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DO-328 Prep > Aircraft General > Flashcards

Aircraft General Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum number of occupants including crew?

A

37

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2
Q

How many infants may occupy the cabin and which seats can they not be seated in?

A

Up to three infants, may only occupy LH seats except the first row and the row at the type III exit.

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3
Q

Max Ramp Weight, Mod 10?

A

34,789 lbs

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4
Q

Max Ramp Weight, Mod 00?

A

33,510 lbs

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5
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight, Mod 10?

A

34,524 lbs

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6
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight, Mod 00?

A

33,510 lbs

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7
Q

Maximum Landing Weight, Mod 10?

A

31,724 lbs

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8
Q

Maximum Landing Weight, Mod 00?

A

31,063 lbs

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9
Q

MZFW, Mod 10?

A

28,814 lbs

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10
Q

MZFW, Mod 00?

A

27,800 lbs

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11
Q

Minimum Flight Weight?

A

21,164 lbs

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12
Q

Taxi operations should be conducted with the landing gear shock absorbers serviced for cold weather operations below what temperature?

A

-4F or -20C

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13
Q

Maximum baggage FWD?

A

882 lbs

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14
Q

Maximum baggage AFT?

A

771 lbs

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15
Q

Baggage exceeding ____ lbs must be tied down

A

110 lbs

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16
Q

Maximum floor load in the baggage compartment?

A

75 lb/ft

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17
Q

VMO?

A

Sea level to 8,000: 270 KIAS
8,000 to 10,000: 270 KIAS increasing to 300 KIAS
Above 10,000: 300 KIAS

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18
Q

Rough Air Penetration Speed?

A

200 knots or M0.50, whichever is lower

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19
Q

Minimum cruise speed below SAT -55C?

A

M0.56, if:
- Wing tank fuel temp prior to takeoff is at or above +8C OR takeoff fuel quantity less than 2,250 lbs per wing.

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20
Q

What is VA?

A

190 KIAS

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21
Q

Maximum Flap Extension VFE?

A

Flaps 12: 205 MOD 10, 200 MOD 00
Flaps 20: 180
Flaps 32: 160

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22
Q

VLE?

A

200 KIAS

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23
Q

If landing gear is extended for emergency descent above FL310, what is VLO?

A

MMO or 241 KIAS

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24
Q

If the landing gear is extended for emergency descent above FL310, what is VLE?

A

35,000 down to 25,000: MMO
25,000 down to 23,000: 275 KIAS
23,000 to 18,000: 275 KIAS descreasing to 200 KIAS

FCOM 01-06-00

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25
Q

Maximum speed for landing gear retraction from sea level to FL350?

A

200 KIAS

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26
Q

Maximum Tire Speed

A

180 knots GS

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27
Q

Maximum Wiper Operating

A

166 KIAS

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28
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude?

A

FL310 or FL350, depending on the mod.

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29
Q

Maximum altitude for takeoff and landing?

A

8,000 MSL or 9,200 MSL with high altitude mod

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30
Q

Maximum operating time above 27,000 in a FL310 aircraft

A

Limited to less than 3 hours

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31
Q

Maximum altitude with flaps extended?

A

18,000 feet

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32
Q

Maximum altitude for gear operation?

A

18,000 feet

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33
Q

Maximum precip depth for operation on precip. covered runways?

A

15mm (0.6in)

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34
Q

Maximum runway slope for T/O and LNDG?

A

2% uphill and downhill

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35
Q

Maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing?

A

10 knots

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36
Q

Maximum demonstrated wind for taxiing

A

40 knots

37
Q

The aircraft should be taxied with the gust lock engaged when the winds are about ____

A

52 kts

38
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind component?

A

24 knots

39
Q

Load factor limits?

A

-1.0 to +2.65 with flaps retracted
0.0 to +2.00 with flaps extended

40
Q

One full thrust takeoff must be demonstrated at least every ____ flight hours

A

60

41
Q

When is a reduced thrust takeoff prohibited?

A

1) On contaminated runways
2) If the airplane was treated with de/anti-icing Type II or IV fluids
3) If icing conditions exist on takeoff
4) On narrow runways (<98 ft)
5) When windshear conditions are predicted
6) When using APU bleed for ECS operation
7) If periodical checks do not verify the avail of max rated takeoff thrust
8) If obstacle height along the takeoff flight path exceeds 1,500 ft

42
Q

Which visual cues can be used to determine severe icing conditions?

A

1) Unusually extensive ice accreted on the airframe in areas not normally observed to collect ice
2) On the front or side windows, translucent or opaque ice layers building up within a few minutes after exposure near the window frames
3) On the lower wing surface, accumulation of ice on the lower surface of the wing aft of the prohibited area

43
Q

Can the autopilot be used when in severe icing?

A

No

44
Q

Can the autopilot be used when an AIL MISTRIM caution message appears in icing conditions?

A

No

45
Q

Above what temperature should the engine anti-icing system not be activated while stationary on the ground?

A

15C OAT

46
Q

Do not activate the airfoil boots below ____

A

-40C

47
Q

While on the ground, if one deice shutoff valve is closed or one engine is shut down, can the boots be operated?

A

Not in ground idle

48
Q

Must both wing inspection lights be operative prior to flight into icing conditions?

A

At night, yes

49
Q

Must both wing inspection lights be operative prior to flight at night?

A

No. Only for flight into icing conditions at night

50
Q

What is the maximum ITT for T/O power and what is the time limit?

A

920C, limited to 5 minutes during 2-engine operation, continuous during single engine operation

51
Q

What is the min. oil temperature for takeoff?

A

16C, 21C is recommended by P&W, 26C KLA SOP

52
Q

What is the maximum ITT for engine start?

A

950C

53
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start?

A

-40C

54
Q

Oil pressure should indicate a steady increase within how many seconds after initiation of the engine start sequence?

A

20 seconds

55
Q

What are the air turbine starter limitations?

A

Two starting cycles are permitted within 10 minutes, each cycle not exceeding 45 seconds. Minimum cooling time thereafter is 10 minutes. A maximum of 2 minutes accumulated motoring time is permitted. Minimum cooling time thereafter is 20 minutes. If an engine start is unsuccessful, an engine ventilation cycle can be performed before the second engine start is attempted. In this case, it is allowed to exceed the 2 minute limit.

56
Q

After an unsuccessful engine start attempt, how long must you wait until a restart is attempted?

A

None

57
Q

What is the minimum fuel tank temperature limit?

A

The fuel freezing point, but not less than -54C

58
Q

What is the fuel freezing point of Jet A?

A

-40C

59
Q

What is the SAT MIN of Jet A?

A

-48C

60
Q

What is required in order to operate below -48C SAT

A

The freezing point of the fuel must be -46C or below

61
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance between LH and RH wing tang groups?

A

310 lbs

62
Q

When is fuel crossbleed prohibited?

A

During normal operation or for fuel balancing purposes , it is prohibited to perform crossfeed during takeoff, approach and landing

63
Q

What is the maximum fueling pressure below 7,800 lbs?

A

50 psi

64
Q

What is the maximum fueling pressure above 7,800 lbs?

A

20 psi

65
Q

What is the maximum defueling pressure?

A

-10 psi

66
Q

What is the minimum SAT for fuel system operation?

A

-63C

67
Q

What is the unusable fuel in the affected feeder tank if the LH or RH ELPMP or jet pump is inoperative?

A

30 lbs

68
Q

What is the unusable fuel in the affected wing if a FUEL QTY FAIL or FUEL TRANSFER caution appears?

A

200 lbs

69
Q

What is the maximum altitude for landing gear operation?

A

18,000 ft

70
Q

When can the landing gear be extended above its normal certified maximum altitude?

A

Emergency descent above 31,000 ft

71
Q

What indicates the brake temperatures are too high for takeoff?

A

A BRK TEMP HIGH caution message is displayed on the CAS field

72
Q

When must the flight time be at least 15 minutes when operating the CPCS in AUTO mode?

A

When the LFE exceeds the takeoff field elevation by more than 1,500 ft

73
Q

Maximum differential pressure?

A

FL310 aircraft: 6.90 PSI
FL350 aircraft: 7.60 PSI

74
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure for landing?

A

0.40 PSI

75
Q

What is the maximum altitude for ECS single pack operation?

A

25,000 ft

76
Q

What is the maximum altitude for ECS operation on APU bleed only, in the case of total loss of main engine bleed?

A

17,000 ft

77
Q

When must the ECS FLOW mode be set to HIGH?

A

Up to FL310: 24 or more pax
Above FL310: 22 or more pax

78
Q

What are autopilot minimum use heights?

A

Precision APP: 100 ft AGL
Non-Precision APP: 200 ft AGL
Climb, Cruise and Descent: 500 ft AGL

79
Q

Which two caution messages would prohibit use of the autopilot?

A

RUDDER NOT LIMITED AND RUDDER LIMIT FAIL

80
Q

If an AHRS fails, how is the autopilot minimum use height affected?

A

The minimum use height for climb, cruise and descent will be raised to 1000 ft AGL

81
Q

If PFD or ATT failures exist, how is the autopilot minimum use height affected?

A

Minimum use height will be raised to 500 ft AGL

82
Q

If a DR or DGRAD annuniciation appears on the FMS, how is our navigation affected?

A

The FMS cannot be used for RNAV operation

83
Q

Takeoff is not permitted if the attitude difference between both PFD’s and the standby attitude indicator is how many degrees?

A

3 or more

84
Q

Which equipment is required to be installed for operation in RVSM airspace?

A

1 autopilot, 1 transponder, 2 ADCs, 1 FWC and 1 FCU

85
Q

When must the FMS approach annunciator be illuminated in order to continue an FMS approach procedure?

A

At the FAF

86
Q

Can a localizer approach be flown using the FMS for guidance?

A

No

87
Q

If landing at an airport not contained in the EGPWS Airport Database, what must be done to avoid unwanted alerts from the EGPWS?

A

The terrain awareness and display function must be inhibited on the MFD DISPLAY menu page.

88
Q

What are the memory items for a rejected takeoff?

A

Immediately and simultaneously:
a. THRUST levers (both)… IDLE
b. GND SPOILER…Check - if not deployed manual deploy
c. MAX BRAKING…Apply - until airplane is safely stopped

DO-328 Prep (20 decks)

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