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CVPM > AK Notes > Flashcards

AK Notes Flashcards

1
Q

Five responsibilities of a facilitator

A
  1. starting and ending the meeting on time
  2. Controlling topics
    3 preventing negativity
  3. Prioritizing topic
  4. Prevent team member from dominating the meeting
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2
Q

What does Smart stand for

A

Specific, measurable, agreed, realistic, time bound

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3
Q

List four r’s of Team Management

A

Responsibility, respect, rapport, recognition

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4
Q

Define five potential employee scheduling options

A

Rotating schedule; hybrid schedule- a mix of fixed and variable days; skill-based- based on the known skill set; split scheduling; per diem

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5
Q

When it comes to staff scheduling _______ is one of the most desired employee benefits

A

Flexibility

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6
Q

An unusual number of clients arriving early or late to the appointment maybe a sign of what?

A

An ongoing appointment scheduling and time management problem at your hospital

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7
Q

Name five of the nine details to consider regarding appointment scheduling criteria for making appointments schedules

A
  1. number of doctors available.
  2. the relative efficiency of the doctors.
  3. Time allotted to each appointment
  4. The number of patients presented by each client
  5. Types of cases seen
  6. Number of exam rooms
  7. Hours of Hospital operation, including the hours for scheduled and non-scheduled activities
    8.
  8. Vet tech appointments
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8
Q

Three ways to avoid appointment problems with clients

A
  1. Appointment cards if clients make appointments while in the clinic
    2 proper Hospital protocols that prepare the team for unexpected challenges
    3 Advanced reminders within 24 hours of the appointment is considered best practice
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9
Q

Break down the three 5 minute sections for a 15 minute annual wellness exam

A
  1. The first five-tech check-in for history and vitals
  2. The next five- Doctor is present for physical exam, answers questions, gathers information, discuss preventive care
  3. The last five- collect lab samples, fill prescriptions or vaccinate
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10
Q

An effective appointment system should have what two goals

A
  1. To eliminate client wait time
  2. To maximize the efficiency of the doctors the support staff and the facility by minimizing downtime between clients or patient procedures
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11
Q

In the 70/20/10 Learning and Development model; Define the elements involved

A
  1. 70% of learning within an organization should come from on the job training
  2. 20% from coaching and mentoring
  3. 10% from actual courses, lectures and formal training
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12
Q

List and Define the three main ingredients of a professional development plan

A
  1. Training - an ongoing process that focuses on the employee’s current job and it’s related knowledge, skills, and abilities
  2. Development - focuses on skills, knowledge and abilities that are not necessarily focused on their current job
  3. Career management- serving as a career coach for employees and supporting them through the employment cycle
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13
Q

Why our core competencies important in staff development

A

Because they can be tiered to beginner, intermediate and expert or because they can be considered in terms of reward based compensation

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14
Q

The _____ and _____ of the practice help to find the core competencies that should be expected of employees

A

Mission and values

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15
Q

Customer relation management

A

A productive process of gathering data about client preferences and activities to better Target their services and products to client needs

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16
Q

General skills managers need to possess to effectively handle the dilemmas in a vet practice

A

Human, technical, conceptual

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17
Q

Accounting equation

A

Assets + liabilities + equity

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18
Q

Annual revenue per veterinarian

A

Annual gross Revenue/ number of FTE veterinarians

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19
Q

Average transaction value

A

Total revenue/ total number of transactions

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20
Q

Average inventory on hand

A

(BI + EI) / 2

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21
Q

Inventory turnover ratio

A

DMSP ( total purchases during the year) / AI

4-8 or 8-10 turns per year equals good

AI = (BI + EI) / 2

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22
Q

Full absorption pricing method

A

Includes overhead cost

Using 45% estimate

OHC = 0.45 X SP
SP = FC + OHC + P

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23
Q

Variable cost (inventory)

A

Must take into account things like how DVM is compensated

Add desired profit margin to variable cost

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24
Q

Sales price

A

SP = FC + VC + P

SP - sales price
FC - fixed cost
VC - variable cost
P - profit

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25
Q

Inventory turnover ratio

A

Dmsp/ AI = inventory turnover ratio

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26
Q

Average inventory on hand

A

( BI + EI) / 2 = AI

Bi- beginning inventory
Ei- ending inventory

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27
Q

Calculating inventory turns
Inventory turnover ratio

A

Total annual purchases divided by the average inventory value on hand

Value of drugs and medical supplies on hand at the beginning of the year at cost (BI)

Value of drugs and medical supplies on hand at the end of the year at cost (EI)

Some total of drug and medical supplies purchase( in dollar) made over the course of that year (DMSP)

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28
Q

Regarding evaluating Medical insurance plans; name at least four ingredients that should be included when creating a checklist to Aid and evaluation

A

Type of plan( ppo, HMO, pos)
Details of coverage
Size of the providers and related services and Facilities within the network
Cost
Employee eligibility
Simplicity of administration

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29
Q

4 documents found in an employee medical file

A

Insurance forms, physician notes, insurance or workers comp claims, physical exam results, FMLA Docs

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30
Q

What personnel file should be stored away in a separate file?

A

I-9

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31
Q

Name at least five documents that should be in a personnel file

A

Application, resume, interview notes, background checks. Number two job description. Number three offer of employment letter. Number Four performance evaluation, education training. Number five disciplinary documents. Number six emergency contact info. Number seven W2. Number 8 degree, diploma, certificates. Number nine contracts. Number 10 employee action forms. Number 11 leave of absence and attendance records

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32
Q

What common vet employee benefit documents the IRS require be reported as taxable, and what percentage is the cutoff for not reporting?

A

Pet Health discount policy that discounts services at greater than 20%

All discounts after 20% need to be reported as taxable

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33
Q

What element of a job description can help you avoid hiring someone who is unable to perform essential duties of the position?

A

Listing what is considered an impediment to satisfactory performance such as being afraid of aggressive pets

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34
Q

What specifics should be included in the accountability section of a job description?

A

A. Where does this position reside in the hierarchy of the practice?
B. Who do they report to?
C. Who evaluates performance?
D. How much Authority does this position have

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35
Q

Average turnover time per year

A

Companion Animal = six times per year

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36
Q

Full absorption pricing method

A

Includes overhead cost (OHC)

*using 45% estimate

OHC = 0.45 X SP
SP = FC + OHC + P

37
Q

Inventory turnover ratio

A

4 to 8 or 8 to 10 turns per year = good

DMSP ( total purchases during the year) / AI

AI =(B1 + E1)/2

Exp: BI = 3000; EI = 2500
Total purchase = 26,000
AI = 2750
Inv turnover = 9.5

38
Q

Economic order quantity (EOQ)

A

EOQ = (2 × A × F) / (H × UC)

A = Annual demand in units
F = fixed ordering cost incurred per order
H = holding cost expressed on an annual basis as a percentage of unit cost
UC = unit cost to purchase from vendor or supplier

39
Q

What three purposes do Hospital manuals serve?

A

One. A reference to for SOC and practice guidelines

  1. Training and instructional tool
  2. They defined a standard to which the employee can be held accountable
40
Q

What is the most common bacteria present in a dog and cat bites?

A

Pasteurella

41
Q

Four priorities of General Emergency Management

A
  1. Mitigation- strategies and actions that reduce the likelihood and impact of a threat
  2. Preparation- planning and training action steps that develop the capacity to respond to threats
  3. Response - Actions taken in the face of an emergency situation
  4. Recovery - the process of returning to normal after an emergency event lengthy
42
Q

Organizational design

A

A relationship centered practice is defined As utilizing empowered veterinary team members who share knowledge to develop long lasting or relationships with clients and patients period which elements of strategic planning best addresses this dynamic?

43
Q

Lack of follow through from management Push form of learning versus pull And negative peer pressure from team members who have Plateaued, are all common reasons for what Question mark

A

Resistance to learning

44
Q

Which phase of strategic planning includes the development of the mission comma vision and values and why are they so important?

A

The formulation phase. The mvv’s are critical because the represent the goals of the organization and every decision made for the business, employees, clients or patients must support the goals and therefore the mvv’s

45
Q

Zoonotic Host

A

The living organism that provides the environment for the maintenance of the organism but may not be necessary for the organisms survival

46
Q

Risk assessment equation

A

Hazards + vulnerabilities = risk

47
Q

Five strategies to reducing malpractice

A

One. CE
2. Thorough medical records
3. Practicing informed consent
4. Staff training
5. Referrals

48
Q

Once a vcpr is established treatment must continue until

A

A the animal recovers; B the practitioner has agreed to all the treatment that was agreed upon; c the animal dies; d the client terminates the vcpr; e. The responsibility for treatment is transferred to another practitioner with the consent of the client

49
Q

Two steps for pregnant women around gases

A

One. Anesthetic monitoring badge; 2. Proper PPE

50
Q

Three types of gas scavenger systems

A

1.active scavenger( the best)
2. Passive
3. Absorption

51
Q

When treating a patient with chemo, why is it critical to have detailed and thorough communication with the client?

A

Some chemo agents are eliminated in the urine and feces of the pet and can potentially expose family members

52
Q

Zoonotic reservior

A

A place where an infectious organism survives or replicates

53
Q

To get the most efficiency from a CPA at tax time, it is best to have obtained their services, for tax planning prior to the end of the calendar year and to have all accounting records to the CPA by

A

The third or last week of January

54
Q

What separates CPAs From bookkeepers or accountants

A

A CPA is a college-trained accounting professional who has attained certification via a comprehensive exam, and maintains the certification with continuous continuing education

55
Q

The role of liaison for practice manager involves more than relationships with vendors what are some examples

A

The role of liaison is a full-time responsibility involving staff, vendors, authorities, professional peers and advisors, independent contractors, clients, practice owners, or stockholders, consultants and any other relationship involving the practice

56
Q

Why is it recommended to have a study and ongoing relationship with an attorney

A

The strategy avoids the Urgent and crisis oriented circumstances and maintains more of a preventative relationship for the practice

57
Q

True or false, in reference to disease transmission please ticks and mosquitoes are considered vectors

A

True

58
Q

How can you calculate the average age of the accounts receivable entries

A

Beginning AR plus ending AR / 2 = average accounts receivable

59
Q

Regarding the value of accounts receivable turnover Semicolon Is it better to have a higher or lower number

A

A higher value for the ratio is better because it indicates the accounts receivable balance is turned into Cash more often

60
Q

Accounts receivable turnover is how many times the accounts receivable balance is converted into Cash. What is the AR turnover formula?

A

Credit sales / average accounts receivable = accounts receivable turnover

61
Q

Which act regulates collections procedures of past due accounts

A

Four debt collection practices Act

62
Q

When a non-sufficient funds check has been written to the practice, the practice has three choices of actions what are they?

A

A. Except the financial loss; B. attempt to collect, c. Use a third party collection agency

63
Q

If the practice is found to be spending more than it’s generating, what steps can be taken to gain control?

A

A decrease spending and increase Revenue; b. Hold employees accountable for waste; c. Consider reevaluate your fee structure; d. Review charges to be sure that they are being captured correctly and not missed; e. If a line of credit is needed to keep the practice viable in the short term, have a plan to pay back the loan as soon as possible

64
Q

At the end of the year, any independent contractor who received more than $_____ and wages from the practice must be issued at 1099 form

A

600

65
Q

Regarding payroll deductions; what does FICA stand for? What does it fund? And is it paid for by the employer, employee or both?

A

Federal insurance contribution Act; a tax paid by both the employer and the employee to fund Social Security and Medicare

66
Q

The basic accounting equation is

A

Assets = liability + owner equity

67
Q

When compounding expenses on the profit and loss statement it is important to express expenses and dollar amounts and..

A

A percentage of gross

68
Q

What is another name for the profit and loss statement

A

The income statement

69
Q

Which type of accounting is typically considered more accurate

A

Accrual

70
Q

This type of accounting recognizes Revenue when it is earned and expenses when they are incurred when goods are received and services are performed

A

Accrual

71
Q

Define cost of goods sold

A

The products used to produce a service for the client or products sold to clients

72
Q

Our wages for doctors who are paid on a salary basis considered a fixed or variable expense

A

Fixed

73
Q

What three financial responsibilities are typically outsourced in most practices

A

A. Primary tax preparation and advice
B. valuation of the practice
C. Large Financial issues

74
Q

A practice without conflicts could indicate what type of practice dynamic and what are potential negative side effects of those Dynamics

A

A. Staff members may be afraid to speak up. The practice culture is where team members are trained to do what they are told. The team thinks so much alike that there is little creativity to promote Innovation and change
B. This type of environment can Sap the teams Enthusiasm and initiative. it can also encourage passive resistance because open conflict and difference of opinion isn’t tolerated

75
Q

What are potential risk of delaying a conversation once an issue is known

A

A. May result in additional conflict

B. Maybe interpreted that management is not interested in the problem

76
Q

What are the four steps and successful intervention regarding conflict management

A
  1. confront the behavior
  2. Talk it out
  3. Hold team members accountable for solutions
  4. Follow up and feedback
77
Q

What are the four steps and successful intervention regarding conflict management

A
  1. confront the behavior
  2. Talk it out
  3. Hold team members accountable for solutions
  4. Follow up and feedback
78
Q

Define at will employment

A

A form of employment in which the employee is servicing the employer at the will of both parties this allows the employer to terminate its employees with or without cause

79
Q

Define the ideal witness to a termination

A

The same gender and in a supervisor position, not a direct peer of the employee being terminated

80
Q

What is the suggested protocol for an employee who is performing poorly due to a short-term personal life stressor

A

They should be advised that it is unsatisfactory and that if not for these problems they would be terminated, but will be given the opportunity to improve once the short-term problems are resolved. Reevaluate at that time

81
Q

Name for Express exceptions to at will employment

A
  1. Collective bargaining agreements; 2 contracts that indicate a length of employment;
    3 race, sex, color, origin, religion;
    4 pregnancy;
    5 over 40 years old;
    6 a workplace the employee considers unsafe;
    7 bankruptcy;
    8 jury duty
82
Q

Civil Rights Act title VII

A

Termination based on race, sex, color, natural origin or religion

83
Q

Pregnancy Discrimination Act

A

Termination based on pregnancy

84
Q

Age Discrimination Act

A

Dismissal over 40

85
Q

OSHA

A

Dismissal because of an employee refuses to work in a workplace they consider unsafe

86
Q

Bankruptcy Reform Act

A

Dismissal due to bankruptcy

87
Q

Which plan enables employees to make their medical insurance premium payment before taxes are deducted from their paycheck and can also mean substantial pre-tax savings for employers

A

Section 125 plans

88
Q

What six factors are generally considered by the courts and applying for economic realities test under the flsa

A

-the degree of control exercised by the practice over the individual work performance

  • the extent of the relative Investments by the practice and the individual and equipment and supplies used

The individuals opportunity for profit and loss through managerial skills

The skill and initiative required by the work

The permanence of the relationship

The extent to which the workers services are an integral part of the practice

CVPM (7 decks)

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