AIR SYSTEMS Flashcards

1
Q

02 What is the maximum operating altitude of the CT-142?

A

25,000 ft ASL

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2
Q

02 What is the maximum crosswind component for landing?

A

36 kts

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3
Q

02 Name the 3 aircraft components

A

Fuselage, wings, empennage (tail)

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4
Q

02 What control surface handles pitch and what axis

A

Elevator (lateral axis)

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5
Q

02 What control surface handles roll and what axis

A

Ailerons and spoilers (longitudinal axis)

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6
Q

02 What control surface handles yaw and what axis

A

Rudder (vertical axis)

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7
Q

02 Define force

A

Energy to produce or defy motion

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8
Q

02 Newton’s 1st Law: Law of Inertia

A

A body at rest tends to remain at rest while a body in motion tends to stay in motion unless acted upon by an external force.

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9
Q

02 Newton’s 2nd Law: Law of Acceleration

A

Acceleration is directly proportional to the applied force and inversely proportional to the mass of the body F = ma

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10
Q

02 Newton’s 3rd Law: Law of Action and Reaction

A

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

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11
Q

02 Define static pressure

A

“Pressure exerted on an object by the molecular activity within a fluid.
It is measured as a force per unit area and is written: P static = force/area
EXAMPLE : at sea level, standard pressure is 14.7lbs/sq. in (the weight of a column of air above a certain area).”

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12
Q

02 Define dynamic pressure

A

A body immersed in a moving liquid will absorb the kinetic energy of that fluid (aircraft in the airstream): Pd+1/2 pv^2

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13
Q

02 Define Bernoulli’s Principle

A

An increase in dynamic pressure results in a decrease in static pressure.

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14
Q

02 Bernoulli’s Principle 3 requirements

A

Airflow is constant, air is incompressible, total pressure is equal to dynamic pressure + static pressure

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15
Q

02 What are the Forces acting upon an aircraft in flight?

A

Lift, Thrust, Weight, and Drag.

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16
Q

03 What type of engine gives a large mass of air a small acceleration

A

Turbo-Prop

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17
Q

03 How do propeller work?

A

“Pushes air backward to create thrust
Rotating blade produces lift and drag.”

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18
Q

03 What is the benefit of CT-142 variable blade pitch?

A

Engine and propeller always work at maximum efficiency

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19
Q

03 What is the name/type of the CT-142 engine and how many are there?

A

Two Pratt and Whitney 120A free-turbine, turbo-prop engines.

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20
Q

03 What are the specifics of the CT-142 Propeller(prop)?

A

Each engine drives a Hamilton Standard 13 foot diameter, four-blade, constant speed, hydraulically controlled propeller.

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21
Q

03 What is the shaft horse power of the CT-142?

A

1800 shp which can uptrim to 2000 shp in the event of an engine failure.

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22
Q

04 What is the certified ceiling?

A

25000 feet

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23
Q

04 What is the maximum operating speed?

A

242k IAS up to 14000ft, then linearly decreases to 207k IAS at 25000

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24
Q

04 What is the maximum landing cross winds and tail wind?

A

36kts, min 100ft wide | tail wind up to 10kts (20 in certain situations)

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25
Q

04 What is the emergency stopping distance?

A

1500ft on 2 engines, 1800 on 1 engine

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26
Q

04 What is the minimum retakeoff distance?

A

3000ft

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27
Q

04 What is the CT-142 height|length|width?

A

24 ft. 5 in high
77 ft. 6 in long
and has a wingspan of 85 ft.

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28
Q

04 What is the CT-142 base weight?

A

26500 lbs

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29
Q

04 What is the CT-142 empty tank weight (w crew and galley)?

A

28285 lbs

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30
Q

04 What is the CT-142 ramp weight?

A

34700 lbs

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31
Q

04 What is the CT-142 take off weight?

A

34500 lbs

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32
Q

04 What is the CT-142 landing weight?

A

33900 lbs

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33
Q

04 What is the CT-142 max fuel with 8 crew?

A

6415 lbs

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34
Q

04 How many exits does the CT-142 have?

A

4 Airstair door, mid-cabin emergency exit, forward cabin emergency exit, flight compartment hatch. Note the cargo door is not an emergency exit and can’t be opened from inside.

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35
Q

04 How is the main door pressurized?

A

It is charged from the pneumatic de-icing system and contains a reservoir sufficient to seal the door 4 times after engine shutdown. You must ensure the aircraft is de-pressurized before completely unlatching. And NEVER stand directly under the door when unlatching.

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36
Q

04 What kind of breaks does it have?

A

Main gear has disc brakes, anti-skid brake system and emergency/parking brake system

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37
Q

04 In case of loss of hydrolics, how is the landing gear dropped?

A

Gravity dropped, then hand-pumped in locked position.

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38
Q

04 How many fuel pumps does it have?

A

6, 3 per side.

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39
Q

04 What is the purpose of the surge bays in each wing tip?

A

They provide positive tank venting

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40
Q

04 What is the prefered fuel?

A

F-37 (JP8+100) | Freezes at -47

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41
Q

04 How many hydrolic systems?

A

3 separate hydraulic systems
No.1 engine driven
No.2 engine driven
Emergency hand driven system (hand operated from the cockpit and provides power for emergency landing gear extension)

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42
Q

04 What is bleed air used for?

A

“Air is bled off the compressors of the engines, for use in:
Air Conditioning
Pressurization
Pneumatic De-icing
Bleed air is also available from the APU”

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43
Q

04 Where is the AC control panel located?

A

Control panel is located on the overhead panel in the cockpit.

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44
Q

04 What is the A/C pressurized to?

A

25 000ft

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45
Q

04 What compartments get pressure sealed?

A

“Once engines are running, bleed air is selected on, and flight compartment, cabin, cargo compartment, and underfloor are sealed.

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46
Q

04 Which part of the aircraft uses bleed air for de-icing?

A

“Bleed air is used to de-ice the leading edges of the:
wings
nacelle intakes
horizontal stabilizer
vertical stabilizer

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47
Q

05 As a student, when should you reset cct breakers?

A

As a student, never reset a CB, inform instructor or pilot.

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48
Q

05 Which wing has a green nav light?

A

The right wing. (Port wine is red, red i on the port side.)

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49
Q

05 What type of lights are used for landing/approach?

A

White, 600 Watt quartz-halogen sealed beam lights

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50
Q

05 What and where are the interior lighting?

A

“*Cabin Overhead: There are five panels of fluorescent lights to illuminate the cabin

*Cabin Aisle: Four incandescent lights to illuminate the cabin aisle.

*Crew Rest Area: Two incandescent lights to illuminate the crew rest area.

*Workstations: There is an array of lighting available at the individual workstations which you will see on your static visit.

*Baggage Compartment: There are lights in the baggage compartment which come on with the switch, or when the baggage door is unlocked.

*Galley Counter: There is an incandescent light over the galley counter.
*Galley Overhead: And one over the galley area.

*Lavatory Incandescent: The switch for the lavatory lights illuminates the incandescent light, and arms the fluorescent light.
*Lavatory Fluorescent: This light comes on when the door is locked.

*Wardrobe Overhead: Another light overhead the wardrobe area.
*Airstair Door: And a light to illuminate the entrance

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51
Q

05 What powers electric anti-icing and de-icing?

A

115Vac variable

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52
Q

05 What can be anti or de-iced?

A

“Prop Blades *
Pitot Tubes
Static Ports
Stall warning transducers
Engine intakes
Windshields
Pilot’s side window
Elevator horns

*NOTE: Because these can be turned on at the pilot’s discretion, they are considered in the AODs as part of the De-Icing System as well.”

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53
Q

05 What does static air provide information to?

A

“Air Speed Indicator (ASI)
Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
Air Data Computer
Standby Barometric Altimeter”

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54
Q

05 What does pitot air provide information to?

A

“Air Speed Indicator (ASI)
DADC”

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55
Q

05 Where are the Stall Warning Transducers and what do they do?

A

“Located on the leading edge of each wing
Measures the angle of attack”

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56
Q

06 What is a RADAR?

A

an electronic device used for the detection and location of objects

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57
Q

06 What does RADAR stand for?

A

RADIO DETECTION AND RANGING

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58
Q

06 What are the uses of RADAR?

A

Map Reading & navigation
Weather Detection and Avoidance
Traffic Detection and Avoidance
Altitude (Radalt)
Groundspeed and Drift (Doppler)
Guidance Systems (homing RADAR on missiles)
Target Detection and Homing

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59
Q

06 describe range determination

A

Short, strong bursts of radio energy (pulses).
Energy is reflected back to the receiver (echo).
Time it takes the energy to return can be converted to distance.

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60
Q

06 Name and define factors affecting determination

A

Range – due to spreading, return signal may be too weak to be detected by receiving antenna
Size – large targets more likely to be detected, small targets may be filtered out, depending on RADAR
Shape – right angled objects more conducive to reflecting signal back to receiver
Reflecting characteristics – some compounds reflect more readily than others, entire branch of military research is dedicated to researching and developing military assets that generate the least possible RADAR return.

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61
Q

06 What is the ideal RADAR pulse

A

one that reaches peak power very quickly (sharp leading edge), maintains that power throughout the pulse (flat top) and ends abruptly (sharp trailing edge).

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62
Q

06 A pulse that drops power gradually at the end of the pulse is said to have a _______, while one that builds slowly to peak power is said to have a _______

A

sloped trailing edge, sloped leading edge

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63
Q

06 Sloping edges effectively ______ the width of the pulse and can also cause timing ambiguities.

A

increase

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64
Q

06 Pulses which have varying power throughout the duration of the pulse are said to have ________. Sloped pulses are inefficient in that peak power is only achieved for a short portion of the pulse

A

Sloped tops

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65
Q

06 The shape required for range accuracy

A

To achieve the accuracy the set was designed for, the pulse must have a sharp leading edge. This allows an accurate start of the timing to measure the pulse, and thus, the target’s distance

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66
Q

02 what are the 2 basic ways to increase lift

A

Increase airspeed
Increase the camber of the aerofoil

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67
Q

02 What is the camber

A

the curvature of an aerofoil or its surface

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68
Q

03 Define thrust

A

Fuel is fed into some kind of “engine” where, in burning, its’ chemical energy is changed into thermal energy which is converted into the mechanical work done in propelling the aircraft against the drag.

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69
Q

03 What is coarse pitch setting used for?

A

cruise

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70
Q

03 Which type of engine gives a large mass of air a small acceleration?

A

Turbo-prop

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71
Q

03 Name four common types of engines

A

Ram-Jet.
Turbo-Jet.
Turbo-Fan.
Engine/Propeller Combination.

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72
Q

03 What is a free turbine

A

In the free-turbine system, the propeller is connected to what is referred to as a power turbine which “floats” in the high pressure exhaust gases in the turbine section.

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73
Q

03 Disadvantages of propellers

A

Difficult to make propellers work well at high speeds, because of:
Rotational speeds
Supersonic flow at the blade tips

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74
Q

03 types of pitch

A

Coarse Pitch
Fine Pitch

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75
Q

03 define pitch

A

Distance in feet a propeller travels forward in one revolution.
Angle at which the blade is set governs the pitch

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76
Q

03 define course pitch

A

Blade set at a large angle, therefore the blade will travel a greater distance forward per revolution
Best suited for high speed cruise
develops high cruising speeds at low engine RPM
gives good cruise performance and fuel economy

77
Q

03 define fine pitch

A

Propeller will revolve at higher speed around its own axis, thereby enabling the engine to develop greater power
Best performance during takeoff and landing
good take-off and climb performance
inefficient both in speed and fuel economy in cruise

78
Q

03 Mechanisms for Varying Pitch

A

Mechanical
Hydraulic
Electrical

79
Q

03 function of a propeller

A

To convert the rotational force (Torque) produced by the engine into a forward push or pull, called thrust, for forward speed.

80
Q

03 operation of a propeller

A

Designed to move forward in a corkscrew motion.
Pushes air backward to create thrust in the opposite direction.
Propeller blade cross-section is similar to an airfoil or wing.
As it rotates, it produces lift and drag.
Forces are designated as thrust and torque

81
Q

03 Turbo-Prop gives a large mass of air a ______ acceleration
Turbo-Jet/Fan gives a small mass of air a ______ acceleration

A

small, large

82
Q

03 Indicated Horsepower =

A

= PLAN/33000
P = Mean Pressure in lbs. per square inch (psi)
L = Length of the stroke in feet
A = Area of the piston in square inches
N = Number of power strokes per minute
33000 = 1 Horsepower = amount of work to raise 33000 lbs. 1 foot in 1 minute

83
Q

AS 07 What are reception factors for radar?

A

*Target range, size, shape and reflecting characteristics.
*Pulse shape, width and repetition frequency.
*Radar power output and receiver sensitivity.

84
Q

AS 07 How can you overcome sea return interference?

A

reduce altitude,
reduce GAIN. If the dash 8 radar is operated in Linear (degraded) mode, then gain must be manually manipulated.
raise antenna tilt, and
select sea mode; the Dash‑8 has an automatic sea switch that optimizes return for sea surface.

85
Q

AS 07 What are the reception factors for sea vessels?

A

Ships and boats on the water will look similar to small islands on the radar. Careful use of the topo is required to avoid confusion.
Strength of return will vary depending on the composition of the vessel (metal or concrete hull will provide much stronger returns than wooden boats).
Sea state will have strong influence on the range at which targets can be detected.

86
Q

AS 07 How do rivers show up on radar?

A

Rivers, if they are wide, will show up dark. The far shore of a river or lake will appear much brighter than the near shore. Narrow rivers may be identified solely by the bright return from the far bank, during the winter, ice may cause clutter on the returns from lakes and rivers but the outlines should be easily identifiable.

87
Q

AS 07 How do hills show up on radar?

A

Mountains block off the radar echoes and cause a mountain shadow. The shape of this area will change as the aircraft moves past the mountain. The near edge will appear brighter than far edge.

88
Q

AS 07 What are the reception factors for urban centres?

A

*Buildings are very good reflectors due to their shape and the materials they are made of.
*Towns often lined up N-S/E-W creating cardinal effect.

89
Q

04 What is the CT-142 Galley Equipment & Pubs weight

A

65 lbs

90
Q

AS 07 What variables affect the strength of returns?

A

*target size and shape
*target composition

91
Q

AS 07 What environmental elements show from strongest to weakest?

A

Metal, concrete, rock, wood, earth, water, ice

92
Q

04 What is the CT-142 crew weight

A

1720 lbs

93
Q

AS 07 How may the shape and size of an object be distorted?

A

POWER and PRF
SPOT SIZE (the resolution of your display)
PULSE WIDTH (1 microsecond = 328 yds) (Range Resolution)
BEAM WIDTH (Azimuth Resolution)
COMBINED ERRORS

94
Q

AS 07 What are two ways to get range on a radar?

A

1.Check Range Selection
count markers and multiply marker value
measure to leading edge of target
be aware of slant range less than 10 nm at 24,000’ will result in 1 nm or greater error (we want ground range)
2.The TMT cursor will provide range to target in nm, it is controlled by the trackball and is displayed at the bottom left of the RADAR display

95
Q

04 What is the CT-142 max empty tank weight

A

31000 lbs.

96
Q

AS 07 Describe the interaction between radar and precipitation?

A

*The radar “sees” water droplets.
*The intensity of the radar return depends on the size of the droplets and their concentration.
*The larger the droplet and the greater the concentration, the more intense the return.
*Close relationship between turbulence and rain gradient (rain shear).
*The greater the change in water content, the more severe the turbulence.

97
Q

AS 07 Describe the relationship between radar and thunderstorms?

A

*Beginning of mature stage of thunderstorm when turbulence greatest.
*Strong updrafts and downdrafts with rapid changes in wind direction occur.
*Depicted on radar scope as sharp edged echo rather than fuzzy one.

98
Q

AS 07 What are two features of hail that make it difficult to detect?

A

*While ice may be a good material for reflection, the shape of hail, density, intensity may give varying levels of returns.

99
Q

04 What is the CT-142 Main tanks capacity

A

5678 lbs

100
Q

AS 07 What are radar returns associated with hazardous weather?

A

*Edges of the weather return resembling pointed fingers, or hooks may indicate hail, or even tornadoes.
*Scalloped edges or rapidly changing edges indicate a developing storm and should be avoided by greater distances.

101
Q

AS 07 What is the weather avoidance rule?

A

*5 nm when flying below the freezing level,
*10 nm when flying above the freezing level, and
*20 nm if flying above 30,000 ft.

102
Q

AS 07 What weather options does the AN/APS-504 have?

A

Weather (WX) or weather contour (CTR)

103
Q

04 What is the CT-142 auxiliary tanks capacity

A

4566 lbs

104
Q

AS 07 What does the Weather (WX) option do?

A

*orients display to line of sight (LOS) and sector offset
*provides signal processing to show areas of strongest returns within a cell

105
Q

04 What is the CT-142 Total usable fuel

A

10244 lbs

106
Q

04 What is the CT-142 max fuel with 8 crew

A

6415 lbs.

107
Q

AS 07 What does the Weather Contour (CTR) option do?

A

*Suppresses areas of high precipitation in the display to give a brightly outlined weather display

108
Q

AS 07 How can you register weather phenomena better with the radar?

A

*For best results, the antenna tilt should be adjusted to a point just above the reception of ground clutter to avoid confusing ground and weather returns.
*Radar range should also be adjusted frequently between short to longer ranges to avoid flying into a blind alley.

109
Q

04 describe No.1 engine driven hydraulic system

A

1 System (WAIRM)

Wing Flaps
Anti-skid control valve
Inboard roll spoilers
Rudder actuator (lower)
Main Wheel Brakes

110
Q

04 describe No.2 engine driven hydraulic system

A

2 System (LONER)

Landing gear
Outboard roll spoilers
Nose wheel steering
Emergency/Park brake
Rudder actuator (upper)

111
Q

04 The #1 and #2 hydraulic systems are engine driven. Each system is backed up by an _________. All systems use a synthetic phosphate ester-based fluid (SKYDROL)

A

electrically driven standby pump

112
Q

05 The CT-142 requires a _______ Ground power cart

A

28V DC 1500 AMP

113
Q

05 Where is the battery compartment located

A

left side of the nose of the aircraft

114
Q

05 Why 24V when the A/c works on 28V DC??

A

You always want the battery to be less than the system it is connected to because the output voltage of your generators will fluctuate, and you don’t want the batteries being used unless it is necessary. E.g.. Resort to batteries only if the normal system has failed, not when it is fluctuating normally because of system load….which could be, for example, between 25-29.5 Volts for a 28 V system

115
Q

05 Define generator

A

generates electrical current through the movement (generally spinning) of either wires through a magnetic field or a magnet near a fixed coil of wires.

116
Q

05 define motor/starter

A

the opposite of a generator. Uses current to generate a magnetic field which spins a magnet.

117
Q

05 define dc

A

direct current; current that is always moving in the same direction along the wire. (can be fluctuating)

118
Q

05 define ac

A

alternating current ; current that changes direction along the wire. (must be fluctuating)

119
Q

05 define voltage

A

electrical pressure. A measure of the pressure under which electricity flows.

120
Q

05 define transformer

A

either steps-up (increases) or steps-down (decreases) a given voltage (does not change frequency of AC and cannot change AC to DC or vice versa)

121
Q

05 define inverter

A

converts DC into AC

122
Q

05 define rectifier

A

converts AC into DC

123
Q

05 where is the APU (auxiliary power unit) located

A

Located behind the rear pressure bulkhead in the fuselage of the aircraft.

124
Q

05 How many inverters are there on the CT142 and what are they

A

3 for avionics
3 for the search radar
3 NTS inverters

125
Q

05 DC power sources

A

DC – can use the acronym BETS

Batteries x 2 24 Volt DC
External DC 28 Volt DC cart
TRUs x 2 converts 115 Volt AC to 28 Volt DC
Starter/Generators x 2 28 Volt DC

126
Q

05 ac power sources

A

AC – can use the acronym GEIA

Generators x 2 115 Volt AC
External AC 115 Volt AC cart
Inverters x 9 converts 28 Volt DC to 115 Volt AC
APU x 1 115 Volt AC

127
Q

05 what is a Bus Bar Protection Unit (BBPU)

A

a box, tying or breaking of circuits if a loss is detected or a short circuit occurs. This prevents damage to the electrical system.

128
Q

05 when is a one time reset for a tripped CB acceptable?

A

The AC is on the ground
There is no recent history of reported defects with the system or related systems or other evidence of anomalies.
There is no other evidence of anomalies with the affected systems; and
If a circuit breaker is reset, a record of this action must be made.

129
Q

05 where is the pilot and copilot pitot head located?

A

The pilot pitot head is located on the port side of the fuselage and supplies the pilot airspeed indicator and the No. 1 DADC
The co-pilot pitot head is located on the starboard side of the fuselage and supplies the co-pilot airspeed indicator and the No. 2 DADC

130
Q

05 what and where are the static heads located?

A

The static heads are located forward and above the pitot heads flush on each side of the nose.

Unlike the pitot heads which measure the pressure of the moving air, static ports measure the “still” air pressure (hence their name

131
Q

AS 08 What are the parts of the antenna?

A

*14x42-inch flat plate planar array.
*360 degrees rotation capability.
*Pitch, roll and hdg from IRU are sent to the Antenna to ensure the Antenna rotational plane remains stationary with changes of AC attitude, up to 20° from horizontal.
*Manual Tilt control +/-16°.

132
Q

AS 08 What are the parts of the waveguide pressurization system?

A

The RF energy from the receiver/transmitter is sent to the antenna through a waveguide flange to a waveguide rotary joint in the pedestal and is sent through rigid and flexible plumbing for radiation.
Located in the nose (through upper left nose equipment panel).
Pressurizes the waveguide and R/T with nitrogen to prevent condensation and arcing at high altitude.*

133
Q

AS 08 What are the parts of the radar power supply?

A

There are three separate inverters located in the aircraft’s nose which provide power for the radar only.
These are accessible from the access panel on the Starboard side of the aircraft.
The radar power switch is located on the co‑pilot’s side console.
The radar inverter power switch allows the three radar inverters to power up and supply radar system with 115 V AC
Allows inverter DC source from either L Main or R Sec DC bus
Besides the three circuit-breakers in the cockpit, there are two 90 amp CB’s on the DC contactor panel in the radome.
These supply the DC power required by the Radar inverters (only one or other is used dependent on position of inverter switch)

134
Q

AS 08 What are the parts of the radar receiver/transmitter?

A

The transmitter generates a RF signal and the receiver processes the returned RF signals for conversion to a video signal. The R/T isolates and monitors faults and key radar parameters.
The transmitter frequency is 9310 to 9375 MHz. It has an 80 KW minimum peak signal and 100 KW is typical. The receiver rejects USB. The R/T is located in nose.
The waveguide is the conduit that transports the EM wave from the amplifier to the antenna. Due to the high power output of the amplifier (100 Kilo Watts!), the waveguide needs to be pressurized to prevent arcing.

135
Q

AS 08 Where are the main RADAR components?

A

*Power Supply – NTSC power supply (DC pwr)
*Navigation Training System Computer (NTSC)
*Remote Radar Interface Unit (RRIU)
*Synchronizer Processor Converter Unit (SPCU)

136
Q

AS 08 What is the NTSC?

A
  • The NTSC is the heart of the NTS. It interfaces with the radar via RRIU and it processes all video data.
137
Q

AS 08 What is the RRIU?

A

*The RRIU interfaces the ATS computer with the search radar via a full duplex RS-422 data link. This interface allows the radar to be controlled by operator inputs through an emulated CDU.
The RRIU also interfaces the radar with the PCU, allowing pilot-control of the radar when the NTS is not selected

138
Q

AS 08 What is the SPCU?

A

*Synchronizer Processor Converter Unit (SPCU):
*Provide overall radar system timing and control, video/signal processing and radar scan conversion.
*Supplies the transmitter with command and control signals.
*Receives radar video inputs from the receiver.
*Contains control/sync circuitry, video signal processing circuitry, and scan converter circuitry.

139
Q

AS 08 What ranges are available on the Radar?

A

The 3, 6, 12, 25 mile ranges are narrow pulse, high pulse repetition frequency (PRF) for good target definition and range resolution; 100 and 200 nm are wide pulse, low PRF for long range detection.

140
Q

AS 08 Which 50 nm positions for optimum operation are available?

A

50nm narrow pulse, high PRF is for target definition and good target detection at close range by providing more target returns per scan.
50nm wide pulse, low PRF keeps the average power high, provides the time needed to receive returns at longer ranges improving long range target detection capabilities.

141
Q

AS 08 What are the range to RPM relationships?

A

3 nm to 50 nm NP = 30 RPM
50 nm WP to 100 nm = 12 RPM
200 nm = 7.5 RPM

142
Q

AS 08 Explain Fault Response - Radar Hot?

A

This is an indication that the radar SPCU is overheating. The radar system has to be switched off via the radar power switch located on the co-pilot’s side panel to prevent any further damage to the radar system.
Open the computer cabinet and inspect for smoke or fire.

143
Q

06 fill in the blanks

A
144
Q

06 Narrow pulse = worse or better range resolution?

A

better

145
Q

06 Wider pulse = greater/lesser total pulse energy = greater/lesser maximum range

A

greater,greater

146
Q

06 what does the synchronizer do

A

Provides timing for the entire system.
Generates Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF) and display range markers.
Triggers the modulator to release energy.
May be a separate unit by itself or it may be included in the transmitter.

147
Q

06 what does the modulator do

A

Stores energy between pulses.
Determines the waveform of the output pulse (shape).
Releases pulses of energy when directed by the synchronizer.

148
Q

06 what does the transmitter do

A

Provides RF energy at an extremely high power in very short pulses.
Carrier frequency must be extremely high to get many cycles into the short pulse.
Power is carried to the antenna by coaxial cable or a waveguide.

149
Q

06 what does the antenna do

A

Highly directional, usually rotated or moved back and forth between two positions.
Normally a rotating planar array which transmits and receives RF energy.
Switching device (duplexer) is used to alternate between transmitting and receiving.

150
Q

06 what does the receiver do

A

Very sensitive super-heterodyne receiver.
Superheterodyne receivers reduce the signal frequency by mixing in a signal from a local oscillator to produce the intermediate frequency (IF).
This allows better signal isolation (less noise and spurious returns/info)
Accepts signals from 1 to 10 MHz.
Detects and amplifies weak RF echoes.
Changes echoes to video and sends a signal to the indicator.

151
Q

06 what does the indicator do

A

Visually presents all necessary information to locate the target on the screen.
Method of presenting the data, often referred to as a type of scan, depends on the RADAR’s purpose.

152
Q

06 what are some common indicator presentations

A

‘A’ Scan
‘B’ Scan
‘C’ Scan
‘J’ Scan
‘E’ Scan
Plan Position Indicator (PPI) Scan

153
Q

06 describe the A scan

A

Mainly used to determine range but rough direction can be obtained by rotating antenna until maximum echo is received is obtained.
The pulse travels from left to right across the indicator and Vertical deflections from transmitter pulse represent target returns.

154
Q

06 describe the b scan

A

Used to determine range and bearing as well as determine target size.
The bearing and range of reflective objects are presented as abscissa and ordinate, respectively.

155
Q

06 describe the c scan

A

The echo appears as a bright spot with the azimuth angles as the horizontal coordinates and the elevation angle as the vertical coordinates.
Has been used by night fighters to help follow enemy aircraft.

156
Q

06 describe the j scan

A

Modification of the A Scan, in which the spot rotates in a circle near the edge of the CRT face. An echo appears as a deflection from the circle.
As the distance changes, the deflection moves around the circle like the pointer of the aneroid altimeter.
Normally used for radar altimeter

157
Q

06 describe the e scan

A

Modification of the B Scan, echo appears as a bright spot with the range as the horizontal coordinates and elevation as vertical.
Normally used for precision approach radar (PAR), where A/C must follow a certain angular line to reach the touch-down point on the left of the screen.

158
Q

06 describe the PPI scan

A

Provides range and bearing info
Most common for navigation radar
Provides a map like picture

159
Q

06 how does the PPI scan work

A

The antenna generally is rotated uniformly about the vertical axis so that the searching is accomplished in a horizontal plane.
The beam is usually narrow in azimuth and broad in elevation, and large numbers of pulses are transmitted for each rotation of the antenna.
When an echo is received, the intensity of the spot is increased, and a bright spot remains at that point on the screen even after the scanning spot has passed. Thus it is possible to produce a map.

160
Q

09 How many portable fire kits are there on the CT-142

A

3

161
Q

09 How many and where are the hard wired O2 systems

A

2; one in the cockpit and one in the aft cabin

162
Q

09 What are the three O2 systems on the Dash-8?

A

Pilot system
Nav trainer system
Fire Fighting Portable system

163
Q

09 What are the components of the computer rack

A

rack cbs, nts server, nts power supply, rriu, spcu, nim

164
Q

09 How many/where are the Fire Fighting Portable Oxygen Systems

A

3 crew O2 bottles, #1 is located behind the copilot on the floor. The second is stored in the emergency equipment stowage compartment by the airstair door. The third system is located next to the baggage compartment door on the front of the aft bulkhead

165
Q

09 What is the max pressure/min dispatch for the NTS O2 system?

A

Max pressure 1800 psi (1248 L)
6 crew: 60 min/person O2 diluted setting
10 min/person O2 100% setting
Min dispatch 1300 psi
6 crew: 41 min/person O2 diluted setting
7 min/person O2 100% setting

166
Q

09 Each console oxygen system consists of:

A

a pressure demand regulator
quick don oxygen mask
smoke goggles

167
Q

09 If at minimum dispatch, time is reduced accordingly to _____ min at the diluted setting and _____ min if demand is at 100%.

A

41, 7

168
Q

09 What is the max pressure/min dispatch for the Fire Fighting Portable O2 system?

A

Max pressure 1800 PSI. Min 1800 PSI !!
Demand or pressure breathing at 55psi at mask
Approximately 15 min (310 L) O2 @ 100%

169
Q

09 What is the max pressure/min dispatch for the pilot O2 system?

A

-Max dispatch 1800 psi (987 litres)
2 crew: 140 min/person O2 diluted setting
25 min/person O2 100% setting
3 crew: 90 min/person O2 diluted setting
16 min/person O2 100% setting

-Min dispatch 1300 psi (2 crew) 1800 psi (3 crew)
2 crew: 98 min/person O2 diluted setting
17 min/person O2 100% setting

170
Q

09

A
171
Q

10 How do you know which console has tuning control of the HF Radio?

A

Green Bar is illuminated at the HF control switch.

172
Q

10 What is squelch and where do we set the squelch when using the HF radio on the Dash-8?

A

Reduces background noise / full clockwise.

173
Q

10 How do you get rid of an error message (E) in the display window?

A

Press the STO button.

174
Q

10 Do the VHF radios on board the CT-142 use AM or FM? What is the frequency range?

A

AM.
118.00 to 151.975 MHz

175
Q

10 How many comms Receiver/Transmitters are there on the CT-142?

A

4
2x VHF, 1x UHF, 1xHF

176
Q

10 What is the practical UHF frequency range for the CT-142?

A

225.000-399.975 MHz, divided into 25 KHz steps.

177
Q

10 The Audio Integration Systems at each student console consists of:

A

Audio Control Panel
Headset with PTT (press to talk) switch
PTT switch mount on the footrest

178
Q

10 The Audio Control Panel provides aircrew with the means to:

A

Control transmission and reception on external radios.
Communicate internally on different interphone conferences (ICS - INT, PRI 1, PRI 2).
Monitor the aircraft navigation receivers (VOR/ADF).
Access the passenger address (PA).

179
Q

10 What are the 3 interphone conferences available:

A

PRI1 , PRI2, and INT
INT is available to all positions
PRI1 is only available to the pilots, flight engineer, I1, I2, and rest areas.
There are two PRI2 conferences allowing each instructor to communicate with their students. Crew at the rest area can select which PRI2 to listen to.

180
Q

10 CT-142 HF Radio System consists of:

A

King KHF 950 HF radio
Radio control panels
—–Located at each student consoles, instructor consoles, and centre console of the flight compartment.
Transceiver (Transmitter/Receiver)
—–Located in the avionics rack
Antenna
—–Located in the leading edge of the vertical stabilizer

181
Q

10 What is the CT-142 HF Radio Frequency Coverage:

A

Frequency Coverage: 2.0 – 29.999 MHz

182
Q

10 Tuning steps

A

Take control of HF radio
Adjust volume and squelch
Set desired frequency – push freq selector knob
Rotate freq selector knob until desired digit displayed
Push freq selector knob again to switch to next number you wish to change
Once desired freq is displayed, select HF on ICS panel, key mic once and wait until “TX” stops flashing (approx 5 sec)
Once flashing stops, transmit message

183
Q

10 If unable to tune radio, try the following troubleshooting procedures:

A

Change the volume setting, put it back to mid range and try again.
Recycle Power (Off/On)
Have another station take control of the HF, then take control back.
Have pilots take control of the HF, then take it back after 1-2 min.

184
Q

10 What is SELCAL

A

SELECTIVE CALLING
When the ground station transmits this code, a light on the SELCAL control panel (located on the centre console) will flash and the crew will get a tone in their headset.
This enables you to monitor an HF radio without having to listen to static, or chatter that does not concern your aircraft (e.g. trans-oceanic flights).

185
Q

10 VHF King KTR-908 Radio components

A

Two CDUs, one per radio (VHF1/2), located in the centre console of the flight deck
Transceivers for both are located in the avionics rack (in the wardrobe)
Antenna
Pilots can tune 2 frequencies, one active, one standby

186
Q

10 What are the VHF King KTR-908 Radio Specifications:

A

Amplitude modulation (AM)
Frequency range: 118.000 to 151.975 MHz
Spacing of channels: 25 kHz
Line of sight operation (LOS)
Low power (not more than 26 watts)
Quiet, static free communication
Not affected by weather
Memory for 9 preset channels
Capable of Direction Finding (DF) – Ref AOD Sec 21.1.9

187
Q

10 What are the UHF AN/ARC-164 Radio Specifications:

A

(AM) Amplitude Modulation
Frequency range - 225.000 to 399.975 MHz (in 25 KHz steps)
Memory for 20 preset channels
28 volt DC
Line of sight (LOS) operation
Quiet, static free communication
Not affected by weather
Capable of Direction Finding (DF) – Ref AOD Sec 21.1.9

188
Q

10 What are the UHF AN/ARC-164 Radio Components:

A

2 Transceivers – located in cockpit on the centre pedestal, aft of the power levers.
1 main transceiver (for transmission and reception), and 1 Guard receiver (for reception only on 243.000 MHz).
1 Control Head – co-located with transceivers on centre pedestal.
Antenna