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Command Revision EG > Aircraft Systems > Flashcards

Aircraft Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What happens when you push the Blower pb?

What happens when you push the Extract pb?

What happens when you push both pbs?

A

When you push the blower pb
- blower fan stops
- extract fan stays on
= CLOSED SYSTEM, air con air mixes with ventilation air

When you push the extract pb
- both fans stay on
= CLOSED SYSTEM, air con air mixes with ventilation air

When you push both blower and extract pbs
- blower fan off, extract fan on
= CLOSED SYSTEM, air con air flows overboard

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2
Q

What happens in the intermediate ventilation configuration and when is it used?

A

Intermediate ventilation is used when the cabin temperature is above the threshold and needs to be cooled down IN FLIGHT ONLY

  • skin inlet closed
  • skin outlet part opened
  • airflows outboard
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3
Q

What happens in the closed ventilation configuration and when is it used?

A

Closed ventilation is used on the ground or in the air when the cabin temperature is less than threshold, eg is colder.

  • skin valves are closed
  • fans are on in the air
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4
Q

What do the FACs do? (4)

A

= flight augmentation computers

They

  • control the rudder, rudder trim and yaw damping
  • compute flight envelope and speed data
  • control the low energy warning
  • control the windshear warnings
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5
Q

What do the engine fire pbs do? (8)

A

Cancels the warning
Arms the squibs
Shut down the engine/ cuts FADEC power
Disconnect the generator

Shut the low pressure fuel valve
Shut the pack flow control valve/PFCV
Shut the hydraulics valve/HSOV
Shuts the engine bleed valve

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6
Q

What do the ADRs do?

What do the IRSs do?

A

ADRs

  • Barometric altitude
  • speeds
  • temperature
  • AoA
  • overspeeds

IRSs (= gyros)

  • attitude
  • FPV
  • track
  • acceleration and deceleration
  • ground speed
  • aircraft position
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7
Q

How is pitch controlled with the elevators and THS?

If failures occur then what controls them?

A

Pitch normally controlled by

  • ELAC 2
  • green and yellow hydraulic control the elevators
  • No 1 electric motor powers the THS

If ELAC 2 fails

  • ELAC 1 takes over
  • elevators are moved by the blue hydraulics
  • No 2 elec motor powers the THS

If both ELACs fail

  • SEC 1 or 2 takes over control
  • No 2 or 3 motor takes over
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8
Q

How does APFD TCAS work?

Once the risk is over what modes does the aircraft revert to?

When is APFD TCAS inhibited?

A

If the AP is in = the aircraft will fly the order
If the AP is off = the aircraft gives FDs for the pilot to follow

Once the risk is over the aircraft reverts into HDG VS towards the FCU altitute

APFD TCAS is inhibited below 900ft RA

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9
Q

What does the pneumatic system feed/ what is it used for? (5)

A
  • air conditioning
  • engine starting
  • wing anti ice
  • water pressurisation
  • hydraulic reservoir pressurisation

(If installed, cargo heat and fuel tank inerting)

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10
Q

Where is pneumatic air taken from?

A
  • engine IP compressor stage
  • engine HP compressor stage at low thrust settings (when IP stage pressure is too low)
  • APU compressor
  • HP ground unit/ASU
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11
Q

What characteristic speeds are computed by which computer?

A

FACs = all speeds shown on the PFD. Based on FMS weight

MCDU = all others. Based on ZFW and FoB

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12
Q

What happens in the OPEN configuration and when is it available?

A

Only available on the ground, used when the aircraft temperature is above the threshold; too hot and needs to cool down.

  • both fans are on
  • skin valves are open
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13
Q

When is windshear detection available?

What controls/generates the warning?

What does it do?

A

Windshear warning available 3 seconds after lift off to 1300ft RA on take off, and from 1300ft RA to 50ft RA on landing, in at least config 1.

Controlled by the FACs when the aircraft AoA goes beyond a threshold limit.

Gives an aural warning, FD instructions to follow in SRS mode. Pilot must set TOGA

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14
Q

When does speed change automatically from selected to managed speeds?

A
  • go around engagement
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15
Q

When does the FD vertical bar become a yaw bar and give lateral orders?

A

The PFD displays a yaw bar in green below 30 ft radio height, if a localizer signal is available:

During takeoff - RWY mode

Upon landing - FLARE and ROLL OUT modes

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16
Q

What does ATHR control when AP/FD controls vertical trajectory?

What does ATHR control when AP/FD controls speed?

What does ATHR control when there is no Ap/FD engaged?

A

When AP/FD controls vertical trajectory, ATHR is speed

When AP/FD controls speed, ATHR controls thrust

When no AP/FD is engaged, ATHR controls speed

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17
Q

What protections does SRS give and what is the target speed with 2 engines and with 1 engine?

A

SRS gives high pitch attitude protection on take off, max is 18 degrees (22.5 with windshear warning)

SRS also ensures min RoC is 1200ftpm

SRS limits the target speed to max V2 + 15

Target speed is V2 + 10 when two engines

Target speed is v2 or current speed when one engine

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18
Q

What does SRS do and when is it armed?

A
  • controls pitch and speed as defined by SRS guidance (eg take off speed = V2 + 10)
  • arms on TOGA or FLEX/MCT selection when
    1. V2 has been inserted
    2. Slats are extended
    3. Aircraft gas been on the ground for > 30 seconds
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19
Q

What Buses are you left with in the smoke configuration?

A

DC ESS BUS and AC ESS BUS (same as ELEC EMER CONFIG)

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20
Q

What does the E of EGPWS add to the system?

A

= predictive based on terrain database

= gives warnings about obstacles

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21
Q

What does the ESS transformer do?

A

Converts AC power from the emergency generator to power the DC ESS BUS.

Used when the engines and APU fail, or when TR 1 and 2 fail

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22
Q

What does the static inverter do?

A

Converts DC power into AC power and powers the AC ESS BUS when the batteries are the main power source

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23
Q

What is CIDS and what does it include?

A

= cabin intercommunication data system

= interphone
= cabin lights
= evacuation lights
= lav and cargo smoke detection

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24
Q

What is a SEC, how many are there and what do they do?

A

= Spoiler and elevator computer

= there are 3

= they give spoiler control, standby elevator control and stabiliser control.

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25
Q

What is an ELAC, how many are there and what do they do?

A

= elevator and aileron computer

= there are 2

= they give normal elevator control, aileron control and stabiliser control

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26
Q

How is roll controlled and the ailerons operated normally?

If there is a failure then what controls them?

A

Normally roll is controlled by ELAC 1 (ailerons) and all 3 SECs (spoilers)

If ELAC 1 fails, ELAC 2 takes over

If both ELACs fail, you only have damping mode in roll

If a SEC fails, those spoilers are retracted and locked on BOTH wings

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27
Q

How is yaw controlled normally?

What happens if there is a failure in the system?

A

Yaw damping and turn co-ordination is AUTOMATIC and is controlled by the ELACs

If the ELACs fail, the rudder must be manually controlled using the rudder pedals

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28
Q

Which spoilers are used as

  1. Speed brakes?
  2. Roll control?
  3. Ground spoilers?
A
  1. Speed control = 234
  2. Roll control = 2345
  3. Ground spoilers = 12345 and ailerons
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29
Q

When is the B target available?

What does it show?

A

Available when

  • in config 1, 2, or 3
  • 1 eng N1 is > 80%
  • the difference between the two N1s is >35%

Gives you the least drag on one engine for the best climb performance possible

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30
Q

What is alpha speed lock and what does it do?

When is it available?

A

When the aircraft is at low speeds or high AoAs, the aircraft inhibits slat retraction.

With flap 0 this is at 148kts or 8.5 degrees AoA

It is inhibited on the ground and when speed < 60kts

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31
Q

What is a ROW warning and what should you do when you get one?

What is a ROP warning and what should you do when you get one?

A

Runway overrun warning (=in the air)

  • if wet runway too short= if dry land if not go around
  • if runway too short = go around

Runway overrun protection (= on the ground)

  • MAX BRAKING = apply and keep max manual braking and max reverse
  • SET MAX REVERSE = apply and keep max reverse
  • KEEP MAX REVERSE = keep max reverse as long as necessary

These warnings will disappear at 70kts at which point you can set idle reverse

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32
Q

How long between an alert and the risk occuring for a TCAS TA and a TCAS RA? If

A 
TA = 40 seconds
RA = 25 seconds
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33
Q

What does the pressurisation mode selector pb to manual do?

A
  • gives pilot manual control of the the pressurisation
  • cuts power to the outflow valve automatic motors (x2) NB the outflow valve will NOT open automatically on landing
  • only the manual motor will now work and is slower
34
Q

What does the APU bleed pb do when selected on?

A
  • allows the APU to supply bleed air
  • opens the cross bleed valve
  • closes the engine bleed valves
35
Q

Which side of the aircraft fuels the APU?

A

The left hand side

36
Q

What hydraulic system powers the cargo doors?

A

The yellow hydraulics (or the yellow hyd hand pump)

37
Q

What type of engines are the CEOs.

A

High bypass ratio turbofan engines

38
Q

What are the 5 basic modes of GPWS?

A
  1. Excessive descent below the glideslope
  2. Terrain clearance not sufficient if not in landing config
  3. Excessive rate of descent detection
  4. Excessive terrain closure rate
  5. Altitude loss after take off or go around
39
Q

How many of each type of probe are there?

  • pitot
  • static
  • AoA
  • TaT
A
  • pitot = 3
  • static =6
  • AoA=3
  • TaT =2
40
Q

What is N1?

What is N2?

A

N1 is the engine speed at the fan stage

N2 is the engine speed at the HP rotor stage

41
Q

What does the engine accessory gear box drive? (6)

A
  1. Pneumatic starter for the Engine start sequence
  2. Engine driven hydraulic pumps (green and yellow)
  3. Engine fuel pump into the combustion chamber
  4. FADEC alternator (powers it),
  5. Oil feeding pump for the engine oil system
  6. Engine generators
42
Q

What does the engine master switch do when turned off?

A
  • closes the LP fuel shut off valve
  • closes the HP fuel shut off valve
  • closes the fuel return valve
  • opens the fuel bypass valve
43
Q

What is the engine start sequence?

What are the parameters to check for when its finished?

A

Mode selector to ignition
Engine master switch to on = N2 spools up
When N2 = 16% the ignition turns on
When N2 = 22% the HP fuel valve opens and the fuel flow starts
When N2 = 50% the ignition turns off and N1 begins to increase.

When it’s finished you are looking for:
CEO. NEO
- N1 20%. 2. 2
- N2 60%. 6. 5
- EGT 400 degrees. 4. 7
- FF 300kgph. 3. 3

44
Q

When are both igniters used?

A
  • first start of the day/ cold start
  • following a failed start
  • any manual start
  • any start in flight with the engine master ON
45
Q

How many pumps does each hydraulic system have?

A

Green = 1, 1 engine driven pump

Blue = 2, 1 electric pump and 1 emergency generator driven pump

Yellow = 3, 1 engine driven pump, 1 electric pump and 1 hand pump

46
Q

What is the standard hydraulic system pressure?

When does the PTU come on?

A

Standard pressure = 3000 psi (or 2500 psi when the RAT is powering the aircraft)

The PTU comes on when the difference in pressure between the green and yellow systems is greater than 500 psi

47
Q

What happens to Wing anti ice and Engine anti ice if electrical power fails?

A

Wing anti ice valve closes

Engine anti ice valve remains open

48
Q

Which DMC usually controls the ECAM?

What takes over if it fails?

A

DMC 1 usually powers the ECAM

If DMC1 fails, DMC2 takes over

49
Q

When is the take off inhibit active?

A

= stages 3,4 and 5

= from the first engine being powered to 1500ft RA

50
Q

When is the landing inhibit active?

A

= stages 7 and 8

= from 800ft RA to 80kts groundspeed

51
Q

What is the fuel feeding sequence?

A
  1. The inner tanks feed the engines until 500kg have been used
  2. The center tank then feeds the engine via its 1 pump until it is empty
  3. The inner tanks then feed the engines until they reach 750kg
  4. At this point the outer tanks drain into the inner tanks via the transfer valves and the engines continue to be fed by the inner tanks

NB the transfer valves are latched open until the next refuelling.

52
Q

Which hydraulic system controls the;

  • gears and gear doors
  • Nose wheel steering
  • normal braking
  • alternate braking
  • parking brake
A
  • gears and gear doors = green hydraulics
  • Nose wheel steering = yellow hydraulics
  • normal braking = green hydraulics
  • alternate braking = yellow hydraulics
  • parking brake = yellow hydraulics
53
Q

What does the APU fire pb do. (8)

A
  • cancels the warning
  • shuts off the APU
  • disconnects the APU generator
  • arms the squibs
  • shuts the APU fuel pump
  • shuts the LP fuel pump
  • shuts the APU bleed valve
  • closes the crossbleed valve
54
Q

When do you set low on the pack flow dial?

When is high flow delivered by the system?

A

Pack flow low when < 130 pax

High flow given when;

  • high flow selected
  • 1 pack operations
  • when the APU is supplying the bleed air
55
Q

When does the RAM air inlet flap open and close?

What does it do?

A
  • It closes on take off when take off power is set and the main landing gear are compressed
  • it closes on landing when the main landing gear are compressed at < 70kts, and it opens again 20 seconds later.

The ram air inlet provides ambient air to the mixing unit in an emergency and it ventilates the cockpit and cabin when smoke is present or if both packs have failed.

NB the ram air inlet will not provide air in any circumstance if the differential pressure is greater than 1 psi (outflow valve doesn’t open)

56
Q

When does the pack flow control valve close automatically?

A
  • on engine start
  • when the fire pb is pressed
  • when the ditching pb is pressed
  • when the pack overheats (on the ground only)
57
Q

What controls the hot air pressure regulating valve?

When does it close automatically?

A

Electronically controlled by ACSC 1 but pneumatically operated

It closes automatically when;

  • both cabin TAVs fail
  • the cockpit TAV fails
  • the duct overheats
58
Q

What are the 6 modes of the pressurisation system?

What happens in them?

A
  1. Ground mode, the outflow valve fully opens
  2. Pre-pressurisation, 400ftpm RoC to 0.1psi to prevent a surge on take off
  3. Climb, a fixed programme
  4. Cruise, max cabin alt is 8000ft
  5. Descent, max RoD is 750ftpm to be 0.1psi on landing
  6. Aborted landing, prevents the cabin from climbing, stays at 0.1psi
59
Q

What does the ditching pb do? (4)

A
  • closes the ram air inlet
  • closes the outflow valve
  • closes the avionics inlet and outlet valves
  • closes the pack flow control valves
60
Q

How is Vapp calculated?

What can’t Vapp be less than?

A

Vapp = Vls + wind correction (min 5 max 15ktw)

Vapp can’t be less than Vls + 5, or Vls + 10 a319 flap 3 with ice accretion

61
Q

Why does the center tank only feed the engines once the inner tanks have used 500kg of fuel?

A

This is to prevent overspill of fuel as it is recirculated into the outer tanks from the IDG heat exchanger. The outer tanks either overspill into the inner tanks via a spill pipe if there is space, or overboard.

62
Q

What amber ECAM cautions would you stop for on a take off above 100kts?

A
  • engine fail
  • thrust lever fault
  • sidestick fault
  • reverser fault
  • reverser unlocked
63
Q

When does the safety valve open?

A

when cabin differential pressure is Between 8.2 and 8.9 psi

Reduces accuracy and a drop in cabin pressure when the valve opens means no precise number

64
Q

What happens in ground mode?

A
  • Pitch input = direct
  • roll input = direct dependent upon aircraft speed
  • No autotrim
  • The aircraft automatically sets the THS at 0 degrees
  • when the aircraft reaches 75kts on take off the system reduced max up elevator from 30 to 20 degrees
  • NO PROTECTIONS
65
Q

What happens in flight mode?

A
  • pitch input = load factor
  • roll input = rate of roll
  • autotrim available
  • a neutral stick will maintain 1g in pitch
  • all protections available
  • with AP engaged you have no pitch attitude protection (check dad)
66
Q

What happens in flare mode?

A
  • flare mode becomes active on passing 50ft RA on landing
  • pitch input = direct
  • roll input = rate of roll
  • the THS is frozen and the aircraft memorised the attitude at 50ft RA. As the aircraft descends through 30ft RA the aircraft reduces the pitch attitude to -2 degrees over 8 seconds. This creates the need for the pilot to flare.
  • the only protection available is AoA protection
67
Q

What parts of the aircraft are pressurised?

A

Cockpit
Cabin
Cargo bays

68
Q

Which parts of the aircraft aren’t pressurised?

A 
Nose cone
Nose gear bay
Main gear bays
Radome
Tailcone
Air conditioning compartment
69
Q

Which parts of the aircraft are ventilated?

A

Avionics compartment
Toilets
Galleys
Batteries

70
Q

When is windshear detection available?

A

In at least config 1 from 3 seconds after lift off to 1300ftRA, and from 1300ft RA to 50ft RA on landing

71
Q

When do you get an engine vibration advisory?

A

N1 greater than or equal to 6

N2 greater than or equal to 4.3

72
Q

What is aileron droop?

A

When the flaps are extended the ailerons extend downwards by 10 degrees

73
Q

What colour CBs are monitored?

What colour CBs arent monitored?

A

Green = monitored

Black = not monitored

74
Q

When will you get the fuel imbalance advisory?

A

1500kg of difference between the two wings

75
Q

Why with a G and B hyd failure do you put the landing gear down at 200kts?

A

You have no ailerons and only one elevator so by entering direct law sooner you have better pitch control sooner

76
Q

Which switch on the overhead bleed panel is guarded and why?

A

= ram air pb

Guarded as it can control the outflow valve and affect pressurisation

77
Q

What does the ram air pb do?

A
  • opens the ram air inlet
  • if diff pressure is less than 1 the outflow valve will also open to 50% and emergency ram air will be added to the mixer unit
78
Q

How is the correct temperature achieved from the packs?

A

The ACSC regulates the temperature of its associated pack using the bypass valve and the ram air inlet flap.

Bypass valve indictated on ECAM as hot = open. Cold = closed

79
Q

What kind of electricity does the generators (all 3) provide?

What about the emergency generator?

A

115/200v
3 phase
400hz

In 90kva

The emergency generator is the same except 5kva

80
Q

How does the RAT generate power?

A

The RAT powers a blue hydraulic pump which powers an electrical generator.

81
Q

What hydraulics control the ailerons?

A

Blue and green

Command Revision EG (13 decks)

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