Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Veterinary Pathology > Alimentary System > Flashcards

Alimentary System Flashcards

1
Q

What is Brachygnathia superior/inferior?

A

Short maxilla/mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is prognathia?

A

Long maxilla/mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is cleft palate/palatoschosos?

A
  • Inadequate growth of palatine shelves
  • Midline defect of hard and/or soft palate
  • Causes aspiration pneumonia and problems with sucking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Hare lip/cheiloschisis?

A

Absence of part of lip rostral to nasal septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is stomatitis?

A

Inflammation of the oral cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common oral malignancy in cats? Describe its features.

A
  • Squamous cell carcinomas of the oral cavity
    • Malignant epithelial tumour
    • Often on the ventrolateral tongue
    • Locally invasive with/without metastases
    • Composed of elevated firm, white plaques or nodules that may ulcerate
    • Irregular masses and cords of squamous epithelium invading the lamina propria
    • Forms circular “pearls” of keratin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common oral malignancy in dogs? Describe its features.

A
  • Tumours of pigment-producing melanocytes
  • Nearly always malignant in the oral cavity
  • Grow rapidly
  • Oval or spindle-shaped melanocytes with variable melanin content
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are Epulis periodontal tumours?

A
  • Group of benign neoplasms of periodontal origin affecting gingivae, particularly in brachycephalic breeds
  • Firm lesions on gums surrounding teeth, especially carnassia/canine region
  • Dense collagenous and sometimes ossified tissue covered with stratified squamous epithelium which descends into stroma in cords
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is oesophageal achalasia?

A

Failure of cardiac sphincter to open.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How may megaoesophagus be aquired?

A
  • Neurological
    • From equine grass sickness, for example
  • Muscular
    • From myodegeneration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is ruminal tympany? Describe the different types of this disorder.

A
  • Ruminal bloat: rumen becomes distended with gas or fermenting feed
  • Primary
    • Frothy bloat- formation of stable foam in rumen from ingestion of high protein lucerne/clover or high concentrate/low roughage dies
  • Secondary
    • Mechanical/functional obstruction of oesophagus leading to accumulation of gas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe traumatic reticulitis.

A
  • Ingested sharp objects will fall to the floor of the reticulum and be forced into the body wall via contractions
  • Causes mild suppurative or granulomatous reticulitis with/without mild peritonitis
  • Foreign body penetrates cranial wall, encouraged by rumen contractions
  • Results in acute peritonitis which progresses though the diaphragm and forms local fibrous adhesions
  • Can cause fibropurulent pleuricy, pneumonia, and pericarditis
  • Inflammatory processes around reticulum may also lead to “vagus indigestion” and ruminal stasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a cause of papillomatosis in the bovine rumen?

A

Bovine papillomavirus type 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a cause of squamous cell carcinoma of the rumen?

A

Develops from papillomas in cattle in association with ingested carcinogens in bracken fern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common presentation of abomasal displacement?

A

Left displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is evidence that a gastric rupture occured antemortem rather than as an agonal change when observed at post-mortem?

A

Evidence of haemorrhage and peritonitis

17
Q

What is the most common gastric neoplasm in small animals? What is a characteristic of this neoplasm?

A
  • Adenocarcinoma
  • Locally aggressive and spreads via lymphatic vessels
18
Q

What is the most common gastric neoplasm of horses?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

19
Q

What is the target of gastrointestinal stomal tumours?

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

20
Q

What is exudative diarrhoea? Describe this conditon.

A
  • Caused by loss of the integrity of the mucosa causing exudate
  • Inflammatory products present
  • increased vascular permeability
  • Erosion and ulceration present
  • Increased mucosal permeability with interstitial fluid moving into the lumen with increased hydrostatic pressure
  • Can be accompanied by decreased oncotic pressure with hypoalbuminaemia and protein lost in exudate
21
Q

What is lymphangiectasia?

A
  • Loss of protein-rich lymph due to obstruction of intestinal lymphatic vessels
  • Causes severe protein loss
  • Often due to neoplasia
  • May be an idiopathic condition
  • Lacteals become dilated
22
Q

What are the most common causes of intestinal hypoxia/necrosis?

A

Strangulating lesions/intussusception

23
Q

What is typhlitis?

A

Inflammation of the caecum

24
Q

What is proctitis?

A

Inflammation of the rectum

25
Q

Describe the sequelae of infection for parvoviral enteritis.

A
  • Initial multiplication of virus in lymphoid tissues
  • Viraemia
  • Villous atrophy results from inability to replace enterocyte from crypts
  • Necrosis of crypt epithelial cells leads to crypt dilation
26
Q

What is the lamina propria mucosae? Why is is susceptible to infection?

A
  • Thin layer of loose connective tissue, or dense irregular connective tissue, which lies beneath the epithelium and together with the epithelium constitutes the mucosa
  • Has a poor inflammatory response, making it susceptible to infection
27
Q

What causes Feline Infectious Peritonitis? How can this manifest?

A
  • Caused by Feline coronavirus
  • Forms
    • “Wet” (effusive) form with white miliary granulomas and fibrin on serosa plus high protein exudate in peritoneal cavity
    • “Dry” (non-effusive) formCharacteristics
      • White-gray granulomatous masses in wall of intestine
      • mutifocal pyogranulomas on serosa and in wall
      • infiltration by lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, and neurophils
      • necrotizing vasculitis also present
28
Q

What is being pictured here? What causes this?

A
  • Hepatocyte Vacuolation
  • Fatty change
    • Lipid accumulates in cytoplasm of injured hepatocytes and hepatocytes are unable to function normally
    • Reversible but may progress to lipidosis (steatosis)
    • Grossly, liver is pale yellow, friable, and greasy
    • Hepatocytes distend by discrete circular lipid vacuoles which displace the nucleus to the periphery of the cell
    • Massive uptake of fatty acids from blood following excessive mobilization of peripheral adipose tissue reserves
    • Overloads metabolic capacity of hepatocytes and further inhibits their function
    • Vacuolation of hepatocytes: large clear vacuoles which push the nucleus to one side. In each cell there is a single large, clear empty vacuole, lipid present which has been dissolved out
29
Q

What is steroid-induced hepatopathy?

A

Excessive glycogen accumulation in the hepatoctyes in the presence of high levels of corticosteroids (endogenous or exogenous (iatrogenic))

30
Q

Describe hepatic amyloidosis.

A
  • Types
    • Primary: Familial (genetic)
    • Secondary: Usually follow chronic inflammation
  • Grossly: Liver becomes enlarged, pale and firm but friable, with rounded borders
  • Histologically
    • Amyloid protein is deposited extracellularly along sinusoids in space of Disse and around portal areas
    • Green birefringence can be seen under polarizing light when stained with congo red
31
Q

Describe cirrhosis.

A
  • Diffuse, irreversible, end-stage hepatic disease
  • Destroys function
  • Mostly seen in dogs
  • Cause cannot always be established
  • Affected animals exhibit hepatic insufficiency (hypoproteinaemia, ascites) or liver failure when severe, including icterus/jaundice (hyperbilirubinaemia), hypoproteinaemia (ascities, coagulopathy), ammonia retention (hepatic encephalopathy), secondary photosensitisation (herbivores, phylloerythrin (product as a result of consuming chlorophyl-filled plant material) not excreted due to cholestasis)
  • Grossly: Liver is small, misshapen, fibrosed, irregular
  • Histologically: loss of hepatocytes, collapsed parenchyma, nodular regeration, lack of central veins
  • Briding fibrosis (can be surrounding regenerative nodule)
  • Bile ductules will be proliferative
  • There is bridging fibrosis, biliary hyperplasia, nodular regeneration, and hepatocyte destruction
32
Q

Describe hepatic telangiectasis.

A
  • Dilation of groups of sinusoids filled with blood
  • Incidental finding in cattle and cats
  • Grossly: Red and purple areas
  • Cause is idiopathic
33
Q

How does congestive heart failure manifest ine th liver?

A
  • Causes the liver to have chronic venous congestion
  • Back flow of blood through the vena cava causes congestions in the liver
  • Fibrin strands in the peritoneal cavity
  • Can cause liver to have “nutmeg” appearance
34
Q

Describe ragwort (Senecia spp.) toxicity in the liver?

A
  • Pyrroliziding alkaloids are activated in the liver which Inhibit cellular division
  • Megalocytosis of hepatocytes are apparent histologically
35
Q
A

Veterinary Pathology (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions