Aircraft General Flashcards
1
Q
Maximum number of occupants including crew?
A
37
2
Q
How many infants may occupy the cabin and which seats can they not be seated in?
A
Up to three infants, may only occupy LH seats except the first row and the row at the type III exit.
3
Q
Max Ramp Weight, Mod 10?
A
34,789 lbs
4
Q
Max Ramp Weight, Mod 00?
A
33,510 lbs
5
Q
Maximum Takeoff Weight, Mod 10?
A
34,524 lbs
6
Q
Maximum Takeoff Weight, Mod 00?
A
33,510 lbs
7
Q
Maximum Landing Weight, Mod 10?
A
31,724 lbs
8
Q
Maximum Landing Weight, Mod 00?
A
31,063 lbs
9
Q
MZFW, Mod 10?
A
28,814 lbs
10
Q
MZFW, Mod 00?
A
27,800 lbs
11
Q
Minimum Flight Weight?
A
21,164 lbs
12
Q
Taxi operations should be conducted with the landing gear shock absorbers serviced for cold weather operations below what temperature?
A
-4F or -20C
13
Q
Maximum baggage FWD?
A
882 lbs
14
Q
Maximum baggage AFT?
A
771 lbs
15
Q
Baggage exceeding ____ lbs must be tied down
A
110 lbs
16
Q
Maximum floor load in the baggage compartment?
A
75 lb/ft
17
Q
VMO?
A
Sea level to 8,000: 270 KIAS
8,000 to 10,000: 270 KIAS increasing to 300 KIAS
Above 10,000: 300 KIAS
18
Q
Rough Air Penetration Speed?
A
200 knots or M0.50, whichever is lower
19
Q
Minimum cruise speed below SAT -55C?
A
M0.56, if:
- Wing tank fuel temp prior to takeoff is at or above +8C OR takeoff fuel quantity less than 2,250 lbs per wing.
20
Q
What is VA?
A
190 KIAS
21
Q
Maximum Flap Extension VFE?
A
Flaps 12: 205 MOD 10, 200 MOD 00
Flaps 20: 180
Flaps 32: 160
22
Q
VLE?
A
200 KIAS
23
Q
If landing gear is extended for emergency descent above FL310, what is VLO?
A
MMO or 241 KIAS
24
Q
If the landing gear is extended for emergency descent above FL310, what is VLE?
A
35,000 down to 25,000: MMO
25,000 down to 23,000: 275 KIAS
23,000 to 18,000: 275 KIAS descreasing to 200 KIAS
FCOM 01-06-00
25
Maximum speed for landing gear retraction from sea level to FL350?
200 KIAS
26
Maximum Tire Speed
180 knots GS
27
Maximum Wiper Operating
166 KIAS
28
Maximum Operating Altitude?
FL310 or FL350, depending on the mod.
29
Maximum altitude for takeoff and landing?
8,000 MSL or 9,200 MSL with high altitude mod
30
Maximum operating time above 27,000 in a FL310 aircraft
Limited to less than 3 hours
31
Maximum altitude with flaps extended?
18,000 feet
32
Maximum altitude for gear operation?
18,000 feet
33
Maximum precip depth for operation on precip. covered runways?
15mm (0.6in)
34
Maximum runway slope for T/O and LNDG?
2% uphill and downhill
35
Maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing?
10 knots
36
Maximum demonstrated wind for taxiing
40 knots
37
The aircraft should be taxied with the gust lock engaged when the winds are about ____
52 kts
38
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind component?
24 knots
39
Load factor limits?
-1.0 to +2.65 with flaps retracted
0.0 to +2.00 with flaps extended
40
One full thrust takeoff must be demonstrated at least every ____ flight hours
60
41
When is a reduced thrust takeoff prohibited?
1) On contaminated runways
2) If the airplane was treated with de/anti-icing Type II or IV fluids
3) If icing conditions exist on takeoff
4) On narrow runways (<98 ft)
5) When windshear conditions are predicted
6) When using APU bleed for ECS operation
7) If periodical checks do not verify the avail of max rated takeoff thrust
8) If obstacle height along the takeoff flight path exceeds 1,500 ft
42
Which visual cues can be used to determine severe icing conditions?
1) Unusually extensive ice accreted on the airframe in areas not normally observed to collect ice
2) On the front or side windows, translucent or opaque ice layers building up within a few minutes after exposure near the window frames
3) On the lower wing surface, accumulation of ice on the lower surface of the wing aft of the prohibited area
43
Can the autopilot be used when in severe icing?
No
44
Can the autopilot be used when an AIL MISTRIM caution message appears in icing conditions?
No
45
Above what temperature should the engine anti-icing system not be activated while stationary on the ground?
15C OAT
46
Do not activate the airfoil boots below ____
-40C
47
While on the ground, if one deice shutoff valve is closed or one engine is shut down, can the boots be operated?
Not in ground idle
48
Must both wing inspection lights be operative prior to flight into icing conditions?
At night, yes
49
Must both wing inspection lights be operative prior to flight at night?
No. Only for flight into icing conditions at night
50
What is the maximum ITT for T/O power and what is the time limit?
920C, limited to 5 minutes during 2-engine operation, continuous during single engine operation
51
What is the min. oil temperature for takeoff?
16C, 21C is recommended by P&W, 26C KLA SOP
52
What is the maximum ITT for engine start?
950C
53
What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start?
-40C
54
Oil pressure should indicate a steady increase within how many seconds after initiation of the engine start sequence?
20 seconds
55
What are the air turbine starter limitations?
Two starting cycles are permitted within 10 minutes, each cycle not exceeding 45 seconds. Minimum cooling time thereafter is 10 minutes. A maximum of 2 minutes accumulated motoring time is permitted. Minimum cooling time thereafter is 20 minutes. If an engine start is unsuccessful, an engine ventilation cycle can be performed before the second engine start is attempted. In this case, it is allowed to exceed the 2 minute limit.
56
After an unsuccessful engine start attempt, how long must you wait until a restart is attempted?
None
57
What is the minimum fuel tank temperature limit?
The fuel freezing point, but not less than -54C
58
What is the fuel freezing point of Jet A?
-40C
59
What is the SAT MIN of Jet A?
-48C
60
What is required in order to operate below -48C SAT
The freezing point of the fuel must be -46C or below
61
What is the maximum fuel imbalance between LH and RH wing tang groups?
310 lbs
62
When is fuel crossbleed prohibited?
During normal operation or for fuel balancing purposes , it is prohibited to perform crossfeed during takeoff, approach and landing
63
What is the maximum fueling pressure below 7,800 lbs?
50 psi
64
What is the maximum fueling pressure above 7,800 lbs?
20 psi
65
What is the maximum defueling pressure?
-10 psi
66
What is the minimum SAT for fuel system operation?
-63C
67
What is the unusable fuel in the affected feeder tank if the LH or RH ELPMP or jet pump is inoperative?
30 lbs
68
What is the unusable fuel in the affected wing if a FUEL QTY FAIL or FUEL TRANSFER caution appears?
200 lbs
69
What is the maximum altitude for landing gear operation?
18,000 ft
70
When can the landing gear be extended above its normal certified maximum altitude?
Emergency descent above 31,000 ft
71
What indicates the brake temperatures are too high for takeoff?
A BRK TEMP HIGH caution message is displayed on the CAS field
72
When must the flight time be at least 15 minutes when operating the CPCS in AUTO mode?
When the LFE exceeds the takeoff field elevation by more than 1,500 ft
73
Maximum differential pressure?
FL310 aircraft: 6.90 PSI
FL350 aircraft: 7.60 PSI
74
What is the maximum differential pressure for landing?
0.40 PSI
75
What is the maximum altitude for ECS single pack operation?
25,000 ft
76
What is the maximum altitude for ECS operation on APU bleed only, in the case of total loss of main engine bleed?
17,000 ft
77
When must the ECS FLOW mode be set to HIGH?
Up to FL310: 24 or more pax
Above FL310: 22 or more pax
78
What are autopilot minimum use heights?
Precision APP: 100 ft AGL
Non-Precision APP: 200 ft AGL
Climb, Cruise and Descent: 500 ft AGL
79
Which two caution messages would prohibit use of the autopilot?
RUDDER NOT LIMITED AND RUDDER LIMIT FAIL
80
If an AHRS fails, how is the autopilot minimum use height affected?
The minimum use height for climb, cruise and descent will be raised to 1000 ft AGL
81
If PFD or ATT failures exist, how is the autopilot minimum use height affected?
Minimum use height will be raised to 500 ft AGL
82
If a DR or DGRAD annuniciation appears on the FMS, how is our navigation affected?
The FMS cannot be used for RNAV operation
83
Takeoff is not permitted if the attitude difference between both PFD's and the standby attitude indicator is how many degrees?
3 or more
84
Which equipment is required to be installed for operation in RVSM airspace?
1 autopilot, 1 transponder, 2 ADCs, 1 FWC and 1 FCU
85
When must the FMS approach annunciator be illuminated in order to continue an FMS approach procedure?
At the FAF
86
Can a localizer approach be flown using the FMS for guidance?
No
87
If landing at an airport not contained in the EGPWS Airport Database, what must be done to avoid unwanted alerts from the EGPWS?
The terrain awareness and display function must be inhibited on the MFD DISPLAY menu page.
88
What are the memory items for a rejected takeoff?
Immediately and simultaneously:
a. THRUST levers (both)... IDLE
b. GND SPOILER...Check - if not deployed manual deploy
c. MAX BRAKING...Apply - until airplane is safely stopped
