Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GI PATHOLOGY > Alimentary Pharmacology > Flashcards

Alimentary Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main roles of drugs used for alimentary disease?

A 
Acid suppression
GI motility
Laxatives
IBD
Intestinal secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do H2 antagonists block acid production?

A

Blocking the H2 histamine receptor which stimulates proton pump activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do PPIs block acid production?

A

Directly blocking the activity of proton pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do alginates work?

A

Form a viscous gel which floats on stomach contents and reduces reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do antacids work?

A

Contain Mg or Al, neutralising stomach acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When are H2 antagonists indicated?

A

GORD, Peptic ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When are PPIs indicated?

A

GORD, Peptic ulcer

H. pylori (triple therapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PPIs are associated with what side effects?

A

Hypomagnesaemia
B12 Deficiency
? C. diff infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the function of prokinetic agents?

A

Increased gut motility, gastric emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give an example of H2 antagonists?

A

Ranitidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which drugs directly inhibit the vomiting centre of the medulla?

A

Anti-muscarinics

Anti-histamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which drugs inhibit vomiting via the Chemoreceptor trigger zone?

A

Dopamine antagonists
5HT3 antagonists
Cannabinoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which drugs decrease gastric motility?

A

Loperamide

Opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

By what mechanism do anti-diarrhoea drugs have their effect?

A

Opioid receptors in GIT, decrease ACh release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why does Loperamide have few central opioid effects?

A

Not well absorbed across the blood-brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are anti-spasmodics?

A

Reduction of symptoms of IBS and renal colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the mechanisms of anti-spasmodic drugs?

A

Muscarinic antagonists
Direct smooth muscle relaxants
CCBs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 4 types of laxative?

A

Bulk
Osmotic
Stimulant
Softener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the main drugs used in IBD?

A

Aminosalicylates
Corticosteroids
Immunosuppressants
Biologics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are aminosalicylates administered? When are they contraindicated?

A

Oral/rectal
Renal impairment
Allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with use of aminosalicylates?

A

GI upset
Renal impairment
Acute pancreatitis

22
Q

What is associated with abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroids?

A

Addisonian Crisis

acute cortisol insufficiency

23
Q

What are the contraindications/concerns with corticosteroids?

A

Osteoporosis
Cushingoid features
Infection susceptibility

24
Q

How do immunosuppressants work to reduce the symptoms of IBD?

A

Prevent purine formation required for DNA synthesis - reduced immune cell proliferation

25
Q

What are the adverse effects of immunosuppressants?

A

Azathioprine hypersensitivity
Bone marrow suppression
Organ damage

26
Q

How do biologics work in treatment of IBD?

A

Anti- TNFa (proinflammatory cytokine)

Only treat inflammatory response

27
Q

What biologic is commonly used in IBD?

A

Infliximab

28
Q

When is Infliximab contraindicated?

A

Current TB, serious infection
MS
Pregnancy/breast feeding

29
Q

What are the adverse effects of Infliximab?

A

Increased infection risk
Infusion reaction
Anaemia
Malignancy

30
Q

When do biologics increase the risk of malignancy

A

Crohn’s disease

31
Q

Which drugs affect biliary secretion?

A

Cholestyramine

Ursodeoxycholic Acid

32
Q

For what is Cholestyramine indicated?

A

Patients presenting with pruritis due to biliary cause

33
Q

What is the mechanism of Cholestyramine?

A

Reduced bile salts, binds them in gut and excretes as insoluble complex

34
Q

What is a risk associated with use of Cholestyramine?

A

May effect the absorption of other drugs and fat soluble vitamins (inc. Vit K)

35
Q

When is Ursodeoxycholic acid indicated?

A

Gallstones

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

36
Q

How does Ursodeoxycholic acid work?

A

Inhibits enzyme in formation of cholesterol, slowly dissolving NON-CALCIFIED stones

37
Q

How may GI issues cause changes in drug distribution?

A

Low albumin causes a decrease in the amount of bound drug (more free drug)

38
Q

How may GI issues cause changes in drug absorption?

A

Changes:
pH
Gut length
Transit time

39
Q

How may GI issues cause changes in drug metabolism?

A

Liver enzymes, blood flow
Increased gut flora
Gut wall metabolism

40
Q

How may GI issues cause changes in drug excretion?

A

Biliary excretion impairment (can increase toxicity)

41
Q

What is the largest cause of drug-induced diarrhoea?

A

Antimicrobials

42
Q

What are the most common GI adverse effects of medication?

A

GI upset
GI bleed/ulceration
Changes to gut flora
Induced Liver injury

43
Q

What are the risk factors for GI adverse drug effects?

A 
Female
Elderly
Alcoholics
Malnourishment
?Genetics
44
Q

Changes to gut bacteria due to adverse drug effects may cause what?

A

Reduced Vit K absorption (increased INR)

Overgrowth of pathogenic bacteria (C. diff)

45
Q

What is the difference between type A and B drug induced liver injury (hepatotoxicity)?

A

A: Intrinsic - predictable, dose-dependent, acute
B: Idiosyncratic - unpredictable

46
Q

Idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity mostly presents as what?

A

Hepatitis

Cholestasis

47
Q

How is liver disease classified?

A

Child-Pugh classification

48
Q

What must be taken into consideration when prescribing to a patient with liver disease?

A

Hepatotoxic drugs
Encephalopathic drugs
Drugs which change pharmacokinetics

49
Q

Why must care be taken when prescribing warfarin in liver disease?

A

Clotting factors will likely already be low

50
Q

Why must care be taken when prescribing aspirin/NSAIDs in liver disease?

A

Can increase bleeding time

NSAIDs can worsen ascites

51
Q

Why must care be taken when prescribing Opiates/benzos in liver disease?

A

May precipitate encephalopathy

52
Q

In a patient with Liver disease, which drugs should particular care be taken in prescribing?

A

Warfarin/Anti-coags
NSAIDs
Opiates/benzos

GI PATHOLOGY (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions