacular, manners, education, cultural knowledge, intellectual pursits

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

<p>Social capital

| </p>

A

<p>An individual's social networks and connects that may confer economic or personal benefits

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

<p>Social reproduction

| </p>

A

<p>Transmission of social inequality from one generation to the next

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

<p>Poverty</p>

A

<p>an insufficiency of material goods, monetary wealth, and access to resources

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

<p>Isolation</p>

A

<p>Also known as social exclusion. Describes how impoverished people are often excluded from opportunities available to others.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

<p>Absolute poverty

| </p>

A

<p>Lack of essential resources (food, shelter, clothing, hygiene). More extreme form of poverty

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

<p>Relative poverty

| </p>

A

<p>Social inequality in which people are relatively poor compared to other members of society in which they live

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

<p>Health disparity

| </p>

A

<p>Aka health inequity. Differences in health and healthcare that occur between groups of people

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

<p>Sociology</p>

A

<p>The study of how individuals interact with, shape, and are subsequently shaped by the society in which they live. Attempts to understand the behavior of GROUPS.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

<p>Emile Durkheim

| </p>

A

<p>-Father of sociology, pioneer of modern social research and established the field as separate and distinct from psychology and politics

- Major proponent of functionalism
- Argued that modern society was more complex than primitive societies because they were all similar, shared a common language. Even when people were dissimilar, they relied on each other to make society function.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

<p>Dynamic equilibrium

| </p>

A

<p>Aspect of functionalism. Complex societies contain many different but interdependent parts working together to maintain stability. Unhealthy cites are unable to maintain this.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

<p>Social facts

| </p>

A

<p>The elements that serve some function in society, such as the laws, morals, values, religions, customs, rituals, and rules that make up a society.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

<p>Social dysfunction

| </p>

A

<p>Social process that has undesirable consequences, reducing the stability of society

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

<p>Karl Marx

| </p>

A

<p>Father of sociology. Associated with Conflict Theory. Looked at the economic conflict between different social classes, and argued that societies progress through class struggle between those who own and control production and those who labor and provide the manpower for production. Believed that capitalism would ultimately lead to self-destruction of society due to internal tensions.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

<p>Ludwig Gumplowicz

| </p>

A

<p>Proposed that society is shaped by war and conquest, and that cultural and ethnic conflicts lead to certain groups becoming dominant over other groups.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

<p>Max Weber

| </p>

A

<p>Father of sociology. Argued that in a capitalist society inequalities would lead to conflict, but that there would be more than one source of conflict. Argued that there were several factors that moderated people's reaction to inequality.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

<p>Dramaturgical approach

| </p>

A

<p>Assumes that people are theatrical performers and that everyday life is a stage, where people choose what kind of image they want to communicate verbal and nonverbally to others. Critics say this research may not be objective, ad that theory is focused too narrowly on symbolic interaction.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

<p>Social construct

| </p>

A

<p>A concept or practice that is construct of a group. Everybody in society agrees to treat a certain aspect a certain way regardless of its inherent value in nature.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

<p>Family

| </p>

A

<p>A set of people related by blood, marriage, adoption, or some other agreed-upon relationship that signifies some responsibility to each other. Serves five functions:

- Reproduction and the monitoring of sexual behavior
- Protection
- Socialization
- Affection and companionship
- Social status</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

<p>Socialization</p>

A

<p>The process by which people learn customs and values of their culture. It is the way that children learn the culture into which they have been born

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

<p>Polygyny</p>

A

<p>A man married to more than one woman

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

<p>Endogamy</p>

A

<p>The practice of marrying within a particular group

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

<p>Exogamy</p>

A

<p>A requirement to marry outside a particular group, with it being the norm in almost all cultures to prohibit sexual relationships between certain relatives

A requirement to marry outside a particular group, with it being the norm in almost all cultures to prohibit sexual relationships between certain relatives

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

<p>Assisted marriage

| </p>

A

<p>Parents provide children with possible mates, out of which the child can choose

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

<p>Kinship/kin

| </p>

A

<p>How we think about who we are related to. Considered a cultural group rather than biological

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

<p>Bilateral descent

| </p>

A

<p>Kin groups that involve both maternal and paternal relations

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

<p>Patrilineal descent

| </p>

A

<p>Preference for paternal relations in the kin group

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

<p>Matrilineal descent

| </p>

A

<p>Preference for maternal relations in the kin group

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

<p>Egalitarian family

| </p>

A

<p>Spouses are treated as equals and may be involved in negotiation when making decisions

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q
<p>Social class in America is largely determined by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
</p>
A

<p>Financial wealth

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q
<p>Upper vs lower class families
</p>
A

<p>Upper class families have concerns related to continuing a larger family tradition and properly training children, while lower class families are focused on completing the everyday tasks necessary for survival. Upper class parents are more permissive/authoritative, while lower class parents are more authoritarian.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

<p>Divorce rate in America

| </p>

A

<p>Has generally increased due to social and religious acceptance, more opportunities for women's autonomy, and lessened financial and legal barriers

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

<p>Ecclesia</p>

A

<p>A dominant religious organization that includes most members of society, is recognized as the national or official religion, and tolerates no other religions

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

<p>Church</p>

A

<p>A type of religious organization that is well-integrated into the large society. Membership teds to occur by birth, but most churches allow people to join. Can be tied to the state or independent of it.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

<p>Sect</p>

A

<p>A religious organization that is distinct from that of the larger society. Formed from breaking away from larger religious institutions. Membership may be by birth or through conversion.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

<p>Cult/New religious movement

| </p>

A

<p>A religious organization that is far outside society's norms and often involves a very different lifestyle. Many major world religions originated as cults.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

<p>Religiosity</p>

A

<p>The extent of influence of religion in a person's life

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

<p>Fundamentalists</p>

A

<p>Individuals who adhere strictly to religious beliefs

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

<p>Rational-legal authority

| </p>

A

<p>Legal rules and regulations are stipulated in a document. How the United States government operates

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

<p>Traditional authority

| </p>

A

<p>Power due to custom, tradition, or accepted practice

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

<p>Charismatic authority

| </p>

A

<p>Power due to persuasion (eg. MLK)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

<p>Capitalism</p>

A

<p>An economic system in which resources and production are mainly privately owned, and goods/services are produced for a profit. Driving force in society is the pursuit of personal profit. Emphasizes personal freedom by limiting government restrictions and regulations

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

<p>Socialism

| </p>

A

<p>An economic system where resources and production are collectively owned. System of production and distributed designed to satisfy human needs, with goods/services produced for direct use instead of profit.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

<p>Welfare capitalism

| </p>

A

<p>System where most of the economy is private with the exception of extensive social welfare programs to serve certain needs within society.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

<p>State capitalism

| </p>

A

<p>System in which companies are privately run, but work closely with the government in forming laws and regulations

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

<p>Professions</p>

A

<p>Highly-esteemed white collar occupations that require a great deal of education

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

<p>Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis

| </p>

A

<p>People understand the world through language and language shapes how we experience the world

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

<p>Cultural universals

| </p>

A

<p>Patterns/traits that are common to all people. Tend to pertain to basic human survival and needs (eg. securing food and shelter)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

<p>Values</p>

A

<p>a culture's standard for evaluating what is good and bad

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

<p>Beliefs</p>

A

<p>Convictions or principles that people hold in a culture

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

<p>Sociobiology</p>

A

<p>The study of how biology and evolution have affected human behavior. Applies Darwin's theory of natural selection to social behavior, suggesting there is a biological basis for many behaviors. Additionally, argues that biological predisposition is influenced by social factors, and that the origins of culture lie in human evolution.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

<p>People under 20 make up approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the US population.
</p>

A

<p>25%</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

<p>Race</p>

A

<p>The biological, anthropological, or genetic origin of an individual

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

<p>Ethnicity</p>

A

<p>Socially defined concept referring to whether or not people identify with each other based on shared social experience or ancestry

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

<p>Fecundity</p>

A

<p>xThe potential reproductive capacity of a female

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

<p>Crude birth rate

| </p>

A

<p>Annual number of live births per 1000 people

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

<p>General fertility rate

| </p>

A

<p>The annual number of live births per 1000 women of childbearing age

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

<p>Replacement level fertility

| </p>

A

<p>The number of children that a woman/couple must have in order to replace the number of people in the population who die

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

<p>Life expectancy

| </p>

A

<p>The number of years that an individual at a given age can expect to live at present mortality rates

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

<p>Social stratification

| </p>

A

<p>The way that people are categorized in society

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

<p>Class system

| </p>

A

<p>Considers both social variables and individual initiative in social stratification

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

<p>Socioeconomic status (SES) can be defined in terms of:

| </p>

A

<p>power, property, and prestige

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

<p>Global inequality

| </p>

A

<p>Certain countries hold a majority of the resources. Access to resources among countries seriously impacts social factors such as mortality. The burden of inequality is placed on certain segments of the population.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

<p>Gender bias

| </p>

A

<p>Women and men receive different treatment for the same disease or illness. In healthcare, often due to research being conducted only on male subjects

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

<p>Macrosociology

| </p>

A

<p>Large scale perspective, looking at big phenomena that affect big portion of population. Social structures and institutions, whole civilizations/populations. Looking for patterns and effects the big picture has on lives on small groups. Broad social trends in cities and statistical data. Deals with matters like poverty, war, health care, world economy

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

<p>Microsociology</p>

A

<p>Face to face interactions, families, schools, other social interactions. Interpretive analysis of society, looking at sample of society and how individual interactions would affect larger groups in society

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

<p>Secularization</p>

A

<p>Weakening of social and political power of religious organizations, as religious involvement declines

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

<p>Fundamentalism</p>

A

<p>Reaction to secularization, by going back to strict religious beliefs. Creates social problems when people become too extreme.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

<p>Monarchy</p>

A

<p>Government embodied by single person, king/queen is the figurehead

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

<p>Communism</p>

A

<p>Classless, moneyless community where all property is owned by community

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

<p>Medicalization</p>

A

<p>Human conditions previously considered normal get defined as medical conditions, and are subject to studies, diagnosis, and treatment.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

<p>Sick role

| </p>

A

<p>Expectation in society that allows you to take a break from responsibilities . However, if you don't get better or return you are viewed as deviant

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

<p>Illness experience

| </p>

A

<p>Process of being ill and how people cope with illness. Can change a person's self identity

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

<p>Class consciousness

| </p>

A

<p>The beliefs that a person holds regarding their social class or economic rank in society, the structure of their class, and their class interests.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

<p>The self as a social construct

| </p>

A

<p>Our identity is created by interactions with other people, and our reactions to the other people

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

<p>STRONG social constructionism

| </p>

A

<p>The whole of reality is dependent on language and social habits. All knowledge is social construct and no brute facts. There are no facts that just exist.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

<p>George Herbert Mead

| </p>

A

<p>Developed Symbolic Interactionism. Believed development of individual was a social process as were the meanings individuals assigned to things

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

<p>Feminist Theory

| </p>

A

<p>Contemporary approach of looking at work from macro perspective, focusing on stratifications/inequalities in society, particularly women's social roles in education, family, and workforce. Women face DISCRIMINATION, OBJECTIFICATION, OPPRESSION, AND STEREOTYPING. NOT an attempt to replace men.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

<p>Gender differences

| </p>

A

<p>Expectations for gender are passed down from generation to generation.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

<p>Gender inequality

| </p>

A

<p>Central to all behavior. Women subordination is viewed as an inherent feature in our patriarchal society.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

<p>Gender oppression

| </p>

A

<p>Women are not only unequal as men, but they're oppressed and abused.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

<p>Structural oppression of women

| </p>

A

<p>Women's oppression and inequality are due to capitalism, patriarchy and racism. Women are exploited because of capitalism model, but not all women express oppression in the same way. Men are associated with the mind, while women are associated with the body.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

<p>Rational choices Theory

| </p>

A

<p>Every action people do is fundamentally rational. A person acts as if they are weighing costs and benefits of each action. People act in self-interest, driven by personal desires and goals.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

<p>3 Main Assumptions of Rational Choice Theory

| </p>

A

<p>-Completeness (every action can be ranked)

- Transitivity (Since A is preferable to B, A is also preferable to C)
- Independence of irrelevant alternatives (if I have a 4th option, it won't change order of how I ranked first 3 options)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

<p>Exchange Theory

| </p>

A

<p>Application of rational choice theory to social interactions. Looks at society as series of interactions between individuals. Used to study family relationships, partner selection, parenting, etc. Interactions are determined by weighing rewards and punishments of each action.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

<p>Sexual selection

| </p>

A

<p>Natural selection arising through preference for one sex for characteristics in individuals of the other sex

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

<p>Social selection

| </p>

A

<p>Idea that an individual's health can influence their social mobility. Social conditions can affect reproductive rates of individual in a population

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

<p>Life Course theory

| </p>

A

<p>Aging is a social, psychological, and biological process that begins from the time you are born until you die.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

<p>Age stratified theory

| </p>

A

<p>Age is a way of regulating behavior of a generation

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

<p>Activity theory

| </p>

A

<p>Looks at how older generation looks at themselves. Lost social interactions (work, certain activities) need to be replaced so elderly can be engaged

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

<p>Disengagement Theory

| </p>

A

<p>Older adults and society separate, assume that they become more self-absorbed as they age. Considers elderly people still involved in society as not adjusting well

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

<p>Continuity Theory

| </p>

A

<p>People try to maintain same basic structure throughout their lives. As they age, they make decision to adapt to external changes and internal changes of aging

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

<p>Pluralism

| </p>

A

<p>Encourages racial/ethnic variation

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

<p>5 Considerations of Gender

| </p>

A

<p>-Biological--> XX vs XY

- Identity --> What gender they identify
- Expression--> What gender they express
- Attraction--> Not dependent on gender of a person (is not limited to sexual attraction, can be romantic)
- Fornication --> sexual attraction</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

<p>Gender schema

| </p>

A

<p>Cognitions that constitute the gender identity

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

<p>Gender script

| </p>

A

<p>Gender-specific organized information regarding order of actions appropriate to familiar situations

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

<p>Urban renewal

| </p>

A

<p>Revamping old parts of cities to become better. Can lead to gentrification.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

<p>Rural rebound

| </p>

A

<p>People getting sick of cities and moving back to rural areas

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

<p>World Systems Theory

| </p>

A

<p>Importance of world as a unit, dividing world into CORE (Western Europe/US), PERIPHERY (Latin America, Africa), and SEMI-PERIPHERY (India, Brazil)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

<p>Dependency theory

| </p>

A

<p>Periphery countries export resources to core countries, and don't have means to develop

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

<p>Hyperglobalist perspective

| </p>

A

<p>Sees it as a new age in human history: countries become interdependent and nation-states themselves are less important

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

<p>Skeptical perspective

| </p>

A

<p>Third world countries aren't being integrated into global economy with same benefits

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

<p>Transformationalist perspective

| </p>

A

<p>National governments are changing, with world order (new world order) forming

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

<p>Mass society theory

| </p>

A

<p>Groups only form for people seeking refuge from main society (ex. Nazism)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

<p>Relative Deprivation Theory

| </p>

A

<p>Actions of groups that are oppressed/deprived of rights that others in society enjoy. ex. Civil Rights Movements

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

<p>Resource Mobilization Theory

| </p>

A

<p>Focus on factors that help/hinder a social movement like access to resources

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

<p>Culture lag

| </p>

A

<p>Culture takes time to catch up with technological innovations, resulting in social problems

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

<p>Diffusion</p>

A

<p>Spread of an invention or discovery from one place to another

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

<p>Mass Media as viewed by functionalism and conflict theory

| </p>

A

<p>Functionalist: provides entertainment

| Conflict: portrays divisions that exist in society</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

<p>Gatekeeping

| </p>

A

<p>The process by which a small number of people/corporations control what info is presented to the media

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

<p>Behaviorism</p>

A

<p>The study of external observable behaviors (as opposed to internal motivaitons/thoughts)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

<p>Associative learning

| </p>

A

<p>AKA conditioning. Refers to learning that involves associations between certain stimuli and specific responses

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

<p>Classical conditioning

| </p>

A

<p>An individual develops a response to a previously neutral stimulus by associating the stimulus with another the already elicits the response. Think: STIMULI ---> BEHAVIOR. Discovered by Ivan Pavlov and his dogs.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

<p>Unconditioned stimulus

| </p>

A

<p>A stimulus that results in an innate behavioral response (a response that is not learned)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

<p>Unconditioned response

| </p>

A

<p>A behavioral response that is innate (not learned)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

<p>Neutral stimulus

| </p>

A

<p>A stimulus that does not elicit a behavioral response. Can eventually become conditioned response if presented immediately before unconditioned stimuli.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

<p>Conditioned stimulus

| </p>

A

<p>A stimulus that has been associated with an unconditioned stimulus that elicits a learned response

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

<p>Conditioned response

| </p>

A

<p>A response that is learned (elicited through a conditioned stimulus). Is similar to the original unconditioned response that is used to create a conditioned stimulus

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

<p>Acquisition</p>

A

<p>The stage of learning over which a conditioned response to a new stimulus is established

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

<p>Spontaneous recovery

| </p>

A

<p>The reappearance of a conditioned response after a period of lessened response

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

<p>Classical extinction

| </p>

A

<p>Disappearance of a conditioned response through disassociation of the conditioned and unconditioned response

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

<p>Stimulus generalization

| </p>

A

<p>The tendency to respond to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

<p>Stimulus discrimination

| </p>

A

<p>The learned lack of response to a stimulus similar to a conditioned stimulus

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

<p>Operant conditioning

| </p>

A

<p>An individual becomes more or less likely to carry out a certain behavior based on its consequences. Think: BEHAVIOR ---> RESPONSE. Discovered by B.F Skinner.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

<p>Skinner box

| </p>

A

<p>Operant conditioning chamber for animals, where food is dispensed to animals only after carrying out a specific behavior. Sometimes included areas of electrical shock, used for animals to learn to avoid.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

<p>Reinforcement</p>

A

<p>In operant conditioning, a consequence of a behavior that increases the likelihood of a behavior

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

<p>Punishment</p>

A

<p>In operant conditioning, a consequence of a behavior that decreases the likelihood of a behavior

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

<p>Positive reinforcement

| </p>

A

<p>Introduction of a reinforcing stimulus in response to a desired behavior. AKA adds a stimulus to increase likelihood of behavior

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

<p>Negative reinforcement

| </p>

A

<p>Removal of an unpleasant stimulus in response to a desired behavior. AKA takes away stimulus to increase likelihood of behavior

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

<p>Positive punishment

| </p>

A

<p>Introduction of a punishing stimulus in response to an undesired behavior. AKA adds stimulus to reduce likelihood of behavior

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

<p>Negative punishment

| </p>

A

<p>Removal of a desired stimulus in response to an undesired behavior. AKA removes stimulus to reduce likelihood of behavior

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

<p>Primary reinforcer

| </p>

A

<p>A reinforcing stimulus that is based on a physiological need (ex. food, water, shelter). Harness physiological needs and the drive for survival.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

<p>Secondary reinforcer

| </p>

A

<p>AKA conditioned reinforcers. Require learning and social context to affect behavioral decisions, but are just as effective at controlling behavior as primary reinforcers. Include money, praise, prestige, and good grades.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

<p>Primary punisher

| </p>

A

<p>A punishing stimulus that is based on a physiological need (eg. exposure to extreme temperature). Harness physiological needs and the drive for survival.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

<p>Secondary punisher

| </p>

A

<p>A punishing stimulus that requires learning and social context to affect behavioral decisions, but is just as effective at controlling behavior as primary punishers. Includes fines, scolding, ostracism, and bad grades.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

<p>Escape conditioning

| </p>

A

<p>Avoidance of unpleasant stimuli by learning new behaviors to help terminate the occurring unpleasant stimuli.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

<p>Avoidance conditioning

| </p>

A

<p>Avoidance of unpleasant stimuli by learning new behaviors to help avoid the unpleasant stimuli before it occurs.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

<p>Operant extinction

| </p>

A

<p>Disappearance of a behavior through removal of reinforcers (ex. if a dog learns to sit down in order to receive a treat, and treats are no longer given, the "sit down" behavior will eventually disappear)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

<p>Reinforcement schedule

| </p>

A

<p>Describes how often and under what conditions a behavior is reinforced

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

<p>Partial reinforcement

| </p>

A

<p>AKA intermittent reinforcement. Reinforcement of a behavior by delivering a response only part of the time. Four types: Fixed-ratio, Variable-ratio, Fixed-interval, and Variable-interval

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

<p>Fixed-ratio reinforcement

| </p>

A

<p>A form of partial reinforcement where rewards are provided after a specified # of responses

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

<p>Variable-ratio reinforcement

| </p>

A

<p>A form of partial reinforcement where rewards are provided after an unpredictable number of responses

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

<p>Fixed-interval reinforcement

| </p>

A

<p>A form of partial reinforcement where rewards are provided after a specific time interval has passed after a response

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

<p>Variable-interval reinforcement

| </p>

A

<p>A form of partial reinforcement where rewards are provided after an unpredictable time interval has passed since the response

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

<p>What is the most rapid way to establish a learned response?
</p>

A

<p>Continuous reinforcement

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

<p>What is the most sustainable way to establish a learned response?
</p>

A

<p>Partial reinforcement

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

<p>Shaping

| </p>

A

<p>A type of operant conditioning where successive approximations of a desired behavior are reinforced in order to gradually achieve the desired behavior

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

<p>Innate behaviors

| </p>

A

<p>Behaviors that are developmentally fixed (cannot be modified through experience)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

<p>What is required for associative learning of non-instinctual behaviors?
</p>

A

<p>Appropriate cognitive processes (higher level brain function)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

<p>ΩModelinG</p>

A

<p>Witnessing another person's actions, retaining info on that person's behavior, and later re-enacting what was learned

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

<p>Observational learning

| </p>

A

<p>Learning through observation (and imitation) of others' behaviors. Very important in childhood.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

<p>What is necessary for an individual to be capable of observational learning?
</p>

A

<p>Biological processes (mirror neurons)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

<p>Mirror neurons

| </p>

A

<p>Specialized nerve cells which fire both when a person is completing an action and when the person observes someone else completing the same action. Critical for observational learning (learning by imitation), and responsible for vicarious emotions

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

<p>Vicarious emotions

| </p>

A

<p>Feeling the emotions of others as though they are one's own, in order to learn from the successes and mistakes of others through observation

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

<p>Behavior

| </p>

A

<p>the sum coordinated responses of organisms to the internal and external stimuli that they experience

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

<p>Nonverbal communication

| </p>

A

<p>All communication between individuals that does not involve words (eg. body language, touch, appearance, facia l expressions)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

<p>Animal signals

| </p>

A

<p>Nonverbal methods to communication such as vocalizations, visual stimuli, touch, and smell

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

<p>Social behavior

| </p>

A

<p>All interactions taking place between members of the same species

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

<p>Attraction</p>

A

<p>Factors that draw members of a species together. A social behavior

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

<p>Aggression</p>

A

<p>Conflict and competition between individuals. A social behavior

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

<p>Attachment

| </p>

A

<p>Forming relationships between individuals. A social behavior

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

<p>Social support

| </p>

A

<p>Finding help through social connections. A social behavior

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

<p>Foraging behavior

| </p>

A

<p>Set of behaviors through which animals obtain food. A social behavior. Animals optimize this to maximize the energy available through food and to minimize the energy expenditure involved in obtaining it.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

<p>Mating behavior

| </p>

A

<p>Behavior surrounding propagation of a species through reproduction. Natural selection plays a role in this.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

<p>Mate choice

| </p>

A

<p>Determined by a number of factors, including genetic qualities, overall health, and potential parenting skills of prospective mates

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

<p>Altruism

| </p>

A

<p>Behavior that is disadvantageous to the individual, but confers benefits to other members of its social group. Appears to have no evolutionary benefit, but in actually improves inclusive fitnesses

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

<p>Inclusive fitness

| </p>

A

<p>Overall fitness, considering both individual's own progeny as well as the offspring of its close relatives. Can increase it with altruism

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

<p>Game Theory

| </p>

A

<p>Use of mathematical models to represent complex decision making in which the actions of other group members must be taken into account. Success of an individual in the "multiplayer game" depends not only on his or her own strategy but also on the strategies and decisions of the other "players". The most successful strategies result in greater fitness and will be favored by natural selection

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

<p>Self-presentation

| </p>

A

<p>How an individual is perceived

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

<p>Impression management

| </p>

A

<p>The process of consciously making behavioral choices in order to create a specific impression in the minds of others

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

<p>Front stage self

| </p>

A

<p>Component of the dramaturgical approach. Encompasses the behavior that a player performs in front of an audience. The player know they are being watched and that their behavior is subject to judgment by an audience

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

<p>Back stage self

| </p>

A

<p>Component of the dramaturgical approach. Encompasses the behavior that a player performs when with other players, but no audience is present. Can include behavior that would be unacceptable when performed in front of the audience.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

<p>Groupthink</p>

A

<p>The phenomenon where a group's members tend to think alike and agree for the sake of group harmony. May cause individuals to self-censor ideas and opinions that go against group norms, or may be pressured by other group members to keep silent on these opinions.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

<p>Group polarization

| </p>

A

<p>Through the interactions and discussions of a group, the attitude of the group as a whole toward a particular issue becomes stronger than the attitudes of its individual members

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

<p>Peer pressure

| </p>

A

<p>The social influence exerted by one's peers to act in a way that is acceptable or similar to their own behaviors

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

<p>Is conformity necessary for a society to function smoothly?
</p>

A

<p>Yes</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

<p>Social facilitation

| </p>

A

<p>The tendency to perform better when a person knows he is being watched. Usually most pronounced for tasks at which the performer is highly practiced or skilled

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

<p>Diffusion of responsibility

| </p>

A

<p>Responsible for bystander effect. People in a large, anonymous crowd are less likely to feel accountable for the outcome of a situation or to feel responsibility to take action

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

<p>Bystander effect

| </p>

A

<p>Onlookers in a crowd fail to offer assistance to a person who is in trouble because they assume someone else will help. Willingness to help is inversely proportional to # of people present

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

<p>Social loafing

| </p>

A

<p>Members a group decrease the pace or intensity of their own work with the intention of letting other group members work harder

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

<p>De-individuation

| </p>

A

<p>Occurs when people lose awareness of their individuality and instead immerse themselves in the mood or activities of a crowd

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

<p>Agents of socialization

| </p>

A

<p>Consist of the groups and people who influence personal attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors. Include family, friends, neighbors, social institutions, consumption of mass media, and environments

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

<p>Conformity

| </p>

A

<p>The tendency of individuals to CHANGE their attitudes, opinions, and behaviors to align with group norms. Necessary for the smooth functioning of social communities

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

<p>Obedience

| </p>

A

<p>Describes behavioral changes made in response to a command by an authority figure

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

<p>Deviance</p>

A

<p>Behavior that violates social expectations or fails to conform to social norms

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

<p>Stigma</p>

A

<p>A negative social label that changes a person's social identity by classifying the labeled person as abnormal/tainted

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

<p>Cultural assimilation

| </p>

A

<p>The process by which an individual or group becomes part of a new culture. Can occur through a variety of means (language acquisition, gaining knowledge of social norms)

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

<p>Subculture

| </p>

A

<p>A culture that is shared by a smaller group of people who are also part of a larger culture but have specific cultural attributes that set them apart from the larger group

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

<p>Multiculturalism

| </p>

A

<p>The practice of valuing and respecting differences in culture. Believes that the harmonious coexistence of separate cultures is a valuable goal, rather than encouraging all cultures to blend together through assimilation

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

<p>Ethnocentrism

| </p>

A

<p>The belief that one's group is of central importance. Includes the tendency to judge the practices by other groups by one's own cultural standards

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

<p>Cultural relativism

| </p>

A

<p>The practice of trying to understand a culture on its own terms, and to judge a culture by its own standards rather than by one's own standards

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

<p>In-group

| </p>

A

<p>A group with which an individual shares identity and toward which she feels loyalty

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

<p>Out-group

| </p>

A

<p>A group with which an individual does not identify and toward which she may feel competition or hostility

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

<p>Prejudice

| </p>

A

<p>The thoughts, attitudes, and feelings someone holds about a group that are not based on actual experience. Power, prestige, and class can contribute to the effect that it has on the lives and opportunities of individuals as well as the structure of social institutions. Think: PREJUDGment about a group.

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

<p>Stereotype

| </p>

A

<p>Attributing a certain thought/cognition to a group of individuals and overgeneralizing

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

<p>Stereotype threat

| </p>

A

<p>The anxiety and resulting impaired performance that a person may experience when confronted with negative stereotype about a group to which he belongs or when he feels his performance may confirm a negative stereotype about his group. Can cause stereotypes to become self-fulfilling prophecies

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

<p>Self-fulfilling prophecies

| </p>

A

<p>The stress and lowered expectations regarding a situation contribute to making beliefs into reality

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

<p>Discrimination</p>

A

<p>Unfair treatment of others base don their membership in a specific social group. Its effects are mediated by factors such as power, prestige, and class. THINK: it is an ACTION

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

<p>Individual discrimination

| </p>

A

<p>Occurs when one person behaves negatively toward another because of that person's membership in a specific social group or category

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

<p>Institutional discrimination

| </p>

A

<p>Social institutions employ policies that differentiate people based on social grouping

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

<p>Non associative learning

| </p>

A

<p>Occurs when an organism is repeatedly exposed to one type of stimulus

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

<p>Habit

| </p>

A

<p>An action that is performed repeatedly until it becomes automatic

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

<p>Habituation

| </p>

A

<p>A decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated presentations

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

<p>Dishabituation

| </p>

A

<p>Results when a repeated stimulus is removed

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

<p>Sensitization

| </p>

A

<p>An increase in the responsiveness to a stimulus due to either repeated application of a stimulus or a particularly aversive/noxious stimulus

</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Insight learning

A

Describes when previously learned behaviors are suddenly combined in unique ways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

Latent learning

A

Describes the manifestation of previously unseen behavior. Somethings s learned by not expressed as can observable behavior until it is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Albert Bandura

A

Pioneer in the field of observational learning. Demonstrated the learning of aggressive behaviors in children after watching violent videos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

Feral children

A

Individuals who were not raised with human contact or care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Sanctions

A

Rewards and punishments for behaviors that are in accord with or against norms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Formal norms

A

Written down rules that are precisely defined, publicly presented, and often accompanied by strict penalties for those who violate them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Informal norms

A

Generally understood but are less precise and often carry no specific punishments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

Mores

A

Norms that are highly important for the benefit of society and so are often strictly enforced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

Folkways

A

Norms that are less important but shape everyday behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

Amalgamation

A

Occurs when majority and minority groups combine to form a new group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

Affirmative action

A

Policies that take factors like race or sex into consideration to benefit underrepresented groups in admissions or job hiring decisions. It is an attempt to limit discrimination, but has been accused of perpetuating reverse discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Reverse discrimination

A

Discrimination against the majority. Used to describe the negative consequences of affirmative action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

Racism

A

Prejudices and actions that discriminate based on race, or hold that one race is inferior to another

300
Q

Aggregate

A

People who exists in the same space but do not interact or share a common sense of identity

301
Q

Primary groups

A

Play a more important role in an individual’s life; usually smaller and include those with whom the individual engages with in person, in long-term emotional ways. Serve EXPRESSIVE functions

302
Q

Secondary groups

A

Larger, more impersonal groups that may interact for specific reasons for shorter periods of time. Serve INSTRUMENTAL functions

303
Q

Reference group

A

A standard measure that people compare themselves to

304
Q

Mere presence

A

People are simply in each other’s presence, either completing similar activities or apparently minding their own business

305
Q

Two reasons why group polarization occurs

A

1) Informational influence

2) Normative influence

306
Q

Informational influence

A

In group discussion, the most common ideas to emerge are the ones that favor the dominant viewpoint. Looking to group for guidance when you don’t know what to do and you assume the group is correct

307
Q

Normative influence

A

In group discussion, taking a stronger stance than you initially would have in order to better relate with and internalize the group’s belief system. Even if you know what’s right, do group’s actions to avoid social rejection

308
Q

Social comparison

A

Evaluating our opinions by comparing them to those of others. Facilitates the development of a distinct self of self in terms of similarity/difference from other people

309
Q

Mindguarding

A

Some members of the group prevent dissenting opinions from permeating the group by filtering out information and facts that go against the beliefs of the group

310
Q

Three ways that behavior may be motivated by social influence

A

1) Compliance
2) Identification
3) Internalization

311
Q

Factors that influence conformity

A

1) Group size (the larger, the better)
2) Unanimity
3) Cohesion
4) Status
5) Accountability
6) No prior commitment

312
Q

Master status

A

Status that dominates the others and determines the individual’s general position in society

313
Q

Ascribed status

A

A status that is assigned to a person by society regardless of the person’s own efforts (ex. gender, race)

314
Q

Achieved status

A

A status that is earned by a person due to the person’s individual efforts

315
Q

Role conflict

A

Happens when there is a conflict in society’s expectations for multiple statuses held by the same person

316
Q

Role strain

A

A single status results in conflicting expectations

317
Q

Role exit

A

Disengaging from a role that that has become closely tied to one’s self-identity to take on another

318
Q

Utilitarian organizations

A

Organization where members get paid for their efforts (ex. businesses)

319
Q

Normative organizations

A

Organizations motivated based on morally relevant goals (ex. MADD)

320
Q

Coercive organizations

A

Organizations where members do not have a choice in joining (ex. prisons)

321
Q

Self-handicapping

A

Strategy in which people create obstacles and excuses to avoid self-blame when they do poorly

322
Q

Warning colors

A

Bright colors meant to advertise to predators that an organism is toxic or noxious

323
Q

Pheromones

A

Chemical messengers employed by animals to communicate with each other

324
Q

Mere exposure effect

A

People prefer repeated exposure to the same stimuli (aka familiarity breeds fondness)

325
Q

Frustration-aggression principle

A

When someone is blocked from achieving a goal, the frustration can trigger anger, leading to aggression

326
Q

Learning-performance distinction

A

Learning a behavior and performing it are 2 different things

327
Q

Private conformity

A

Changing internal behaviors/opinions to align with the group

328
Q

Public conformity

A

Outwardly changing behaviors to align with group, but maintaining inner core beliefs

329
Q

Confirmation bias

A

Individuals tend to value new info that support a belief they already hold, while disregarding info that goes against preconceived notions. In groups, group members seek out information that support the majority view

330
Q

Social anomie

A

Breakdown of social bonds between an individual and community- society doesn’t have the support of a firm collective consciousness. Can be resolved by strengthening social norms and redeveloping group’s set of shared norms.

331
Q

Compliance

A

Situations where we do behavior to get a reward or avoid punishment. Aka going along with behavior without questioning why. Goes away when rewards/punishments removed

332
Q

Identification

A

When people act/dress a certain way to be like someone they respect. Will do this as long as they maintain respect for that individual

333
Q

Internalization

A

Idea/belief/behavior that has be been integrated into our own values. We conform to the belief privately. Stronger than other types of conformity

334
Q

Confederate

A

Actors that are told what to do during an experiment

335
Q

Normative social influence

A

If we do something to gain respect/support of our peers, we’re complying with social norms

336
Q

Informational social influence

A

When we conform because we feel others are more knowledgable than us, because we think they know something we don’t

337
Q

Just world phenomenon

A

Idea that the universe is fair so people must get what they deserve (Good things happen to good people, and vice versa)

338
Q

Yerkes-Dodson Law

A

Presence of others improves performance on simple tasks, and hinders it on difficult tasks. AKA people perform best when they are moderately aroused

339
Q

Group produced reduction of individual effort is a result of _____________.

A

Social loafing

340
Q

Hawthorne Effect

A

Individuals modify or improve an aspect of their behavior in response to their awareness of being observed

341
Q

Norms are reinforced by _________.

A

Sanctions

342
Q

Theory of Differential Association

A

Deviance is a learned behavior that results from continuous exposure to others whom violate norms and laws

343
Q

Labelling Theory

A

A behavior is deviant if people have judged the behavior and labelled it as deviant

344
Q

Primary versus secondary deviance

A

Primary: no big consequences
Secondary: more serious consequences

345
Q

Strain theory

A

If a person is blocked from attaining a culturally accepted goal, they may become frustrated/strained and turn to deviance

346
Q

Collective behavior

A
  • Happens when large numbers of individuals rapidly behave in ways that are not in line with societal norms
  • Time limited
  • Involves short social interactions
  • Have loose norms
347
Q

Fad

A

Fleeting behavior that occurs when something becomes incredibly popular very quickly but loses popularity just as quickly

348
Q

Mass hysteria

A

Large # of people who experience unmanageable delusions and anxiety at same time

349
Q

Riots

A

characterized by large # of people who engage in dangerous behavior, such as vandalism, violence, or other crimes

350
Q

Extinctive burst

A

When an individual no longer receives regular reinforcement, its original behavior will sometimes spike (increase dramatically)

351
Q

Systematic desensitization

A

Teaching an individual to replace feelings of anxiety with relaxation. Works great with phobias

352
Q

Token economy

A

System of behavior modification based on systematic reinforcement of target behavior. Reinforcers are “tokens” that can be exchanged for other reinforcers

353
Q

Instinctual drift

A

The phenomenon whereby established habits learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors

354
Q

Hidden curriculum

A

School curricula transmits cultural ideals beyond the stated goal of the institution. Encompasses the unspoken aims of education (teaching children to conform to social expectations)

355
Q

Teacher expectancy

A

Teachers treat students differently according to preconceived ideas about their capabilities. Influences students’ achievements

356
Q

Educational stratification

A

Separation of students into groups on the basis of academic achievement

357
Q

Three types of kinship

A

Bloodline, marriage, adoption

358
Q

Racial formation theory

A

Race is a social construct, with no basis in actual genetic differences

359
Q

Malthusian theory

A

Starvation is the inevitable result of population growth, because the population increases at a geometric rate while food supply can only increase arithmetically

360
Q

Malthusian theory

A

Starvation is the inevitable result of population growth, because the population increases at a geometric rate while food supply can only increase arithmetically

361
Q

Demographic transition theory

A

Links population growth to the society’s use of technology, describing sequential stages of change in birth and death rates. AKA tech is what keeps population size in check

362
Q

Population projections

A

Predict changes in populations by examining current data

363
Q

Population pyramid

A

Graphs a population’s sex and age cohorts

364
Q

Strategy

A

General plan describing the goals of a movement

365
Q

Tactics

A

Describe how the movement implements a strategy

366
Q

Economic interdependence

A

Factor in globalization where corporations often conduct operations across multiple continents

367
Q

Social control

A

Direct form of socialization in which one group or individual imposes a set of rules to control the behavior of others

368
Q

Iron law of oligarchy

A

Criticizes the hierarchal nature of bureaucracy ,stating that people at the top of the hierarchy will inevitably come to value their power over the purpose of the orgnanization

369
Q

McDonaldization

A

Chains are predicable, uniform, efficient and automated; however, homogeny of the organization leads to loss of originality/creativity

370
Q

Personality

A

The characteristics that make a person different from others and may be predictive of behaviors. Considered the individual pattern of thinking, feeling, and behavior associated with each person.

371
Q

Trait theory of personality

A

Personality consists of a set of traits which are characteristics that vary between people and are STABLE over the course of the lifetime. Key: NO ENVIRONMENTAL INFLUENCES. Very little personal control over personality, and personality is hereditable.

372
Q

Big 5 Model of Traits

A
Openness to experience 
Conscientiousness
Extraversion
Agreeableness
Neuroticism 
(OCEAN)
373
Q

High neuroticism corresponds to:

A

High levels of emotional instability, anxiety, and moodiness

374
Q

Biological theory of personality

A

A person’s genome contributes to the formation of personality, and that personality traits differ in the event to which they are influenced by heredity versus environmental factors

375
Q

Temperament

A

Innate, genetically influenced baseline of personality that includes the infant’s tendency towards certain patterns of emotions and social interaction

376
Q

Twin studies

A

Tease out the effects of the genetic and environmental influences of a trait, by determining the degree to which genetic inheritance influences it

377
Q

Monozygotic twins

A

Have virtually identical genomes

378
Q

Dizygotic twins

A

Have genomes that are no more similar than any other biological sibling

379
Q

Evolutionary psychology

A

Gene associated with certain psychological traits that improve an individual;s chances for successful reproduction tend to be conserved

380
Q

Psychoanalytic theory of personality

A

Founded by Sigmund Freud. Personality is determined by a person’s unconscious- the flow of psychic energy between three systems in the stream of consciousness (id, ego, and superego). Development of personality takes place according to a process of conflict between components of the SoC. CRUCIAL: Personality processes take place outside of conscious awareness.

381
Q

Behaviorist theory of personality

A

Personality is constructed by a series of learning experiences that occur through interactions between the individual and their environment. Individuals have learning experiences through their lifetimes that lead to predictable behaviors (behaviors make up the personality). People are born as BLANK STATES, and environmental reinforcement/punishment determine the personality. KEY: Environment shapes personality

382
Q

Social cognitive theory of personality

A

Considers learned experiences and observable behaviors as shaping personality, but also considers the contributions of an individual’s mental life and personal choices. Posits reciprocal interaction between behavior, personal factors, and environment in shaping personality/ Includes process of observational learning. Individual have personal control over personality by choosing experiences

383
Q

Humanistic theory of personality

A

Carl Rogers. People continually seek experiences that make them better, more fulfilled individuals- motivated by enhancing the organism. The individual shapes his or her own personality through free will. Conscious decisions make people who they are.

384
Q

According to humanistic theory, when is an individual’s personality healthy?

A

When the individual’s actual self, ideal self, and perceived self (self-concept) overlap (are the same)

385
Q

According to humanistic theory, what causes psychological distress in an individual?

A

Occurs when the actual self, ideal self, and perceived self (self concept) are different from one other

386
Q

Situational approach to explaining behaviors

A

The concept of enduring personality traits is fatally flawed because of variations in behavior that occur across different situations. Still allows stability in personality, however, because people behavior according to their interpretations of situations.

387
Q

Identity

A

A person’s view of who they are in terms of both internal factors and social/external factors. Places a larger emphasis on the individual’s own perception of self, which contrasts from a “personality”.

388
Q

Self-concept

A

The most personal aspect of identity. The knowledge of oneself as a person both separate from other people and constant throughout changing situations. AKA a person’s view of his/her own personality. Developed and refined through interactions with others

389
Q

Social identity

A

The perception of oneself as a member of certain social groups. Characteristics that are associated with the group come to be seen as part of the self.

Cognitive component: categorization of oneself into a certain group
Emotional component: individual’s emotional attachment to the groups w/ which they identify

390
Q

Role taking

A

Adopting the role of another person either by imitating behaviors associated with specific social roles or by taking the other person’s POV in a social interaction

391
Q

Looking glass self

A

Identity develops through interpersonal interactions with others in society and the perceptions of others. People shape their self-concepts based on their understanding of how others perceive them

392
Q

Self esteem

A

A person’s overall value judgment of himself. Acts as a mediating factor between self-concept and experience by shaping interpretations of events.

High –> positive self concept
Low –> negative self concept

393
Q

Self-efficacy

A

The feeling of being able to carry out an action successfully

394
Q

Locus of control

A

A person’s belief about the extent to which internal or external factors play a role in shaping his/her life

395
Q

Freud’s Theory of development

A

Posits stages of development in terms of the impulses of the id (and overcoming these impulses)

Oral - 1st year- Nursing, oral stimulation-Requires development of trust and capacity of delayed gratification

Anal - 2nd year- Toilet training- Allows the development of self control

Phallic- 3-6 years- Gender and sexual identification- Allows internalization of society’s rules and development of superego

Latent- 7-12 years- Social development & suppression o sexual impulses- Allows children to focus on other developmental tasks

Genital-Adolescence-Mature sexuality & return of sexual urges

396
Q

Fixation

A

A psychoanalytic concept referring to a permanent aspect of the individual’s personality that is related to an unbalanced urge experienced in childhood development

397
Q

Erikson’s Theory of Development

A

Posits stages of development in terms of the interaction between self and society experienced across society, with each stage presenting a crisis that must be resolved

1st year - Trust vs mistrust (ability to trust)
2nd year: Autonomy vs shame/doubt (ability to self-care)
3-6 years: Initiative vs guilt (ability to carry out a plan)
7-12 years: Industry vs inferiority (ability to learn new tasks)
Adolescence: Identity vs role confusion (stable identity formation)
Young adulthood: Intimacy vs isolation (ability to form relationships w/ others)
Adulthood: Generativity vs stagnation (ability to put energy into others)
Maturity: Integrity vs despair (determining how well they have lived)

398
Q

Identity foreclosure

A

A person has a sense of identity but has failed to identify an identity crisis (unquestionably adopts the values and expectations of others)

399
Q

Identity moratorium

A

Describes a person actively attempting to develop a unique set of values and an understanding of self in society

400
Q

Identity diffusion

A

Describes a person with no sense of identity or motivation to engage in identity exploration. Associated with an external locus of control

401
Q

Vygotsky’s Theory of Development

A

Studied the role that social interaction plays in development of cognition.

Current developmental level: tasks that a child can perform w/o help from others
Zone of proximal development: range of abilities b/t current & potential developmental level. Consists of all of the skills that can be accomplished with help
Potential developmental level: The most advanced takes that a child can do with guidance from more knowledgable people

402
Q

Kohlberg’s Theory of Development

A

Key: Developing children progress through a predictable sequence of stages of moral reasoning. Levels are defined by REASONING for decision, not by what decision is made

Level 1: Pre-conventional Morality
-Based solely on consideration of anticipated consequences of behavior (reward vs punishment)
-No internalization of what’s right and wrong
Stage 1: Punishment–> avoid punishment
Stage 2: Reward—> seek reward

Level II: Conventional Morality

  • Acceptance of conventional definitions of what is right and wrong
  • Stage 3: Social disapproval–> avoid social disapproval
  • Stage 4: Rule following –> duty to obey rules established

Level III: Post-conventional morality (few people reach this stage)
-Internal ethical guidelines, with rules being useful but malleable guidelines
Stage 5: Social contract –> wants to ensure greatest good for greatest number of people
Stage 6: Universal ethics –> ensures universal justice

403
Q

Attribution theory

A

Conscious and unconscious processes both contribute to the formation of ideas about what caused another person to behave in a particular way

404
Q

Dispositional attribution

A

Assigning the cause of an inherent quality or desire (internal locus of control)

405
Q

Situational attribution

A

Deciding that environmental forces were in control (external locus of control)

406
Q

Fundamental attribution error

A

The tendency to automatically favor dispositional attributions over situational ones when judging other people (assuming another person commits an action because of their personal qualities rather than environmental influences)

Here we are JUDGING OTHERS

407
Q

Self serving bias

A

The tendency to attribute one’s success to internal factors and one’s failures to external factors. Functions to support self esteem

-Invoked by members of individualistic cultures more

Here we are JUDGING OURSELVES

408
Q

Why is the problem with characterizing mental illness?

A

Determining what classifies ““abnormal” psychological conditions is ARBITRARY. Imposes categories on traits that exist on a continuum

409
Q

The most recent edition of the guidebook for diagnosis of psychological disorders is the:

A

-DSM-V

410
Q

Somatoform disroders

A

Psychological disorders characterized by bodily symptoms

411
Q

Anxiety disorders manifest physically as:

A

Excessive sympathetic nervous system activation

412
Q

The genetic contribution to depression is:

A

polygenic

413
Q

Monoamine hypothesis

A

A deficiency in the availability of monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine) in the synapses contributes to depression

414
Q

HPA axis

A

Interaction between the nervous and endocrine systems to produce the body’s response to stress. Elevated levels of one of these hormones may lead to depression

415
Q

Biological factors associated with schizophrenia

A

Genetics, excess dopamine activity, brain atrophy (smaller brain)

416
Q

Prevalence of psychological disorders in adults

A
Anxiety disorders -20%
Mood disorders- 10%
Schizophrenia - 1%
Personality disorder - 9%
Dissociative disorders- 19%
Eating disorders -1-6% 
Somatoform disorders- up to 2%
417
Q

Anxiety is characterized by:

A
  • The experience of unwanted fear
  • A physical manifestation of excessive sympathetic nervous system activation
  • The frequent experience of excessive responses to stress
  • Concerns about the future and hypothetical situations
418
Q

Libido

A

Psychoanalytic concept–> it is the life instinct that drives behaviors focused on survival, growth, creativity, pain avoidance, and pleasure

419
Q

Death instinct

A

Psychoanalytic concept–> drives aggressive behaviors fueled by an unconscious wish to die or to hurt oneself/others

420
Q

Pleasure principle

A

In psychoanalytic theory of personality, the id seeks to reduce tension, avoid pain, and gain pleasure. The id does so with no logical/moral reasoning, and does not distinguish mental images from external objects.

421
Q

Reality principle

A

In psychoanalytic theory of personality, the ego uses logical thinking/planning to control consciousness and the id. Tries to find realistic ways to satisfy the id.

422
Q

Superego

A

Seeks psychological rewards/moralistic goals to serve a higher purpose. Feelings of pride and self-love are sought by the superego, and guilt/inferiority are avoided

423
Q

Repression

A

A defense mechanism that involves lack of recall of an emotionally painful memory

424
Q

Denial

A

A defense mechanism that involves forceful refusal to acknowledge an emotionally painful memory

425
Q

Reaction Formation

A

A defense mechanism that involves expressing the opposite of of what one really feels, when it would be dangerous to express the real feeling

426
Q

Projection

A

A defense mechanism that involves attributing one’s own unacceptable thoughts/feelings to another person

427
Q

Displacement

A

A defense mechanism that involves redirecting aggressive or sexual impulses from a forbidden action or object onto a less dangerous one

428
Q

Rationalization

A

A defense mechanism that involves explaining and intellectually justifying one’s impulse behavior

429
Q

Regression

A

A defense mechanism that involves reverting to an earlier, less sophisticated behavior

430
Q

Sublimation

A

A defense mechanism that involves channeling aggressive/sexual energy into positive, constructive activities

431
Q

According to Freud, adult personality is largely determined by what three psychosexual stages?

A

Oral, anal, phallic

432
Q

Psychoanalytic therapy

A

Uses various methods to help a patient become aware of his/her unconscious motives, in order to help the patient be more able to choose behaviors consciously. Therapy sessions usually focus on patients talking about their lives and reducing anxiety through self insight through analysis and interpretation.

433
Q

Self-actualization

A

Realizing one’s human potential

434
Q

Incongruence

A

Occurs when people encounter experiences in life that contradict their self-concepts. Can help a person learn what their true values are and then become healthy again by modifying their self-concept.

435
Q

Humanistic therapy

A

Provides an environment that will help clients trust and accept themselves and their emotional reactions, so they can learn and grow from their experiences. Personal growth through self-insight is the goal, achieved through active listening and unconditional positive regard

436
Q

Behavioral therapy

A

Uses conditioning to shape a client’s behaviors in the desired direction. Commonly used to desensitize anxiety patients to phobias or anxiety-provoking stimuli

437
Q

Cognitive behavioral therapy

A

A person’s feelings/behaviors are seen as reactions not to actual events, but to the person’s thoughts about those events. Helps the client become aware of their irrational thoughts and substitute rational/accurate beliefs and thoughts through reconditioning, desensitization, and reversal of self-blame.

438
Q

Surface traits

A

Personality traits that are evident from a person’s behavior

439
Q

Source traits

A

Factors underlying human personality and behavior

440
Q

Trait versus state controversery

A

The degree to which a person’s reaction in a given situation is due to their personality or due to the situation itself.

441
Q

What percentage of adults in America suffer from a diagnosable psychological disorder?

A

26%

442
Q

Panic disorder

A

A person has suffered at least one panic attack and are worried about having more of them. Can be cued by certain situations, but are more often spontaneous

443
Q

Panic attack

A

Classified as a person experiences intense dread, SOB, chest pain, choking sensation, cardiac symptoms

444
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder

A

People feel tense or anxious much of the time about many issues, but do not experience panic attacks.

445
Q

Specific phobia

A

A persistent, strong, and unreasonable fear of a certain object or situation

446
Q

Social phobia

A

An unreasonable, paralyzing fear of feeling embarrassed or humiliated while one is watched by others

447
Q

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A

Arises when person feels intense fear, horror, or helplessness while experiencing, witnessing, or otherwise confronting an extremely traumatic event

448
Q

Acute stress disorder

A

PTSD symptoms that appear for a month or less

449
Q

Obsessions vs compulsions

A

Obsessions: repeated intrusive uncontrollable thoughts/impulses that cause distress
Compulsions: repeated physical/mental behaviors that are done in RESPONSE to an obsession

450
Q

Conversion disorder

A

Somatoform disorder where a person experiences a change in sensory/motor function that has no discernible physical or physiological cause, but seems affected by psychological factors

451
Q

Pain disorder

A

Somatoform disorder where a person suffers clinically important pain whose onset or severity seems significantly affected by psychological factors

452
Q

Somatization disorder

A

Somatoform disorder where a person experiences a variety of physical symptoms over an extended period of time. The person needs to have many somatic symptoms (pain, GI stress, sexual stress, and neurological)

453
Q

Body dysmorphic disorder

A

Somatoform disorder where a person is preoccupied with a slight physical anomaly or imagined defect in appearance

454
Q

Positive symptoms of psychosis

A

Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and disorganized/catatonic behavior

455
Q

Negative symptoms of psychosis

A

Reduced/absent emotional expression, reduced quantity/fluency of speech, reduced initiative or will to do things (avolition)

456
Q

Types of Schizophrenia

A

Paranoid: psychosis involves hallucinations/delusions

Disorganized: Flat/inappropriate affect, disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, negative symptoms

Catatonic: Negative symptoms predominant

Undifferentiated: Basic criteria are met, but symptoms do not fit a subtype

Residual: Acute phase has resolved, but person still appears odd and suffers some symptomsSchizophrenia

457
Q

Schizophrenia

A

Chronic, incapacitating disorder by which a person is out of touch with reality

458
Q

Affect

A

A person’s VISIBLE emotion in the moment

459
Q

Mood

A

A person’s sustained INTERNAL emotion that colors his/her view of life

460
Q

Bipolar I vs Bipolar II

A

Bipolar I: Person experiences one manic/mixed episode

Bipolar II: Person experiences less extreme manic phases

461
Q

Cyclothymic disorder

A

Similar to bipolar disorder but the moods ar else extreme

462
Q

Dissociative amnesia

A

A person has had at least one episode of suddenly forgetting important personal information. Person usually wanders aimlessly during the episode. Disorder usually ends suddenly with full recovery of memory

463
Q

Dissociative fugue

A

A person goes on a journey, during which he cannot recall personal history prior to the journey. During the journey, the person may be disoriented, confused, or violent. Usually involves the assumption of a new identity/occupation. Journey usually ends suddenly with recovery of prior memories but amnesia for the episode

464
Q

Depersonalization disorder

A

A person has a recurring or persistent feeling of being cut off or detached from his body or mental processes, as if observing themselves from the outside. May feel that the external world is unreal

465
Q

Paranoid personality disorder

A

Person mistrusts and misinterprets others’ motives and actions without sufficient cause

466
Q

Schizoid personality disorder

A

Person is a loner with little interest or involvement in close relationships with anyone

467
Q

Schizotypal personality disorder

A

Person has several traits that causes interpersonal problems, including inappropriate affect, paranoid/magical thinking, off beliefs

468
Q

Antisocial personality disorder

A

Person has history of serious behavior problems beginning in adolescence, including aggression and rule violation.

469
Q

Borderline personality disorder

A

Person suffers from enduring/recurrent instability in his impulses, mood, and self image. Results in instability in behavior and relationships with other. Person feels empty with an unstable sense of self, terrified of abandonment,

470
Q

Histrionic personality disorder

A

Strongly desires to be center of attention, and seeks to attract attention through personal appearance and seductive behavior. Dramatic emotional affect with shallow actual emotions, with vague speech

471
Q

Narcissistic personality disorder

A

Person feels grandiosely self-important, and feels desperate need for admiration. Feels envy toward/from others. Lacks empathy for others, feels entitled, arrogant, and haughty

472
Q

Avoidant personality disorder

A

Person feels inadequate, inferior, and undesirable and is preoccupied with fears of criticism

473
Q

Dependent personality disorder

A

Person feels a need to be taken care of by others and an unrealistic fear of being unable to take care of himself

474
Q

Obsessive compulsive personality disorder

A

Person does not have any true obsessions/compulsions, but may instead accumulate money and worthless objects. Person is perfectionistic, rigid, and stubborn

475
Q

Stress-diathesis theory

A

Genetics provides a biological predisposition for schizophrenia, but environmental stressors elicit the onset of the disease

476
Q

Dopamine hypothesis

A

Hypersensitive dopamine receptors and overabundance of dopamine is associated with schizophrenia

477
Q

Dementia

A

Severe loss of cognitive ability beyond what would be expected from normal aging.

478
Q

The most prevalent form of dementia is:

A

Alzheimer’s disease

479
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Dementia that is characterized behaviorally by anterograde amnesia (can remember the past but cannot form new memories). Visual memory is also impaired, leading to confusion with regard to orientation.

480
Q

Biological basis of Alzheimer’s disease

A

Cortical disease (affects outermost tissue of brain) due to formation of neuritic plaques (hard formations of beta-amyloid protein) and neurofibrillary tangles (clumps of tau protein). Some evidence of acetylcholine activity abnormality in the hippocampus

481
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease?

A

Movement disorder caused by the death of cells that generate dopamine in the basal ganglia and substantial nigra. Characterized by resting tremor, slowed movement, rigidity of facial muscles, and shuffling gait, and reduction in capacity for language

482
Q

What is typically used to treat Parkinson’s patients

A

L-dopa–> precursor to dopamine that is able to pass the blood-brain barrier (unlike dopamine)

483
Q

Self-reference effect

A

The tendency to better remember information relevant to ourselves and consistent with one’s self-schemas

484
Q

Learned helplessness

A

A situation that arises where a person learns to not act because they perceive they do not have an internal locus of control, after experiencing an extreme situation

485
Q

Three factors impacting attribution of behavior

A

Consistency–> is the person’s behavior typical
Distinctiveness–> is the person’s behaviors towards everything, or just one thing?
Consensus–> are they the only person with that behavior

486
Q

Optimism bias

A

The belief that bad things happen to other people but not to us

487
Q

Halo effect

A

The tendency to believe that people have inherently good/bad natures, rather than looking at individual characteristics. Our overall impression of a person is influenced by how we feel/think about his character

488
Q

Physical attractiveness stereotype

A

A specific type of halo effect where people tend to rate attractive individuals more favorably for personality traits and characteristics

489
Q

Social potency trait

A

The degree to which a person assumes leadership roles in social situations

490
Q

Traditionalism

A

Tendency to follow authority. Shown to be common in twins

491
Q

People with longer dopamine-4 receptor gene are more likely to be:

A

Thrill seekers

492
Q

Cardinal traits

A

Traits that are characteristics that direct most of the person’s activities (the person’s dominant traits that influence all of our behaviors)

493
Q

Central traits

A

Traits such as honesty, sociability, and shyness. Less dominant traits

494
Q

Secondary traits

A

Traits that are more preferences/attitudes

495
Q

What percent of the American population will have a serious mental illness?

A

6%

496
Q

Neurodevelopment disorders

A

Disorders that involve distress/disability due to abnormality in development of nervous system. Include intellectual disability, autism spectrum disorders, and ADHD

497
Q

Elimination disorder

A

Urination/defecation at inappropriate times

498
Q

Paraphilia

A

Having sexual arousal to unusual stimuli

499
Q

Anomie

A

Breakdown of social bonds between an individual and community

500
Q

Existential self

A

The most basic part of self concept. It is the sense of being separate and distinct from others. Awareness that the self is constant throughout life.

501
Q

Categorical self

A

Occurs once babies realize they are separate. It is becoming aware that even though we’re separate, we exist in the world with others. Babies first learn AGE and GENDER, then SKILLS and SIZE. They learn concepts like traits, comparisons, and careers last.

502
Q

The authoritarian personality

A

Obedient to superiors but don’t have much sympathy to those inferior to themselves (oppressive). Rigid thinkers, inflexible with viewpoints. Use prejudice to protect their ego and avoid confronting aspects of themselves. HARD to change.

503
Q

Cognition

A

Wide range of higher level internal mental activities (eg. logical reasoning, language) that influence external behaviors

504
Q

Perception

A

The use of sensory information and pre-existing knowledge to create a functional representation of the world

505
Q

Information-processing model

A

The brain receives a stimulus input, process the stimulus, and selects and output function.

506
Q

Serial processing

A

Cognitive process involving considering each input one at a time

507
Q

Parallel processing

A

Cognitive process involving devotion to multiple inputs at once

508
Q

The most evolved portion of the brain is the:

A

Cerebral cortex

509
Q

Information processing takes place in the:

A

Cerebral cortex

510
Q

The frontal lobe is associated with:

A

Motor control, decision making, and long-term memory storage

511
Q

The parietal lobe is associated with:

A

Tactile information (somatosensory information)

512
Q

The occipital lobe is associated with:

A

Visual information

513
Q

The temporal lobe is associated with:

A

Auditory/ olfactory information, emotion and language, and memory formation

514
Q

fMRI

A

Examines brain activity by measuring blood flow, which an indicator of metabolic activity (b/c of need for oxygen for increased metabolic activity)

515
Q

Piaget’s Theory of Development

A

Posits that all children develop cognitively by experimenting with their environment and passing through same set of developmental stages.

0-2 years: Sensorimotor

  • Children learn to separate themselves from the world
  • Learn object permanence

2-7 years: Preoperational

  • Children learn to use language
  • Children think literally and egocentrically
  • Children unable to take on perspectives of others

7-11 years: Concrete Operational

  • Children develop inductive reasoning
  • Understand conservation of mass

11 years +: Formal Operational

  • Children develop deductive reasoning
  • Can think theoretically and philosophically
  • Children at this stage are able to reach post-conventional moral reasoning
516
Q

Schemas

A

Mental representations or frameworks of the world

517
Q

Assimilation

A

Fitting new information into preexisting schemas

518
Q

Accommodation

A

Changing a schema in response to new information that is unable to fit into previously held schemas

519
Q

Inductive reasoning

A

The ability to use specific situations to forming general concepts

520
Q

Deductive reasoning

A

The ability to apply general concepts to specific situations

521
Q

Role of culture in cognitive development

A

Children in Western cultures are generally object-focused, while those raise in Eastern cultures are more relationally focused.

522
Q

Learning theory of language development

A

Language is a form of behavior and is learned through operant conditioning–> continuing interaction with environmental reinforcement

523
Q

Nativist theory of language development

A

Noam Chomsky. Language is an innate biological instinct, and everyone has a neural cognitive system allowing for learning of syntax and grammar.

524
Q

Language acquisition device

A

Neural cognitive system that allows for learning of syntax and grammar

525
Q

Interactionist theory of language development

A

Emphasizes interaction between biology and environment in developing language. The human brain develops so that it can be receptive to new language input and development. Children are motivated to practice the language in order to communicate/socialize

526
Q

Broca’s area

A

Located in the frontal lobe. Primarily involved in speech production. People who are damaged in this area cannot produce language but understand it normally.

527
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

Located in the temporal lobe. Primarily involved in speech comprehension. People who are damaged in this area can hear words and repeat them back, but do not understand language.

528
Q

Expressive aphasia

A

The inability to produce language ( despite being able to understand language)

529
Q

Receptive aphasia

A

The inability to understand language (despite being able to hear it and produce it)

530
Q

Intelligence

A

The ability to understand and reason with complex ideas, adapt effectively to the environment, and learn from experience

531
Q

Intelligence Quotient (IQ)

A

Average is defined at 100. Every 15 points above or below this score represents 1 SD above or below the man.

532
Q

Advantages and Disadvantages to IQ Tests

A

Advantages

  • Simple to administer
  • Provides scores that are easy to compare
  • Correlates with academic performance

Disadvantages

  • Less able to predict later career success/advancement
  • Shows a cultural bias against minorities
  • Single number score is misleading
533
Q

Fluid intelligence

A

The ability to think logically without the need for previously learned knowledge. Peaks in young adulthood and then declines

534
Q

Crystallized intelligence

A

The ability to think logically using specific, previously learned knowledge which remains stable throughout adulthood

535
Q

Gardner’s Theory of Intelligence

A

heorizes that everyone has a variety of intelligences that are used in combination to solve problems and perform tasks. Intelligence has multiple domains:

Linguistic
Musical
Logical-mathematical
Spatial
Bodily-kinesthetic
Interpersonal
536
Q

Sternberg’s Theory of Intelligence

A

Triarchic theory of intelligence that emerges from a person’s adaptive abilities

Analytical intelligence
Creative intelligence
Practical intelligence

537
Q

The components of Emotional Intelligence

A
  • Perceiving emotions
  • Using and reasoning with emotions
  • Understanding emotions
  • Managing emotions
538
Q

Algorithm

A

A step by step procedure that leads to a definite solution. It is an exhaustive technique but is not always the most efficient

539
Q

Analogies

A

A strategy where a new problem is reduced to a previously known problem, and prior knowledge of how to determine the solution can be applied

540
Q

Trial and error

A

Repeated, unsystematic attempts to solve a problem until the desired outcome is achieved

541
Q

Heuristics

A

Mental shortcuts or “rules of thumb” that often lead to a solution. They are timesaving but can potentially lead problem solving efforts astray

542
Q

Intuition

A

Problem solving using personal perception or feeling rather than logic. Aka the “gut feeling”. Time saving but potentially flawed.

543
Q

Representativeness heuristic

A

Rule of thumb where people look for the most representative answer, such as if a person matches a prototype. Essentially seeing the most likely/probable answer as the correct answer

544
Q

The problem with heuristics is that:

A

It may lead to overgeneralization

545
Q

Availability heuristic

A

Rule of thumb where we use examples that come to mind to apply to a new problem.

546
Q

Functional fixedness

A

Tendency to view objects as having only a single function. Can be useful but also stifles creativity depending on context

547
Q

Belief perseverance

A

People hold on to their initial beliefs even when rational argument would suggest they are incorrect

548
Q

Causation bias

A

The tendency to assume a cause and effect relationship

549
Q

The components of emotion

A

Cognition: Personal assessment of the significance of particular situation

Physiological: Activation of the autonomic nervous system

Behavioral: Urges to act in a certain way

NOTE: these components can act in ANY order

550
Q

The amygdala is associated with:

A

Emotional reactions of fear and anger

551
Q

The prefrontal cortex is associated with:

A

Conscious regulation of emotional states, and CRITICAL in temperament and decision making

552
Q

The hypothalamus is associated with:

A

Regulating the autonomic nervous system (sympathetic and parasympathetic)

553
Q

James-Lange Theory

A

Theory of emotion that states that an external stimulus elicits a physiological response, and that emotional experience depends on recognition and interpretation this physical reaction

Physiological and behavior response—> cognitive awareness–> emotion

554
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory

A

Theory of emotion that states that emotional feelings and physiological reactions to stimuli are experienced SIMULTANEOUSLY

physiological and cognitive appraisal simultaneously–> emotion

555
Q

Schacter-Singer theory

A

Two components of emotional response: physiological arousal and situational cues. Must evaluate BOTH before cognitive appraisal of emotion

physiological arousal–> cognitive appraisal of situation–> emotion

556
Q

Universal emotions include:

A

Fear, anger, happiness, surprise, joy, disgust, and sadness

557
Q

Emotion is:

A

Adaptive

558
Q

Motivation

A

A psychological factor that provides a directional force or reason for behavior

559
Q

Instinct

A

A biological, innate tendency to perform a central behavior that leads to the fulfillment of a need

560
Q

Arousal

A

Physiological/psychological tension

561
Q

Drives

A

Urges to perform certain behaviors in order to resolve physiological arousal when that arousal is caused by the biological needs of the organism

562
Q

Drive reduction theory

A

Focuses on internal factors in motivations. Posits that people are motivated to take action in order to lessen the state of arousal caused by a physiological need

563
Q

Incentive theory

A

People are motivated by external rewards, and get psychological feeling of pleasure that comes with receiving an incentive

DISTINCT from operant conditioning because it focuses on the internal motivations of the individual rather than their outward behavior

564
Q

Cognitive theory

A

People behave based on what they predict will yield the most favorable outcome

565
Q

Intrinsic motivation

A

Motivation driven by internal factors (pleasurable feelings or satisfaction). Can be diminished if person continuously receive extrinsic rewards for the behavior

566
Q

Extrinsic motivation

A

Motivation driven by external rewards.

567
Q

Need based theory

A

People are motivated by the desire to fulfill unmet needs

568
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A
Physiological- food, sex, etc.
Safety- physical/emotional security
Belongingness- Socialness
Esteem- Approval and recognition
Self-actualization- Equation, hobbies, religion
569
Q

ABC Model

A

Describes three major components of attitudes

Affective component- person’s feelings about the thing

Behavioral component- The influence that attitudes have on behavior

Cognitive component- Beliefs/knowledge about a specific object of interests

570
Q

Foot-in-the-door phenomenon

A

People are much more likely to agree to a large request if they first agree to a smaller one

571
Q

Cognitive dissonance theory

A

The conflict between internal attitudes and external behaviors. People have an inherent desire to avoid the internal discomfort associated with a mismatch b/t the two. ASSUMES people have a self-concept of consistency and honesty –> will not occur in people who do not view themselves as honest and consistent

572
Q

Elaboration Likelihood Model

A

There are two routes to attitude formation: peripheral route processing and central route processing. Each route is defined by the likelihood that the person who receives an argument will elaborate on it by generating his/her own thoughts and opinions in response

573
Q

Peripheral route processing

A

Occurs when an individual does not think deeply to evaluate an argument (occurs when a person isn’t very invested in an argument/has no knowledge). If a person is using this route, is more likely to change attitude based on situational cues (strength of argument d/n matter)

574
Q

Central route processing

A

An individual thinks deeply and even elaborates on argument presented ( occurs when a person is deeply invested in a situation/has not knowledge). If a person is using this route, is more likely to change attitude if argument is strong and persuasive

575
Q

Self-regulation

A

A person’s ability to control their behavior in the absence of rewards or punishments; in association with observational learning

576
Q

Factors Affecting Attitude Change

A
  • Behavior change
  • Characteristics of the message
  • Characteristics of the target
  • Social factors
577
Q

A strong argument will be effective in changing attitudes through

a) central route
b) peripheral route
c) both

A

c–> both

578
Q

A weak argument will be effective in changing attitudes through

a) central route
b) peripheral route
c) both

A

b–> weak arguments only work through peripheral route

579
Q

Stress

A

The strain that is experienced when an organism’s equilibrium is disrupted and it must adapt

580
Q

Cognitive appraisal

A

Personal interpretation of the situation that triggers stress

581
Q

Appraisal view of stress

A

People make two appraisals which determine their overall emotional reaction to the event.

582
Q

Primary appraisal

A

Evaluating a situation for the presence of any potential threat. If present, a secondary appraisal is generated

583
Q

Secondary appraisal

A

Assessing personal ability to cope with a threat. An individual who does not think they can handle a threat will experience greater stress than someone who appraises their ability more highly.

584
Q

What are the two main hormones released by the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline)

585
Q

Cortisol is:

A

The primary stress hormone, which increases blood glucose

586
Q

What level of stress is optimal for performance?

A

Medium level of arousal

587
Q

As group size increases, the group is ___________ stable and __________ intimate.

A

More stable, less intimate

588
Q

Sensation

A

The conversion of physical stimuli into electrical signals that are transferred through the nervous system by neurons. This is a PHYSICAL process.

589
Q

What determines which sensed stimuli continue to the level of perception?

A

Attention

590
Q

Absolute threshold

A

The lowest intensity of a stimulus that can be sensed and perceived. The intensity level that is detected 50% of the time. While mostly a biological trait, can change based on factors such as strong emotions or degree of subjective importance of correctly identifying a stimulus

591
Q

Difference threshold

A

“Just noticeable difference”–> the smallest difference that is sufficient for a change in a stimulus to be perceived. The more sensitive the sensory system, the smaller the threshold.

592
Q

Weber’s Law

A

The change in a stimulus required to meet the difference threshold is a certain fraction of the originally presented stimulus. The fraction is constant for each sense but differs based on the original stimulus and what sense we are using.

593
Q

Sense organs differ in __________.

A

Sensitivity

594
Q

The more sensitive the sense organ, the __________ the Weber fraction required for detection of the stimulus.

A

SMALLER

595
Q

Signal Detection Theory

A

The ability to detect a meaningful stimulus in the midst of vast amounts of sensory info increases an organism’s chances of survival. There is always some amount of error in the process of distinguishing signal from noise, but a higher hit rate will increase sensitivity by the organism.

596
Q

Sensitivity bias

A

The individual’s tendency toward or against accepting evidence of a signal. It is a cognitive appraisal of input by sensory system, and can occur consciously or unconsciously.

597
Q

Attention

A

Selects sensory information for perceptual processing and conscious awareness. Any information not paid attention to will only be processed unconsciously.

598
Q

Selective attention

A

The focus of attention on one particular stimulus or task at the expulsion of other stimuli. Limitation: potentially important information may be discarded and missed

599
Q

Divided attention

A

The splitting of perceptual resources between multiple stimuli or behaviors. Results in the stimuli receiving less attention than if they were focused on individually.

600
Q

Bottom-up processing

A

The construction of perceptions from individual pieces of information provided by sensory processing

601
Q

Top-down processing

A

Brings the influence of prior knowledge into play to make perception more efficient.

602
Q

Gestalt Principles

A

Describe the top-down processing that organizes sensory information into distinct forms. Six principles: nearness, similarity, common region, closure, continuity, and figure & ground

603
Q

Principle of nearness

A

Clusters of objects will each be perceived as a distinct group

604
Q

Principle of similarity

A

Objects with a shared feature (shape) will likewise be perceived as a single group

605
Q

Principle of common region

A

Objects sharing a common background will be perceived as a group even if they would be separated by eh principles of nearness and/or similarity

606
Q

Principle of closure

A

We perceive whole shapes even when they are not actually present in the stimulus

607
Q

Principle of continuity

A

The brain will perceive an ambitious stimulus according to the simplest possible continuous forms

608
Q

Perceiving depth

A

Cannot be represented on the 2D surface of the retina, so the brain compensates by comparing images seen by each eye–> the differences in the two versions of the same stimulus from slightly different locations allows the brain to estimate depth of object being viewed

609
Q

Perceiving motion

A

Cannot be represented on the brain based only on pattern of information received by retina. Visual cortex integrates information gathered by retina and by eye movements to develop correct inferences about motion.

610
Q

Constancy

A

The perceptual problem of distinguishing between information received by the retina and chances in the surrounding. Two types:

Size–> allows a single object to be perceived as being the same size regardless of whether it is moved closer/further from the eye

Shape–> allows us to know an object has the same shape regardless of how light reflects onto it

611
Q

Consciousness

A

Awareness of oneself, one’s surroundings, one’s thoughts, and one’s goals

612
Q

What is the gatekeeper of consciousness?

A

Attention

613
Q

Alertness

A

The default state of consciousness–> most people are generally alert when awake

614
Q

EEG and Alertness

A

EEGs show particular types of brainwaves called beta waves when a person is alert

615
Q

Circadian rhythm

A

Regulates the body’s functions on a predictable schedule. Regulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus.

616
Q

Melatonin

A

A hormone secreted by the pineal gland that stimulates the drive for sleep as part of the sleep-wake cycle

617
Q

Suprachiasmic nucleus

A

Located in the hypothalamus. Regulates the body’s sleep-wake cycle. Maintains drive for wakefulness by inhibiting melatonin. Light triggers SCN firing.

618
Q

Stage 1 Sleep

A
  • Light sleep

- The brain emits alpha waves–> consistent with a relaxed state of wakefulness

619
Q

Beta waves

A

Brainwaves detected by an EEG that represent a state of fully alert wakefulness

620
Q

Alpha waves

A

Brainwaves detected by an EEG during Stage 1 sleep that represent a relaxed state of wakefulness

621
Q

Stage 2 Sleep

A

Associated with bursts of brain wave activity that indicate a full transition into sleep

622
Q

State 3 Sleep

A

Associated with the appearance of delta wave brain emissions, reflecting the transition into deep sleep. Alpha waves are still around, but are less prominent

623
Q

Delta waves

A

Brainwaves detected by an EEG during Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep that are stronger than alpha waves; signify a person is in deep sleep

624
Q

Stage 4 Sleep

A

Deep sleep. Characterized entirely by delta waves on an EEG

625
Q

Function of sleep cycles

A

Allows the individual to enjoy benefits of both light and deep sleep.

626
Q

REM sleep

A

A period of high brain activity and rapid eye movements that occur during stage 1 sleep. The brain lives the massive amount of stimuli experienced during the day and consolidates important info into memory and discards less important info. The body is immobilized during this stage.

627
Q

The earlier sleep cycles are predominantly ____________.

A

non-REM sleep

628
Q

The later sleep cycles are ____________.

A

A mixture between REM and non-REM sleep.

629
Q

Dreaming occurs during ________ sleep.

A

REM

630
Q

Sleep terrors are most likely to occur:

A

During NREM sleep

631
Q

Naroclepsy

A

The takeover of waking life by REM that occurs without warning

632
Q

Hypnosis

A

A state of relaxation, focused attention and increased willingness to relinquish control over one’s actions. Induced through cooperation with a hypnotist or later as self-hypnosis. CANNOT be done against someone’s will.

633
Q

Meditation

A

Intentional, self-produced state of consciousness induced by relying and systematically shifting attention away from day-to-day concerns

634
Q

Agonists

A

Drugs that mimic chemically similar, naturally occurring neurotransmitters

635
Q

Antagonists

A

Drugs that bind to neurotransmitter receptors without activating them, thereby blocking the binding of the associated neurotransmitter and undermining its normal effects.

636
Q

Reuptake inhibitors

A

Drugs that interfere with the reuptake of neurotransmitters in the synapse so that a greater amount remains in the synapse

637
Q

Enzyme inhibitors

A

Drugs that prevent the breakdown of neurotransmitters that have been taken up by the presynaptic neuron

638
Q

Stimulants

A

Drugs that raise the level of activity in the CNS. Many act by increasing the amount of monoamine neurotransmitters (epinephrine/dopamine) in the synapse.

639
Q

Depressants

A

Drugs that cause a decrease of activity in the CNS.

640
Q

MAOIIs

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors. Interfere with the breakdown of monoamine neurotransmitters (eg. serotonin, norepinephrine)

641
Q

Hallucinogens

A

Drugs that alter sensory and perceptual experience. Most act as agonists.

642
Q

Reward pathway

A

Pathway within the limbic system that is associated with feelings of reward in day-to-day life and the feelings of pleasure that lead to craving and addition. Activation of this pathway by addictive drugs leads to increase levels of dopamine.

643
Q

Neurotransmitter associated with additive behaviors

A

DOPAMINE

644
Q

Visual processing

A

Parallel processing occurs at the level of bipolar and ganglion cells in the eye. Visual info is then split into two distinct pathways: one that detects motion and one that detects form, and these pathways project to separate areas of the LGN and visual cortex. From there, feature detection occurs via serial processing of the information.

645
Q

Declarative memory

A

Involves information that is consciously known

646
Q

Procedural memory

A

Refers to unconscious abilities to remember how to perform a particular task

647
Q

Sensory memory

A

First phase in memory formation. Acts as temporary storage for incoming sensory stimuli. Encoding at this state is simply transducing physical stimuli into electrical information–> unconscious, neurological process. Information from here will either be lost or encode as short-term memory. Can hold a LOT of information at any given time.

648
Q

Short-term memory

A

Information that is held as items in conscious awareness. Info can be manipulated rather than stored passively (can be applied to real world).

649
Q

Working memory

A

The combination of storing and activity using short term memory. Info is encoded here through auditory representation (you hear the info you may have initially processed as visual info).

650
Q

How much information can be held in working memory?

A

5-9 pieces of information (7 +/- 2)

651
Q

Rehearsal

A

The repetition of a phonetic representation. A process used to maintain information in working memory.

652
Q

Chunking

A

Reorganizing large number of items into a smaller number of “chunks”. A process that allows a larger amount of info to be maintained in working memory

653
Q

Long-term memory

A

Information that is maintained outside of conscious awareness and can be called back into working memory when needed. HAS NO LIMIT OF STORAGE

654
Q

Encoding of information into long-term memory is guided by :

A

Meaning

655
Q

Neural plasticity

A

The ability of the brain’s networks of neurons and their synapses to change. Allows adaptation to chaining life circumstances as well as memory formation (memory can be stored as changes to networks of neurons)

656
Q

Memory consolidation

A

The strengthening of the neural network that represents a memory

657
Q

Long term potentiation

A

Describes the increase in likelihood that presynaptic input will trigger an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron. Repeated stimulation by the presynaptic neuron leads to increase in strength of the excitatory postsynaptic potential–> makes the postsynaptic neuron more likely to fire in response to stimulation by the presynaptic neuron. Can take place via additive influence of multiple inputs.

658
Q

Hippocampus

A

Plays an important role in the initial consolidation of declarative memory and long term potentiation.

659
Q

Retrieval

A

The return of information stored in long-term memory into working memory for the purpose of problem-solving and guidance of behavior

660
Q

Semantic networks

A

Organization of information in networks of meaningfully related memories

661
Q

Spreading activation

A

Occurs when one item brought into working memory triggers an activation of related memory

662
Q

Recall

A

The retrieval of memory from scratch. A harder form of retrieval.

663
Q

Recognition

A

The correct identification of information that is presented. An easier form of retrieval.

664
Q

Retrieval cues

A

Environmental stimuli or pieces of information that are associated in some way with a memory being sought. Typically present at the time the memory was originally formed

665
Q

Role of Emotion in Memory Retrieval

A

Emotions act as retrieval cues, in that retrieval of memory is strongest when the emotional state during retrieval is similar to that of memory formation. Additionally, memories of higher emotional significance are more readily available for retrieval.

666
Q

Decay

A

Describes the fading of a memory. Fate of information in working memory that is not encoded into long term memory. Neurologically, represents wearing of connections that make up the neural network holding a memory.

667
Q

Primacy effect

A

Recall of items at the beginning of the list is strongest

668
Q

Recency effect

A

Recall of items at the end of the list is strongest

669
Q

Retroactive interference

A

Newly learned material that prevents successful retrieval of related older memories. Occurs when information that is newly learned is similar to that in older memories

670
Q

Proactive interference

A

Previously held knowledge prevents successful retrieval of more newly learned information . Occurs when information that is newly learned is similar to that in older memories.

671
Q

Memory construction

A

Occurs during retrieval. Memory is a construct of the mind and therefore can be updated with new info and experiences.

672
Q

Source monitoring

A

Occurs when a person attributes a memory to a particular source. May not always be accurate. Memory construction may follow, where a person converts their inference into memory. Also can lead to incorrect construction of memories that never actually happened.

673
Q

Korsakoff’s Syndrome

A

Nutritional deficiency of vitamin B1, which results in a deficit in the ability to recall recent events. Often due to severe alcoholism.

674
Q

Retinal disparity

A

Our eyes are 2.5 inches apart, so they create slightly different images that the brain puts together to give a solid image with an idea of DEPTH.

675
Q

Interposition

A

The overlapping of objects signifies positioning relative to one another. A monocular cue

676
Q

Motion parallax

A

Things farther away move slower, while things closer to us move faster

677
Q

The blind spot

A

The location on the retina where the optic nerve connects. It has no cones or rods, so images projected there are not visible.

678
Q

Proprioception

A

Cognitive awareness of of balance/position of body in space.

679
Q

Hypnagonic hallucinations

A

Hearing or seeing things that aren’t there

680
Q

Hypnic jerks

A

A sensation of falling as you enter stage one sleep

681
Q

Activation Synthesis Hypothesis

A

Brain gets a lot of neural impulses in brainstem, which is sometimes interpreted by the frontal cortex. Our brain tries to find meaning from random brain activity–> explanation that dreams may not actually have meaning.

682
Q

Barbituates

A

drugs that are used to induce sleep or reduce anxiety. act as depressants

683
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Most commonly prescribed suppressant. Act as a sleep aid or anti-anxiety aid. Enhances brain’s response to GABA neurotransmitter.

684
Q

Opiates

A

Drugs that are used to treat pain and anxiety. NOT depressants–> act on endorphins.

685
Q

Caffeine

A

a stimulant that inhibits adenosine receptors, disrupting sleep

686
Q

Nicotine

A

A stimulant that disrupts sleep and suppresses appetite. Also causes muscles to relax and release stress-reducing neurotransmitters.

687
Q

Drug overdoses

A

Often occur when a person takes a new drug at a high dose, or when a regular drug user takes their normal level of drug dose in an unfamiliar location–> no external cues to alert body that they’re getting a dose.

688
Q

methandone

A

A treatment that activates opiate receptors slowly than other opiates, dampening the high that addicts get. Eases withdrawal.

689
Q

Cocktail party effect

A

Ability to concentrate on one voice amongst a crowd

690
Q

Inattentional blindness

A

We aren’t aware of things not in our visual filed when our attention is directed elsewhere in that field

691
Q

Change blindness

A

A failure to bring attention to changes in our environment

692
Q

Priming

A

Exposure to one stimulus affects a response to another stimulus, even if we haven’t been paying attention to it

693
Q

Serial position effect

A

Encompass the primacy and recency effects that come with trying to remember a list of items

694
Q

Visual and spatial info are processed in the:

A

visuospatial

695
Q

Verbal info is processed in the:

A

Phonological loop

696
Q

Dual coding hypothesis

A

It’s easier to remember words associated with images than either one alone.

697
Q

Semantic memory

A

Memory of words and phrases (remembering simple facts)

698
Q

Episodic memory

A

Event-related memories

699
Q

mnemonic device

A

Using unrelated stimuli or words to help you remember information. Encoding strategy

700
Q

Self-referencing

A

Thinking about new information and how it relates to you personally. Form of encoding

701
Q

Spacing

A

Spreading out studying to shorter periods for greater encoding of information

702
Q

State-dependent cues

A

Retrieval cues that are related to the state you were in when you learned the information.

703
Q

Flashbulb memories

A

Highly vivid memories that are tied to emotions. Can be subjected to reconstruction.

704
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

Inability to recall info previously encoded

705
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

Inability to encode new memories

706
Q

Means-end analysis

A

Problem solving method where we analyze main problem and break it down into smaller problems, and reduce differences between the problem and goal

707
Q

Type I error

A

False positive

708
Q

Type II error

A

False negative

709
Q

Conjunction fallacy

A

The co-occurrence of two instances is more likely than a single one.

710
Q

Global aphasia

A

When both production and understanding of language is damaged

711
Q

Conduction aphasia

A

the inability to conduct between listening and speaking is disrupted

712
Q

Lazarus Theory

A

Experience of emotion depends on how the situation is labelled. We label the situation, which then leads to emotional and physiological response

713
Q

General adaptation syndrome

A

Involves three distinct stages of stress:

1) Alarm phase–> stress kicks in and heart races
2) Resistance–> fleeing, huddling, a ton of cortisol
3) Exhaustion–> if this doesn’t occur, we get tissue damage

714
Q

Glutamate

A

Most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS, EXCEPT vision. Acts as the major inhibitory neurotransmitter on bipolar cells of the eye in the absence of light.

715
Q

GABA and glycine

A

Most common inhibitory neurotransmitters

716
Q

Prototype willingness model

A

Behavior is a function of: past behavior, attitudes, subjective norms, our intentions, our willingness to engage in a specific type of behavior, and prototypes/models. Argues that a lot of our behavior is carried out from prototyping

717
Q

Elaboration likelihood model

A

Model of Persuasion. There are two ways information is processes: central processing (depending on quality of arguments by persuader) and peripheral (superficial-non-verbal persuasion cues)

718
Q

Principle of aggregation

A

An attitude affects a person’s average behavior, but not necessarily each isolated act

719
Q

Ego depletion

A

The idea that self-control is a limited resource. If you use a lot of it, it can get used up and you’ll have less to use in the future

720
Q

Actor-observer bias

A

we are victims of circumstance, but others are willful actor. Form of fundamental attribution error

721
Q

Self-serving bias is more prominent in ______________.

A

Individualistic cultures

722
Q

Hypothesis of Relative Deprivation

A

Upsurge in prejudice when people are deprived of something they feel entitled to

723
Q

Primacy bias

A

First impressions are important– extra emphasis on information that reinforces first impression

724
Q

Recency bias

A

Your most recent actions are important–> people place emphasis on your more recent actions/performances

725
Q

The most powerful predictor of friendships and relationships:

A

Geographical proximity

726
Q

Projection bias

A

when we assume others share the same beliefs we do

727
Q

False consensus bias

A

When we assume everyone else agrees with what we do, even if they do not

728
Q

Side-effect discrimination

A

One institution can unintentionally influence another institution negatively.

729
Q

Past-in-present discrimination

A

Even if discrimination done in the past is no longer allowed, can still have consequences for people in the present

730
Q

Coercive organization

A

An organization by which its members do not have a choice

731
Q

Utilitarian organization

A

An organization where people are paid/rewarded for their efforts

732
Q

Iron rule of oligarchy

A

Even the most democratic of organizations become more bureaucratic over time until they’re governed by a select few

733
Q

Weber’s 5 main characteristic of an ideal bureaucracy

A
  • Division of labor
  • Hierarchy of organization
  • Written rules and regulations
  • Impersonality
  • Employment based on technical qualifications
734
Q

Vehicular control

A

Type of experimental control that determines what experimental group does without the directly desired impact

735
Q

Positive control

A

Treatment with known response

736
Q

Negative control

A

Group with no response expected

737
Q

Statistical regression

A

All variables examined are continuous. Makes assumptions about which variable is influencing the other

738
Q

Correlation

A

All variables examined are continuous. Makes no assumptions about causation.

739
Q

Chi-square

A

Involves categorical variables. Looks at 2 distributions of categorical data to see if they differ from each other.

740
Q

T-test

A

Compares mean values of a continuous variable between 2 categories/groups.

741
Q

ANOVA

A

Compares mean values of a contributes variable for multiple categories/groups

742
Q

Cross-sectional study

A

looks at a group of different people at one moment in time

743
Q

Case-control study

A

Observational study where 2 people differing in outcome are identified and compared to find a causal factor

744
Q

Internal validity

A

Extent to which a causal conclusion based on a study is warranted. Impacted by confounding factors

745
Q

External validity

A

Whether the results of a study can be generalized to other situations and to other people. Protected for by randomization of sample and control of situational variables