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RRT Exam > Airway Care > Flashcards

Airway Care Flashcards

0
Q

Which pharyngeal airway is indicated for conscious patients, facilitates deep tracheal suctioning, and is used to decrease trauma during nasotracheal suctioning?

A

Nasopharyngeal

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1
Q

Which pharyngeal airway is indicated for unconscious patients, can be used as a bite block, and can facilitate oral suctioning?

A

Oropharyngeal

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2
Q

What is the most common complication of a nasopharyngeal airway?

A

Trauma to mucosa

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3
Q

What is epistaxis?

A

Nasal bleeding

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4
Q

What are five purposes for endotracheal intubation?

A
  1. Provide a patent airway
  2. Access for suctioning
  3. Means for mechanical ventilation 4. Protect the airway
  4. Direct instillation of medication
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5
Q

What are the medications that can be directly instilled through an ET tube?

Hint: ALIEN V

A 
Atropine (bradycardia)
Lidocaine (PVCs)
Isuprel (bradycardia)
Epinephrine (asystole)
Narcan (drug overdose)
Valium/Versed (sedative)
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6
Q

How should an RT respond to an ET Tube by-passing the normal filtration, humidification and warming mechanisms?

A

Provide adequate humidity

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7
Q

How should an RT respond to an ET Tube disrupting the mucus transport system?

A

Suction PRN

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8
Q

What is the most serious complication of intubation?

A

Laryngospasm

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9
Q

What are some complications of intubation?

A

Infection, right mainstem bronchus intubation, VAPs

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10
Q

When it comes to assessment if tube position, what is involved with inspection?

A

Looking for bilateral chest movement during inspiration

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11
Q

When it comes to assessing correct tube position, what is involved in auscultation?

A

Breath sounds should be heard in both sides of the chest

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12
Q

Why are Chest X-Rays good for assessment of correct tube position?

A

The radiopaque line on the endotracheal tube can be easily visualized to assess placement

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13
Q

What is the correct sequence for assessment of tube placement?

A

Inspection of chest movement
Auscultation for breath sounds
Capnography or CO2 detectors
Chest X-Ray

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14
Q

With Tube Maintenance, what helps maintain patency?

A

Suctioning

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15
Q

What is the best way to prevent obstruction when it comes to tube maintenance?

A

Humidification (100% Humidity @ 37 Celsius)

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16
Q

How should an RT troubleshoot a laryngoscope if the light does not work?

A
  1. Tighten Bulb
  2. Check handle attachment
  3. Change blades
  4. Check batteries
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17
Q

What equipment is only used for nasal intubation?

A

Magill Forceps

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18
Q

What equipment is used only for oral intubation?

A

Stylet

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19
Q

Where should the ET Tube be at the patient’s lips/teeth?

A

Approximately between 21-25 cm mark

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20
Q

Which special tube can be indicated for independent lung ventilation, unilateral lung diseases, and surgery?

A

Double-lumen endotracheal tube or Carlen’s Tube

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21
Q

How can an RT replace a Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) with an endotracheal tube?

A

A standard endotracheal tube can be inserted directly through the LMA into the trachea if necessary

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22
Q

What level of vacuum pressure is applied to the Hi-Lo Evac/ CASS tubes?

A

20 mm Hg

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23
Q

In extubation, what helps prevent vocal cord damage?

A

Removing the tube at peak inspiration

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24
Q

What is the management response for a patient that shows Mild distress/stridor and a sore throat?

A

Provide humidity, oxygen and/or racemic epinephrine as necessary

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25
Q

What is the management response for a patient that shows moderate distress/stridor?

A

Oxygen, cool mist aerosol and racemic epinephrine to reduce swelling

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26
Q

Why might an RT reintubate a patient after extubation?

A

Observed severe respiratory distress and/or marked inspiratory stridor

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27
Q

What causes vocal chord polyps?

A

Chronic inflammation

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28
Q

What causes mucosal ulceration?

A

Torn mucosa

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29
Q

Does mucosal ulceration require reintubation?

A

No

30
Q

What is the name for a softening or dilation of tracheal cartilage?

A

Tracheomalacia

31
Q

What is the name for a gradual obstruction (or narrowing) of the trachea that occurs with healing?

A

Tracheostenosis

32
Q

Which post-extubation complication causes stridor?

A

Tracheostenosis

33
Q

When is tracheostomy preferred over endotracheal tube intubation?

A

Long-term ventilation

34
Q

What circumstances should the tracheostomy tube cuff be inflated?

A

Eating and positive pressure ventilation

35
Q

If the suction catheter is unable to pass, what should the RT do?

A

Remove the tube, ventilate, and replace with a new tube

36
Q

What kind of tracheostomy tube is recommended for weaning and temporary ventilation?

A

Fenestrated

37
Q

What is the purpose of the tracheal button?

A

Used to maintain the stoma

38
Q

In what circumstances is an extended tracheostomy tube indicated?

A

Obese patients or those that use cervical collars

39
Q

What is the procedure that disrupts the connection between the upper and lower respiratory tract?

A

A laryngectomy

40
Q

What is the purpose of bronchial hygiene therapy?

A

To improve mobilization of secretions, prevent accumulation of secretions, improve ventilation

41
Q

What are the hazards and contraindications of bronchial hygiene therapy?

A

Unstable cardiovascular system, unstable pulmonary system, unstable post-operative status, untreated tuberculosis

42
Q

What is the result of stimulation of the Alpha Receptors?

A

Vasoconstriction of arterial smooth muscle

43
Q

Which type of medications elicit the alpha response?

A

Blood pressure medications

44
Q

What is the result of stimulation of the Beta 1 response?

A

An increase of the rate and strength of contractility of the cardiac muscle.

45
Q

What kind of medications elicit the Beta 1 adrenergic response?

A

Cardiac drugs

46
Q

What is the result of the stimulation of the Beta 2 Adrenergic response?

A

Bronchodilation and a weak vasodilation effect

47
Q

Which kind of drugs elicit the Beta 2 Adrenergic response?

A

Respiratory medications

48
Q

What is the formula to calculate how man mg are in a medication solution?

A

(Drug % x 10) dosage = number of mg of drug

49
Q

Example of Dilution calculation:

How many mg are in 20 ml of a 0.5% solution of Albuterol?

A

100 mg of Albuterol

50
Q

The RT is to administer 2.5 mg of Albuterol. The medication is available in a 0.5% solution. How many ml of Albuterol should be administered?

A

0.5 ml of Albuterol

51
Q

What kind of Beta 2 Adrenergic medications are theophylline (aminophylline) and caffeine examples of?

A

Methylxanthine drugs

52
Q

Flovent (Fluticasone), Qvar (Beclomethasone), Pulmicort (Budeniside), Aerobid (Flunisolide), Azmacort (Triamcinolone) and Prednisone are examples of what kind of drug?

A

Corticosteroids

53
Q

What are two examples of corticosteroids that do not end in the suffix -one?

A

Budesonide (Pulmicort) and Flunisolide (Aerobid)

54
Q

What antibiotic is used to treat oral candidiasis (thrush)?

A

Antifungal Agent Nystatin

55
Q

What is the best way to control secretions?

A

Good hydration

56
Q

What is the primary action of acetycysteine?

A

Dissolves disulfide bonds

57
Q

Which mucolytic drug is recommended for Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Pulmozyme

58
Q

What are two examples of cardiac glucosides?

A

Digitalis and digitoxin

59
Q

Which conditions are cardiac glycosides used to treat?

A

Treatment of CHF, atrial tachycardia and fibrillation

60
Q

What are two drugs used to treat atrial arrhythmias?

A

Quinidine and propranolol

61
Q

Which two anti-arrhythmic agents are used to treat ventricular arrhythmias?

A

Lidocaine and amiodarone

62
Q

Which two drugs are used to treat bradycardia?

A

Atropine and epinephrine

63
Q

What purpose are vasodilator drugs used for?

A

Decrease blood pressure

64
Q

What vasodilator drug is used for hypertension?

A

Sodium nitroprusside (Nipride)

65
Q

What vasodilator drug is used to treat hypotension?

A

Dopamine

66
Q

What is the effect of Sodium Nitroprusside (Nipride)?

A

Decreases blood pressure

67
Q

What is the effect of Dopamine?

A

It’s used to increase blood pressure

68
Q

Which diuretic can be used for pulmonary edema, liver and kidney disease, and CHF?

A

Furosemide (Lasix)

69
Q

What are the indications for the use of sedatives?

A

Manage fear and anxiety, increase comfort while receiving mechanical ventilation, and induce sleep

70
Q

What are two examples of anesthetics used for critically ill patients?

A

Propofol (Diprivan) and Ketamine (Ketalar)

71
Q

What are two examples of narcotic analgesics?

A

Morphine and fentanyl

72
Q

What is the difference between anesthetics and analgesics?

A

Anesthetics reduce a patients ability to perceive sensations whereas analgesics reduce sensation to pain

RRT Exam (3 decks)

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