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Solo Quiz > AirA SI (OPS) 3-6 General Flying Procedures > Flashcards

AirA SI (OPS) 3-6 General Flying Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What are the wind limitations for ejection considerations? Who requires approval for this to occur?

A
  • Steady wind strength 30 kts or gusting above 35 kts

- OC AirA or delegate approval is required if this is exceeded.

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2
Q

What are the wind limitations for TO and Landing ?

A
  • 10 kts downwind

- 24 kts crosswind

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3
Q

What is the minimum runway length? How does it change with altitude increase?

A
  • 5000 ft or longer unless specifically authorized and flight performance is suitable.
  • 5% increase for every 1000 ft AMSL
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4
Q

What must checklist items in bold be performed? What about asterisked items?

A
  • Bold items are said out loud if both seats are occupied
  • Asterisked items are items that need to be verbalized and then say “Check rear” where the rear occupant will complete the item of the checklist then verbally respond with “Checked rear”
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5
Q

What is maximum ramp weight? Max weight at TO?

A 
MRW = 3120 kg
MTOW = 3100 kg in clean config
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6
Q

For training sorties when the aircraft is operated either solo or dual, with covers and blankets in the baggage compartment, is the A/C within weight limits?

A

Yes

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7
Q

How should the PSP deployment be selected?

A

To ‘Auto’ unless enroute considerations warrants ‘MAN’ selection

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8
Q

What is ISS set to when front seat is occupied by unqualified pilot? What about for SOLO ops?

A
  • REAR for unqualified pilot in front seat

- INDEPENDENT for Solo ops

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9
Q

Under what circumstances can the CFS pin be kept in until canopy is closed and locked?

A

For wet weather ops to minimize water ingress during inclement weather.

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10
Q

What are the 3 safety precautions that should be kept before the canopy is closed with CFS pin removed?

A

1) Aircraft occupants wearing flying gloves, arms covered, collar and front zip raised to provide neck protection, helmet with oxygen mask on faces and visor lowered
2) Visually checked that the CFS striker plate is clear of obstruction
3) Signal ground handler when applicable and verify personelle are clear of CFS danger area.

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11
Q

How should each pilot check the pins?

A
  • Each pilot checks that both are in the coaming.
  • Rear pilot should stow the rear seat pin with the T perpendicular to the coaming to enable the front pilot to sign the rear pin using front cockpit mirror.
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12
Q

What should be avoided with the canopy lock mechanism?

A

Ensure that elbows or any other item are not resting on the canopy rail.

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13
Q

Can aircraft be taxied under the parking shelter with seat pins live?

A

No

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14
Q

What are ground crew signals with regards to seat pins in stowage area?

A

1) By Day: Horizontal arm signal means seat pin is still in the stowage area.
2) By night, same signal using wands

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15
Q

What does a thumbs up from ground crew mean with regards to seat pins in stowage area? How should pilot respond?

A
  • Thumbs up means ground crew cannot see any seat pins in the stowage areas
  • If true, pilots should respond with thumbs up, if not true pilots should respond with thumbs down and immediately correct.
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16
Q

What are dropped seat pin procedures?

A

1) Aircraft taxied to designated dropped pin parking location
2) Flight line is to be contacted via radio and advised that a seat pin has been dropped and aircraft is proceeding to dropped pin parking location.
3) Maintenance personelle will meet the A/C with a spare pin.

17
Q

How should instructor switch be set for dual and solo operations? What flag will be displayed on the PFD for SOLO ops?

A
  • For dual, set to where the aircraft captain is sitting

- For solo, set to SOLO - SG1 flag will appear on PFD indicating that rear PFD is not available.

18
Q

Should external power be connected?

A

Yes whenever practical to do so.

19
Q

As propeller unfeathers on engine start, what should pilot do with the brakes?

A

Pump them as hydraulic pressure comes up.

20
Q

When can manual engine start be done?

A

Only with specific OC AirA approval.

21
Q

Is landing gear down tone transmitted on COMM1 or COMM 2?

A

Only COMM1.

22
Q

How should TAWS be selected?

A

OFF

23
Q

What is the taxi speed in the parking area? What about on taxiways? What should pilot use for speed assessment?

A
  • 10 kts max in parking area
  • 20 kts max on taxiways
  • Pilot to use visual cues as primary speed assessment, ground speed on PFD as secondary speed assessment.
24
Q

What is the minimum distance between taxiing aircraft?

A
  • Minimum 50 m between A/C, 100m if FOD is a hazard (will also minimize exhaust efflux ingestion into the OBOGS system).
25
Q

Is the PC-21 cleared to trampled a deployed arrestor cable? What should pilot do if one is present?

A
  • No it is not.

- Pilot shall adjust the TO and land point if one is deployed.

26
Q

Are crews to ride the brakes outside of the flight line?

A

No

27
Q

For circuit operations, how should ALT selector and RADALT be set?

A

1000 ft above the clearance limit with the RADALT set to 0 ft.

28
Q

When should spin recovery be initiated by? What about recovery from nose low unusual attitude?

A
  • Initial recovery not below 6000 ft HAOW 600m

- Nose low attitude recovery completed by 3000 ft HAOW 600m

29
Q

When should spin recovery be initiated WRT cloud?

A
  • Initiated NB 6000 ft above cloud, with recovery completed by 3000 ft AC.
30
Q

What vertical clearance should be maintained for all other aerobatic maneovres?

A

VMC vertical clearance.

31
Q

For max performance handling, what two stall characteristics should A/C be flown?

A

Between stall warning and pre-stall buffet

32
Q

What is PC-21 speed restriction below 2000 ft? Why is this?

A
  • 300 KIAS below 2000 ft due to bird hazards and PC-21 only being able to handle 1kg bird at 300 kts
  • Can reduce considering increased bird strike risk.
33
Q

Should landing gear down tone and final checks be completed for all touch and go and full stop landings?

A

Yes

34
Q

During a touch and go landing, when should full power be applied by? What should be done if this can’t be made?

A
  • With no less than 4000 ft runway remaining

- Aborted TO should be carried out if cannot be done to ensure sufficient runway to abort.

35
Q

Can A/C attempt full stop landings whilst conducting Ail/Trim power off training?

A

No, unless its an emergency.

36
Q

During braking when antiskid is operating, when should braking be reduced?

A
  • Before 25 kts to ensure wheels do not lock when anti-ski deactivates at 10 kt GS
    (Locked wheel crossover circuit disabled at 25 kts )
37
Q

How does landing distance change when braking without powered brakes (TRIM/AIL PWR OFF)?

A
  • 8% longer ground roll distance, calculated at ISA+30 at 5000 ft AMSL.
  • 4000 ft min landing distance factors this in.
38
Q

What should pilot wait for before signaling chocks in?

A
  • The propeller to stop (unless being rotated by the wind).

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