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FAA Commercial Pilot Oral Exam > Airplane Systems > Flashcards

Airplane Systems Flashcards

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1
Q

List the primary flight controls

A

(AFM/POH) Elevator, Ailerons, and Rudder

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2
Q

List the secondary flight controls

A

(AFM/POH) Flaps, Leading Edge Devices, and Spoilers

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3
Q

What are flaps and what is their purpose?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Flaps are movable panels on inboard trailing edges of wings. Purpose is to increase induced drag and lift, to permit slower airspeeds and a steeper angle of descent during a landing approach.

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4
Q

What are examples of leading edge lift devices?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)
Slots: A slow directs high-energy air from under the wing to the airflow above the wing, accelerating upper airflow, and delaying airflow separation to higher angles of attack.

Slats: Miniature airfoil mounted on leading edge and can be fixed or movable. At low angles of attack, movable slat are held flush by positive pressure. At high angles of attack, move forward by pilot or automatically by low pressure gradient. Provides same results at slows.

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5
Q

What are spoilers?

A

(FAA-H-8083-31) Spoilers are devices located on upper surface of wing and reduce lift by spoiling airflow. Can also be used as speed brakes in flight and on the ground.

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6
Q

What instruments operate from the pitot-static system

A

(FAA-H-8083-15) The pitot-static system operates the altimeter, vertical speed indicator, and airspeed indicator

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7
Q

How does an altimeter work?

A

(FAA-H-8083-15) Sensitive altimeter is an aneroid barometer that measure absolute pressure of ambient air above a selected pressure level. Sensitive element is a stack of evacuated, corrugated bronze aneroid capsules. Air pressure acting on these aneroid tries to compress them against their natural springiness.

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8
Q

Pressure altimeter is subject to what limitations?

A

(FAA-H-8083-15) Non-standard temperature and pressure

a. Temperature: Warm day pressure level is higher than on a standard day, indicates lower than actual; Cold day pressure level is lower than on a standard day, indicates higher than actual.
b. Pressure: Higher than standard, indicates lower than actual; Lower than standard, indicates higher than actual

High to Low or hot to cold, look out below!

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9
Q

What is Indicated Altitude?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Indicated altitude is the altitude read directly from the altimeter after it is set to the current altimeter setting.

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10
Q

What is Pressure Altitude?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Pressure altitude is the height above standard datum plane indicated when the altimeter setting is adjusted to 29.92”

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11
Q

What is True Altitude?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) True Altitude is the vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level

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12
Q

What is Density Altitude?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Density Altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. Directly related to aircraft’s performance.

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13
Q

What is Absolute Altitude?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Absolute Altitude is vertical distance of aircraft above terrain, or above ground level (AGL).

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14
Q

How does the airspeed indicator operate?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Airspeed indicator is a sensitive differential pressure gauge which measure the difference between impact pressure from pitot head and undisturbed pressure from the static source. Difference is airspeed.

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15
Q

What are limitations of Airspeed Indicator?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Airspeed indicator is subject to proper flow of air in the pitot-static system

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16
Q

Airspeed Indicator is subject to what errors?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)
Position Error: Caused by static ports sensing erroneous static pressure
Density Error: Changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated by instrument
Compressibility Error: Caused by packing of air into pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indication.

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17
Q

What is Indicated Airspeed (IAS)?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Indicated Airspeed is the speed read directly from the instrument without any corrections for indicator, position or compressibility errors.

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18
Q

What is Calibrated Airspeed (CAS?)

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Calibrated Airspeed is the airspeed corrected for position and instrument errors.

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19
Q

What is Equivalent Airspeed (EAS)?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Equivalent Airspeed is the airspeed corrected for position, instrument error, and for compressible flow error. Equivalent to CAS at sea level.

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20
Q

What is True Airspeed (TAS)?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) True Airspeed is Calibrated Airspeed corrected for altitude and non-standard temperature.

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21
Q

What airspeed limitation is indicated by the White Arc?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) The airspeed White Arc is the flap operating range. Lower limit is Vs0 speed, stall speed in landing configuration. Upper limit is maximum flap extended Vfe speed.

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22
Q

What airspeed limitation is indicated by the Green Arc?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) The airspeed Green Arc is the normal operating range. Lower limit is Vs1, stall speed in clean configuration. Upper limit is maximum structural cruise Vno.

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23
Q

What airspeed limitation is indicated by the Yellow Arc?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) The airspeed Yellow Arc is the caution range.

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24
Q

What airspeed limitation is indicated by the Red line?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) The airspeed Red Line is the never exceed speed, Vne.

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25
Q

What are examples of important airspeed limitations that are not marked on the airspeed indicator?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)

a. Design Maneuvering Speed, Va
b. Landing Gear Operating Speed, Vlo
c. Landing Gear Extended Speed, Vle
d. Best Angle of Climb Speed, Vx
e. Best Rate of Climb Speed, Vy

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26
Q

How does the Vertical Airspeed Indicator work?

A

(FAA-H-8083-15) The VSI is a pressure differential instrument. Inside the instrument is an aneroid, and both it and the case are vented to static system. The case is vented through a calibrated orifice that causes it to change more slowly than the aneroid.

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27
Q

What are the limitations of the Vertical Airspeed Indicator?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) The VSI is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized. Sudden or abrupt changes will cause erroneous readings as airflow fluctuates over the static port.

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28
Q

Which instruments contain gyroscopes?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Turn coordinator, heading indicator, attitude indicator.

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29
Q

What are two fundamental properties of a gyroscope?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)
Rigidity in Space: Gyroscope remains fixed in a fixed position
Precession: Turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force

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30
Q

How are gyroscopes powered?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)
Vacuum or Pressure: Heading indicator, Attitude Indicator
Electrically: Turn Coordinator

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31
Q

How does the vacuum system operate?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Air is drawn into the vacuum system by the engine driven vacuum pump. First goes through a filter, then any instruments and finally the pump.

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32
Q

How does the attitude indicator work?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) The attitude indicator’s gyro is mounted on a horizontal plane which represents the true horizon and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The gyro remains in a horizontal plane as the aircraft is pitched or banked, indicating the attitude of the aircraft relative to the true horizon.

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33
Q

What are the limits of the attitude indicator?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Pitch and bank limits depend upon make and model of the instrument. Bank limits are usually from 100° to 110°. Pitch limits are usually from 60° to 70°. If either is exceeded, the instrument will tumble or spin giving incorrect indications until reset.

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34
Q

What errors is the attitude indicator subject to?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Attitude indicator is free from most errors. Depending on the speed of the erection system, there may be a slight nose up indication during a rapid acceleration and a nose down indication during a rapid deceleration. There is a possibility of small bank and pitch error after a 180° turn. All will self correct.

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35
Q

How does the Heading Indicator operate?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) The heading indicator’s gyro is mounted on a vertical plane and is fixed to a compass card. The gyro remains fixed in the vertical plane as the aircraft yaws around its vertical axes, indicating the heading the aircraft is on.

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36
Q

What are the limits of the heading indicator?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Limits depend on the make and model of the instrument. Large pitch and banks greater than 55° may cause the instrument to indicate an incorrect heading.

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37
Q

What errors is the heading indicator subject to?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Heading indicator is subject to precession. Precession is primarily caused by friction and this will cause the heading indicator to drift from its set position. Another error is caused by the fact the gyro is oriented in space and the Earth rotates in space at a rate of 15° per hour.

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38
Q

How does the turn coordinator operate?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Turn part of the instrument uses precession to indicate direction and rate of turn. The slip/skid indicator is a liquid filled tube with a ball that reacts to centrifugal force and gravity.

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39
Q

What information does a turn coordinator provide?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Turn coordinator shows roll and yaw of the aircraft. The miniature airplane indicates the direction and rate of turn. The inclinometer indicates the coordination of the aileron and rudder, and indicates whether the airplane is in coordinated flight or in a skid or slip.

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40
Q

What will the turn coordinator indicate when the aircraft is uncoordinated?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)
Skid: Ball will be to the outside of the turn, too much rate of turn for the amount of bank
Slip: Ball will be on the inside of the turn, not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank.

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41
Q

How does magnetic compass work?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Magnetized needles fastened to a float assembly around which is mounted a compass card, align themselves parallel to earth’s line of magnetic fields. Float is housed in bowl filled with acid free white kerosene.

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42
Q

What are the limits of the magnetic compass?

A

(FAA-H-8083-15) The jewel and pivot type mounting allows the float freedom to rotate and tilt up and at steep bank angles the compass indications are erratic and upredictable.

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43
Q

What errors is the magnetic compass subject to?

A

(FAA-H-8083-15)
Oscillation Error: Erratic movement caused by turbulence or rough control
Deviation Error: Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft
Variation Error: Angular difference between true and magnetic north
Acceleration Error: On East or West headings when accelerating shows a turn to the north, when decelerating shows a turn to the south (ANDS)
Northerly Turning Error: Compass leads in south half of turn, and lags in north half of turn (UNOS)

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44
Q

What are examples of hydraulic systems on an aircraft?

A

a. Retractable landing gear
b. Brakes
c. Shock struts

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45
Q

Describe landing gear on a Piper Cherokee

A

Tricycle-type with two mains and a steerable nose wheel. Structs are air-oil type.

46
Q

Why type of engine does N41209 have

A

(AFM/POH) Lycoming O-360-A4A / A4M four cylinder, direct drive, horizontally opposed engine rated at 180 HP at 2700 RPM.

47
Q

What four stokes must occur in each cylinder of a typical four-stroke engine to produce full power?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Intake, Compression, Power, Exhaust

48
Q

Explain operation of a carburetor

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)

a. Outside air flow through an air filter
b. Filtered air flows into carburetor and through a venturi
c. When air flows through the venturi it creates a low pressure area which forces fuel to flow through a main jet in the throat
d. Fuel and air mix
e. Fuel/air mixture is drawn through the intake manifold and into each cylinder

49
Q

Explain function of the float in a float-type carburetor system

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) A float type carburetor has a chamber that contains fuel. A float with a needle attached to it rests on top of the fuel. As the float moves up and down, it opens and closes the fuel inlet metering the amount of fuel entering the chamber. The chamber has an outlet to the carburetor throat. Fuel enters the throat due to the higher pressure in the chamber than the throat. The amount of fuel is regulated by the mixture control. The fuel/air flow is controlled by the throttle.

50
Q

How does carburetor heat system work?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Carburetor heat system consists of a pilot controlled valve that allows unfiltered, heated air to enter the air manifold prior to the carburetor. The heater air enters the carburetor and can melt any ice that may be present.

51
Q

What is fuel injection?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) In a fuel injection system, fuel is injected directly into the cylinders or just ahead of the intake valve.

52
Q

What are some advantages of fuel injection?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)

  1. Reduction in evaporating icing
  2. Better fuel flow
  3. Faster throttle response
  4. Precise control of mixture
  5. Better fuel distribution
  6. Easier cold weather starts
53
Q

What are some disadvantages with fuel injection?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)

  1. Difficulty in starting a hot engine
  2. Vapor lock during ground operations on hot days
  3. Problems associated with restarting an engine that quits because of fuel starvation
54
Q

What is an alternate induction air system and when is it used?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Alternate induction air system is a device that opens to allow induction airflow to continue should the primary induction air opening become blocked.

55
Q

What is Vapor Lock?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Vapor lock is a condition in which Avgas vaporizes in the fuel line between the tank and carburetor. Typically occurs on warm days and is caused by hot fuel or low pressure. The liquid fuel vaporizes prematurely and blocks flow of liquid fuel to the carburetor.

56
Q

What does the Throttle do?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Throttle allows the pilot to control the fuel/air mixture enter the cylinders.

57
Q

What does the Mixture Control do?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Mixture Control regulates the fuel-to-air ratio. It prevents the mixture from becoming too rich at high altitude due to decreasing air density. Leaning the fuel conserves fuel and provides optimum power.

58
Q

What does a Turbocharger do?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Turbocharger consists of a compressor to provide pressurized air to the engine. By compressing the air, the turbocharged engine will maintain the preset power as altitude is increased.

59
Q

What are cowl flaps?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Cowl flaps are located on the engine cowling and allow the pilot to control the operating temperature of the engine by regulating the amount of air circulating within the engine compartment.

60
Q

When are cowl flaps used?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)

  1. Open during starting engine, taxing and during takeoff and climbing
  2. Closed anytime excessive cooling is a possibility
61
Q

What type of propeller does this aircraft have?

A

(AFM/POH) All metal 76” fixed pitch propeller

62
Q

What are the types of fixed pitch propellers?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)
Climb: lower pitch, therefore less drag. Results in higher RPM and more HP to increase performance during takeoff and climbs but decreases performance during cruising flight

Cruise: higher pitch, therefore more drag. Results in lower RPM and less HP to decrease performance during takeoff and climbs but increases efficiency during cruising flight

63
Q

Describe variable-pitch (constant-speed) propellers

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) A constant-speed propeller is a controllable-pitch propeller whose pitch is automatically varied in flight by a governor maintaining a constant RPM despite varying air loads. The governor can be controlled by the pilot so any desired blade angle setting and RPM can be achieved increasing the airplane’s efficiency.

64
Q

What does the Propeller Control do?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Propeller control adjusts a propeller governor which establishes and maintains the propeller speed.

65
Q

What is a Propeller Governor?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Propeller governor controls the flow of engine oil to or from a piston in the propeller hub.

  1. High pressure pushes piston forward, resulting in high pitch/low RPM
  2. Low pressure releases piston, resulting in low pitch/high RPM
66
Q

What is the desired propeller setting for maximum performance during takeoff?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Propeller should be set to low pitch/high RPM to produce maximum power and thrust.

67
Q

When operating an airplane with a constant-speed propeller, which condition induces the most stress on the engine?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Excessive manifold pressure raises the cylinder compression pressure, resulting in high engine temperature. High MP and low RPM can induce detonation.

68
Q

Where does the fluid used to control the constant speed propeller come from?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Engine oil is used in the propeller governor and is boosted by a pump.

69
Q

What type of fuel system does this aircraft have?

A

(AFM/POH)

  1. Two 25 gallon tanks with 24 gallons usable
  2. Three position fuel selector valve (Off, Left, Right)
  3. Engine driven fuel pump
  4. Auxiliary electric fuel pump
  5. Manual priming system
70
Q

When is the auxiliary fuel pump used?

A

(AFM/POH) During takeoff and landing, switching tanks

71
Q

What is the purpose of fuel tank vents?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) As the fuel level in the tanks decrease the venting systems provides a way of replacing fuel with outside air, preventing the formation of a vacuum.

72
Q

What is the function of the Manual Primer

A

(AFM/POH) Manual Primer assists in starting the engine. The primer draws fuel from the strainer and injects it directly into the cylinder intake ports.

73
Q

Are fuel quantity indicators accurate?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Aircraft certification rules require accuracy in fuel gauges only when they read “empty”.

74
Q

Describe the engine oil system.

A

(AFM/POH) Oil system provides engine lubrication, cooling and cleaning. Oil is provided from a sump on the bottom of the engine with a capacity of 8 quarts.

75
Q

What is the minimum and maximum oil capacities?

A

(AFM/POH) Minimum is 2 quarts and maximum is 8 quarts

76
Q

What is the minimum and maximum oil temperature range?

A

(AFM/POH) 75F to 245F

77
Q

What is the minimum and maximum oil pressure?

A

(AFM/POH) 60 to 90 PSI (Green arc), 25 to 60 PSI (Yellow arc), 25 and 90 PSI (red line)

78
Q

Describe the Electrical System on this aircraft

A

(AFM/POH) Electrical energy is provided by a 14V DC system, powered by an engine driven 60A alternator, and a 12V battery.

79
Q

Where is the battery located?

A

(AFM/POH) Battery is located behind the cargo compartment.

80
Q

How are the electrical circuits protected?

A

(AFM/POH) Most of the electrical circuits are protected from shorts by circuit breakers, or fuses or both.

81
Q

Electrical system provides power for which equipment?

A

(AFM/POH)

  1. Radios
  2. Turn coordinator
  3. Fuel gauges
  4. Pitot heat
  5. All lights
  6. Stall warning
  7. Oil gauges
  8. Starter
  9. Electric fuel pump
  10. GPS
82
Q

What does the Ammeter indicate?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25, AFM/POH) Ammeter indicates the load placed on the alternator. With all loads off, it indicates the amount of battery charging.

83
Q

What is the function of the voltage regulator?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Provides a constant, regulated voltage to the electrical bus.

84
Q

What type of ignition system does the airplane have?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Engine ignition is provided by two engine driven magnetos and two spark plugs per cylinder. Ignition system is independent of aircraft electrical system.

85
Q

What are two main advantages of a dual ignition system?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)

  1. Increased safety
  2. More complete and even combustion, and improved performance
86
Q

How does aircraft cabin heat work?

A

(AFM/POH) Fresh air is heated by an exhaust shroud and is then directed to the cabin through a series of ducts.

87
Q

What are the three main components of aircraft oxygen systems?

A

(FAA OK-09-439)

  1. Storage System
  2. Delivery System
  3. Mask or nasal cannula
88
Q

What are type of oxygen systems?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)

  1. Diluter-Demand
  2. Pressure-Demand
  3. Continuous Flow
  4. Electrical Pulse-demand
89
Q

Can any oxygen be used for aviator’s breathing oxygen?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) No. Must use aviator breathing oxygen which consists of 99.5 O2 and not more than 2mL of water per liter of oxygen.

90
Q

How does a Continuous Flow oxygen system operate?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Continuous flow oxygen system constantly provide oxygen. Typically provided to passengers and consists of a reservoir bag to collect oxygen when not inhaling.

91
Q

How does a Pressure-Demand oxygen system operate?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Oxygen is supplied to the mask under pressure at cabin altitudes above 34,000’. Pressure-demand masks create an airtight and oxygen tight seals.

92
Q

How does a Diluter-Demand oxygen system operate?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Oxygen is supplied only when the user inhales through the mask. Demand mask provides a tight seal and can be used up to 40,000’.

93
Q

How does an Electrical Pulse-Demand oxygen system operate?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Oxygen is supplied by detecting an individual’s inhalation effort and provide oxygen flow during the initial portion of inhalation. Pulse-demand systems do not waste oxygen during the breathing cycle.

94
Q

What is a pressurized aircraft?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) In a pressurized aircraft the cabin, flight compartment and baggage compartments are incorporated into a seal unit which is capable of containing air under a pressure higher than outside atmospheric pressure.
Turbine: Bleed air is used to pressurize the cabin
Piston: Air from turbocharger through a sonic venturi (flow limiter) is used to pressurize the cabin.

95
Q

What operational advantages are there in a pressurized aircraft?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)

  1. Allows aircraft to fly higher which results in better fuel economy, high speeds and avoid bad weather
  2. Maintain cabin pressure at 8,000’
  3. Prevents rapid changes in cabin altitude which may be uncomfortable to passengers and crew
  4. Permits fast exchange of air from inside to outside
96
Q

Describe typical cabin pressure control system

A

(FAA-H-8083-25) Cabin pressure control system provides cabin pressure regulation, pressure relief, vacuum relief, and means for selecting desired cabin altitude. Consists of pressure regulator, outflow valve, and safety valve.

97
Q

What are the components of a cabin pressure control system?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)

  1. Cabin Pressure regulator: controls cabin pressure to selected value and limits cabin pressure to preset differential pressure
  2. Cabin Air Pressure Safety Valve: Combination pressure relief, vacuum relief, and dump valve
  3. Instrumentation: Differential Pressure, Cabin Altimeter, Cabin Rate-of-Climb
98
Q

What is the difference between Deice System and Anti-Ice System?

A

(FAA-H-8083-25)
Deice System is used to eliminate ice that has already formed.
Anti-ice System is used to prevent formation of ice.

99
Q

What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of Airframe Ice?

A

(FAA-H-8083-31)
Pneumatic: Deice system consisting of inflatable boots attached to leading edges of wings and tail surfaces.

Hot Air: Anti-ice system that uses hot air directed from the engine to leading edges of wings and tail surfaces

100
Q

What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of Propeller Ice?

A

(FAA-H-8083-31)
Electrically Heated Boots: Heating elements incorporated into the boots which are bonded to propeller. Ice is heated up from below and thrown off.

Fluid System: Electrically driven pump which supplies a fluid to a device in the propeller spinner which distributes the fluid along the propeller by centrifugal force

101
Q

What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of Windshield Ice?

A

(FAA-H-8083-31)
Fluid System: Electrically driven pump to spray a fluid onto windshield to prevent formation of ice

Electrical System: Heating elements are embedded in windshield or device attached to windshield to prevent formation of ice

102
Q

What are Static Dischargers?

A

(FAA-H-8083-31) Static dischargers reduce radio receive interference caused by corona discharge which is emitted as a result of precipitation static. Static dischargers are usually located on trailing edges of control surfaces to discharge static at points away from radio antennas.

103
Q

What frequency band does VOR operate?

A

(AIM) VOR operate in the VHF range of 108.0 to 117.95 MHz

104
Q

What frequency band does Communication Transceivers operate?

A

(AIM) Communications transceivers operate in VHF range of 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

105
Q

What frequency band does DME receiver operate?

A

(AIM) DME receiver operates in UHF range of 960 to 1215 MHz

106
Q

What frequency band does ADF receiver operate?

A

(AIM) ADF receiver operates in LF to MF range of 190 to 530 kHz

107
Q

What frequency range does the ILS operate?

A

(AIM) ILS operates in VHF range of 108.1 to 111.95 MHz (odd tenths)

108
Q

What is the function of a magnetometer?

A

(FAA-H-8083-6) Magnetometer measures the strength of the Earth’s magnetic field to determine aircraft heading.

109
Q

Describe ADS-B System

A

(AIM 4-5-7) The Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast system automatically transmits the location of aircraft along with additional information about the aircraft to ground stations used by ATC and other ADS-B receivers.
Automatic: broadcasts position automatically
Dependent: depends on GPS
Surveillance: provides surveillance information to ATC
Broadcast: always broadcasting

110
Q

What are the two types of ADS-B equipment?

A

(AC 90-114, AIM 4-5-7)
ADS-B Out: Automatically broadcasts aircraft GPS position, velocity, altitude and other information. Required in all airspace that requires transponders

ADS-B In: Receipt, processing and display of ADS-B transmissions.

FAA Commercial Pilot Oral Exam (8 decks)

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