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ASA Ab Initio > Air Traffic Services > Flashcards

Air Traffic Services Flashcards

ICAO 004

1
Q

Name the two Australian Flight Data Regions (FDGRs) and their ICAO designators.

A

Melbourne (YMMM) and Brisbane (YBBB)

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2
Q

Which body regulates aviation activity in Australia?

A

CASA

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3
Q

Which body regulates civil aviation globally?

A

ICAO

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4
Q

name the convention which established the regulations for civil aviation globally?

A

The Chicago Convention 1944

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5
Q

Name the two organisations that provide air traffic services in the Australian FIR.

A

ASA and RAAF

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6
Q

What are the objectives of Air Traffic Services?

A
  • Prevent collisions between aircraft
  • Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
  • Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
  • Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights
  • Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required
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7
Q

The Air Traffic Services are comprised of which three parts?

A
  • Air traffic control service
  • Flight information service
  • Alerting service (for SAR)
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8
Q

What callsigns are used for terminal area control?

A

Approach, Departures, Centre

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9
Q

State the three ATC roles as defined by ICAO

A

Area, approach, aerodrome

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10
Q

What is the duty priority for ATS staff?

A

Give first priority to separating aircraft, issuing safety alerts and providing directed traffic information. Perform that action which is most critical from a safety standpoint.

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11
Q

May a control tower provide an approach control service?

A

Yes

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12
Q

Do all ATC services also provide flight information and alerting services?

A

Yes

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13
Q

What are the radio requirements of VFR aircraft in Class G airspace?

A

VHF required above 5000ft and where an aerodrome requires use of a radio, otherwise no requirement.

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14
Q

What separation is provided to IFR aircraft in Class A airspace?

A

All aircraft separated by ATC

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15
Q

What separation is provided to IFR aircraft in Class C airspace?

A

IFR from IFR
IFR from VFR
IFR from Special VFR

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16
Q

What separation is provided to VFR aircraft in Class C airspace?

A

VFR from IFR

VFR Traffic Information Service

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17
Q

What separation is provided to Special VFR aircraft in Class C airspace?

A

Special VFR from Special VFR when VIS does not meet VMC

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18
Q

What separation is provided to IFR aircraft in Class D airspace?

A

IFR from IFR
IFR from Special VFR
VFR Traffic Information Service

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19
Q

What separation is provided to VFR aircraft in Class D airspace?

A

Nil

All Traffic Information Service

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20
Q

What separation is provided to Special VFR aircraft in Class D airspace?

A

Special VFR from Special VFR when VIS does not meet VMC

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21
Q

What separation is provided to IFR aircraft in Class E airspace?

A

IFR from IFR

VFR Traffic Information Service as far as is practicable

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22
Q

What separation is provided to VFR aircraft in Class E airspace?

A

Nil
Flight Information Service
Surveillance Information Service (O/R)

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23
Q

What separation is provided to IFR aircraft in Class G airspace?

A

Nil

Flight Information Service

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24
Q

What separation is provided to VFR aircraft in Class G airspace?

A

Nil
Flight Information Service
Surveillance Information Service (O/R)

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25
Q

Which of the following aircraft has traffic priority on the manoeuvring area and airspace?

  1. An aircraft in a state of emergency, including being subjected to unlawful interference
  2. An aircraft known to have suffered failure of radio communication
A

1

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26
Q

Which of the following aircraft has traffic priority on the manoeuvring area and airspace?

  1. A multi-engine aircraft which has suffered the loss of an engine and has not been subjected to an emergency phase
  2. An aircraft that has declared itself a MERCY flight
A

1

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27
Q

Which of the following aircraft has traffic priority on the manoeuvring area and airspace?

  1. An aircraft operating under police callsign POLAIR RED (or FEDPOL RED) and engaged in operations where life is at risk
  2. An aircraft participating in Search and Rescue (SAR), medical (MEDEVAC), or Flood or Fire Relief (FFR) flights
A

2

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28
Q

Which of the following aircraft has traffic priority on the manoeuvring area and airspace?

  1. An aircraft engaged in the personal transport of:
    - Heads of State or of Government
    - other selected dignitaries on official visits to Australia
    - the Governor-General or the Prime Minister
  2. An aircraft known to have suffered failure of radio communication
A

2

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29
Q

Which of the following aircraft has traffic priority on the manoeuvring area and airspace?

  1. An aircraft engaged in the personal transport of:
    - Heads of State or of Government
    - other selected dignitaries on official visits to Australia
    - the Governor-General or the Prime Minister
  2. An aircraft participating in Search and Rescue (SAR), medical (MEDEVAC), or Flood or Fire Relief (FFR) flights
A

2

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30
Q

Which of the following aircraft has traffic priority on the manoeuvring area and airspace?

  1. An aircraft that has declared itself a MERCY flight
  2. An aircraft operating under police callsign POLAIR RED (or FEDPOL RED) and engaged in operations where life is at risk
A

1

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31
Q

Which of the following aircraft has traffic priority on the manoeuvring area and airspace?

  1. An aircraft known to have suffered failure of radio communication
  2. A multi-engine aircraft which has suffered the loss of an engine and has not been subjected to an emergency phase
A

2

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32
Q

Which of the following aircraft has traffic priority on the manoeuvring area and airspace?

  1. An aircraft known to have suffered failure of radio communication
  2. An aircraft in a state of emergency, including being subjected to unlawful interference
A

2

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33
Q

What is a Prohibited Area?

A

An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Designation is appropriate only for reasons of military necessity.

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34
Q

What is a Restricted Area?

A

An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions. This designation is used when necessary in the interests of public safety or the protection of the environment.

35
Q

What is a Danger Area?

A

An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas of territorial waters of a State, within which activities of potential danger to aircraft may exist.

36
Q

In what classes of airspace is a separation service provided to IFR aircraft?

A

A,C,D,E

37
Q

What determines the size of a sector?

A

The volume of traffic, availability of surveillance, type of flying activities.

38
Q

What classes of airspace would a tower administer and what determines the class?

A

C and D determined by the type of flying activity that takes place at the aerodrome.

39
Q

In what classes of airspace do VFR aircraft require an airways clearance allowing them to operate?

A

C,D

40
Q

Which aircraft are allowed to operate without a radio and in which classes of airspace?

A

VFR in Class G, except for operations above 5000ft AMSL and at aerodromes where carriage and use of radio is required.

41
Q

What have control area steps been designed to accommodate with regard to aircraft flight profiles?

A

The climb and descent profile of common transport aircraft.

42
Q

What clas of airspace is uncontrolled?

A

Class G

43
Q

Under what circumstances may an aircraft communicate on frequency other than that for the airspace in which they are operating?

A

a) In certain aspects of the SAR alerting services,
b) When significant operational advantage will be gained and workload, communications and equipment capabilities permit the responsible controller to take such action as is necessary to preserve separation.

44
Q

Which key areas of responsibility form the primary purpose of the National Co-ordination Centre?

A
  • Airspace management
  • Aeronautical Information Management
  • Business Continuity and Reporting
  • NCC Meteorology
45
Q

Below what altitude may pilots be assigned responsibility for separation? What is the pilot’s responsibility?

A

You may only assign responsibility for visual separation to a pilot when:

a) aircraft are operating at or below 10,000ft; and
b) the pilot of the aircraft:
i) reports sighting the other aircraft; and
ii) accepts responsibility to maintain visual separation with, pass behind or follow that aircraft.

46
Q

When applying visual separation what must you do if there is doubt as to the pilot’s ability to keep the other aircraft in sight?

A

Issue an alternative instruction to provide separation if there is any doubt as to the pilot’s ability to keep the other aircraft in sight or maintain separation.

47
Q

List four possible limitations to a pilot’s ability to comply with instructions.

A

a) the field of vision from the cockpit;
b) the contrast of aircraft with the background against which it will appear;
c) glare of the sun;
d) restrictions on atmospheric visibility which may not be currently apparent to the pilot

48
Q

What traffic information should be given to aircraft when passing Directed Traffic Information?

A

a) aircraft identification
b) type and description if unfamiliar
c) position information
d) estimated time of passing or closest point of approach
e) direction of flight or route of aircraft
f) level
g) intentions of the pilot, such as:
1. initial departure track and intended cruising level; and
2. inbound track or direction, level and next estimate
h) advice that an aircraft is not yet on the appropriate frequency

49
Q

What is the definition of a “State Aircraft”?

A

An aircraft of any part of the Defence Force and aircraft used in the military, customs or police services of a foreign country.

50
Q

What are the three elements of transferring responsibility?

A
  1. Prior Coordination
    - Calling the next controller and advising them of the position report of the aircraft, it’s level and the estimate for the boundary position.
  2. Hand-Off Jurisdiction
    - Transfer of ownership of the aircraft.
  3. Transfer
    - The aircraft is instructed to call the next controller.
    - The aircraft is expected to read back the frequency prior to transfer.
    - The aircraft will then call the next controller.
51
Q

What is SID?

A

Standard Instrument Departure. A published IFR departure comprising obstacle clearance data to the minimum safe altitude and tracking data until the aircraft reaches a specified point on its ATC cleared route.

52
Q

What is SID - Radar?

A

A published ground radar-based IFR departure comprising standard climb gradient data to minimum safe altitude while being radar vectored by ATC.

53
Q

What is STAR?

A

Standard Arrival Route. A published IFR arrival route which links the en route airways system to a fix at or near the destination aerodrome.

54
Q

What is an OAO and what are the two different types?

A

Off Air Route

  1. User Preferred Routes (UPR)
  2. AUSOTS / Flex Tracks
55
Q

What does a Track Definition Message consist of?

A
  • Message formatting information
  • Track identifier
  • Validity period
  • Track description
  • RMK section
56
Q

Which Flight Levels are not available when the Area QNH is 993 hPa?

A

FL110 and FL115

57
Q

What are the five requirements to assure separation?

A
  1. Scanning and assessing traffic
  2. Identifying conflicts
  3. Planning to resolve conflicts and assure separation
  4. Executing a plan
  5. Monitoring the implemented solution to ensure separation is achieved
58
Q

When must a pilot request and airways clearance?

A

a) on the clearance delivery frequency, preferably immediately before starting engines, otherwise as soon as possible thereafter

or

b) where a clearance delivery frequency is not available, before entering the departure runway; and
c) before entering controlled airspace

59
Q

What is the content of an airways clearance?

A

a) aircraft identification
b) destination, area of operation, position or clearance limit
c) route of flight
d) assigned level, except when this element is included in the SID description

Additional Instructions

a) a level requirement
b) departure type for IFR flights
c) SSR code
d) frequency requirements

60
Q

Which elements of an airways clearance must be read back by the pilot?

A

a) en route holding instructions
b) any route and holding point specified in a taxi clearance
c) any clearances or instructions to hold short of, enter, land on, line up on, wait, take-off from, cross, taxi or backtrack on, any runway or HLS
d) an assigned runway or HLS
e) any approach clearance
f) altimeter settings directed to specific aircraft, radio and radio navaid frequency instructions
g) SSR codes and data link logon codes
h) level instructions, direction of turn, heading and speed instructions

61
Q

What is the name of messages sent from Customs or RAAF aircraft operating surveillance flights?

A

SURVEREP

62
Q

Which organisation are SURVEREP messages relayed to?

A

Australian Maritime Security Operations Centre

63
Q

When are ATCs required to pass traffic information (DTI) or advice that no reports have been received from IFR traffic, to IFR traffic?

A

a) when requested by pilots
b) when pilots notify their intention to change level
c) when pilots notify either taxi or airborne or departure, whichever is first
d) if you become aware of relevant traffic

This requirement continues until:

a) the pilot reports changing to the CTAF
b) military pilots ceasing guard on ATS frequencies
c) the pilot cancels SARWATCH and
1. has reported in the circuit area; or
2. the destination ETA has been reached.

64
Q

What is the Traffic Advisory (TA)?

A

Airborne collision avoidance system. Provides pilots with information on nearby aircraft, however they must not manoeuvre the aircraft in response and ATC must continue to separate and provide traffic advice.

65
Q

What is the Resolution Advisory (RA)?

A

Airborne collision avoidance system. Upon receipt of an RA pilots must operate in accordance with the advice received. ATC must not issue instructions in contradiction with the RA until after it has been fully complied with.

66
Q

What circumstances would warrant the issue of a safety alert according to MATS?

A

Unless the pilot has advised that action is being taken to resolve the situation or that the other aircraft is in sight, issue a safety alert prefixed by the phrase “SAFETY ALERT” when you become ware that an aircraft is in a situation that places it in unsafe proximity to:

a) terrain;
b) obstruction;
c) active restricted or prohibited areas;
d) other aircraft.

67
Q

When may you discontinue issuing a safety alert?

A

You may discontinue issuing further safety alerts or traffic avoidance advice when the pilot advises action is being taken to resolve the situation or has reported the other aircraft in sight.

68
Q

In what classes of airspace may safety alerts be issued?

A

All classes

69
Q

When is the prefix “Suggest” used when issuing collision avoidance advice for aircraft in close proximity?

A

Prefix advice to turn or change level with “SUGGEST” unless the advice is for controlled flights with reference to other controlled flights.

70
Q

What is expected of the controller upon becoming aware of information such that it would be reasonable to conclude that an unsafe situation has occurred, or may occur?

A

Provide a safety alert.

71
Q

Give 5 examples of suspicious circumstances that ATC must report.

A

a) aircraft signalling to the ground
b) objects seen to be dropped from aircraft
c) aircraft operating at night without navigation lights
d) unusual activity at aerodromes
e) unexplained activity at remote airstrips

72
Q

What is a holding procedure?

A

A pre-determined manoeuvre which keeps aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance.

73
Q

What is a holding fix?

A

A geographic location that serves as a reference for a holding procedure.

74
Q

Does a holding instruction impose a clearance limit on aircraft?

A

Yes

75
Q

When do you not have to describe a holding pattern at a clearance limit to a pilot?

A

When the holding pattern is published in the applicable Aeronautical Information Publications.

76
Q

When a clearance limit is cancelled, this includes a cancellation of holding, what must be issued to the aircraft?

A

An onwards clearance

77
Q

For the purposes of longitudinal separation, how are same/opposite direction tracks defined?

A

For separation purposes, reciprocal and same tracks are those tracks that intercept at less than 45 degrees.

78
Q

When applying lateral separation, what should be used in preference to manual plotting methods?

A

Apply lateral separation using authorised:

a) lateral separation diagrams;
b) tables; or
c) lateral conflict tools

79
Q

Provide three uses for information provided by the surveillance system and presented on the Air Situation Display.

A

a) provide surveillance services (improve airspace utilisation, reduce delays etc.)
b) provide vectoring (expeditious and efficient flow of traffic)
c) provide separation and maintain normal traffic flow when an aircraft experiences communication failure within an area of coverage
d) maintain flight path monitoring

80
Q

Would an IFR flight heading in an easterly direction below FL290 be at an odd or even level?

A

Odd

81
Q

When operating within block levels may a pilot operate at any of the levels within the block?

A

Yes

82
Q

In what level band is RVSM airspace? What does RVSM stand for?

A

FL290 - FL410 (inclusive)

Reduced Vertical Separation Minima

83
Q

What symbol in item 10 of a flight plan indicates that an aircraft has RVSM approval?

A

W

ASA Ab Initio (9 decks)

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