Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Etude vol > Air Reg > Flashcards

Air Reg Flashcards

1
Q

Who does the air reg apply to?

A

all personnel involved in CF flying operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who should report infractions?

A

Every personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Crew requirements

A

a. Have successfully completed applicable qualifying courses
b. Be undergoing applicable qualifying courses
c. Have appropriate authorization from the 1 CAD comd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Flight plan filing exception

A

a. VFR flights within 25 miles radius of aerodrome of departure
b. formation flight for which the formation leader has filed a flight plan
c. operational flights or practice operational flights under close control
d. where comms facilities are inadequate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fuel requirements
VFR
IFR w/ alternate
IFR no alternate

A

VFR: fly to the destination and for 45 minutes thereafter, at normal cruising consumption

IFR w/ alternate: fly to the destination, fly to alternate, hold for 45 minutes, complete an approach

IFR no alternate: fly to the destination, hold for 45 minute, complete an approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cannot fly more than 25 miles from aerodrome, under IFR and at night if not equipped with

A

Serviceable magnetic compass and a serviceable independent heading reference system

All aircraft shall have an ELT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fixed wing shall not be flown under 1000 ft AGL or water except when

A

a. T/O, landing, authorized approach
b. Low flying has been authorized for prescribed low flying areas
c. Required weather deteriorating to below minimum conditions on a VFR flight (1500, 3 miles) in order to maintain vertical separation
d. SVFR is authorized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An aircraft shall not be flown over an aerodrome below:

A

2000 feet AGL or 1000 feet above highest published circuit height, whichever is higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When low flying is authorized: shall not be flown lower than

A

50 feet over all obstacles that are within 200 feet of the track

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pilot shall maintain listening watch on:

A

radio frequencies designated for control and monitor 243.0MHz or 121.5MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Speed limitations
Controlled aerodrome
Below 10 000 feet

A

controlled aerodrome: max 200kt below 3000 AGL within 10 nm

Below 10 000feet: max 250kt outside military controlled airspace unless AOI or requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Visual signals to AC in flight

A

Steady green: clear to land
Steady red: give way to other aircraft and keep circling
Green flashes: return for landing
Red Flashes: aerodrome unsafe, do not land
Firing or red flares: do not land for the time being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Visual signals to AC on ground

A

Steady green: cleared for T/O
Steady Red: stop
Green flashes: cleared to taxi
Red flashes: taxi clear of the landing area in use
Flashing white: return to starting point on the aerodrome
Blinking runway lights: taxi clear of the runway immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fur/Poultry farms

A

Feb-May (4nm, 4000 AGL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Forest fires

A

5nm, 3000ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fuel jettisoning

A

5000 ft AGL as a minimum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

VFR OTT
Minimum
Weather at destination (TAF and GFA)

A

a. 1000 feet above and below any clouds
b. Shall maintain 5 miles visibility
c. minimum distance between clouds layers shall be 5000 feet

Weather at destination based on valid TAF shall not have a ceiling below 4000 feet above planed cruising altitude and visibility of 3 miles

a. TAF: 1 hr before and 2 hr after ETA
b. GFA: 1 hr before and 3 hr after ETA

18
Q

VFR minimum weather limits

min vertical distance from cloud
min horizontal distance from cloud
Min height above ground or water

A

1500ft ceiling
3 miles of visibility

min vertical distance from cloud = 500 feet
min horizontal distance from cloud: 1 mile
Min height above ground or water = 1000 ft

19
Q

Minimum visibility for SVFR

A

Ground visibility 1 mile

must remain clear of cloud and within sight of the surface at all time. Minimum height 500 ft above ground

20
Q

Minimum IFR altitudes

A

Outside designated mountainous region: at least 1000ft above all obstacles within 5 miles of track

Within designated mountainous region: at least 2000ft above all obstacles within 5 miles of trac

21
Q

Application of BECMG, TEMPO, PROB

A

BECMG: wx gets better at the end, Wx gets worse at the start of the BECMG period

TEMPO:
For destination: tempo period shall not be below the destination weather minima
For alternate: shall not be below the alternate minima requirements

PROB:
Destination: not below the weather minima
Alternate: shall not be below the published landing minima requirements for that aerodrome

22
Q

Take off minima

A

reported weather is equal or above the minimum prescribed by 1 CAD. In the absence of 1 CAD orders, take-off are not permitted unless the reported ceiling and visibility/RVR are equal to or above the lowest HAA/HAT and visibility for a usable published approach to a usable landing runway at the departure aerodrome.

23
Q

Requirement for no IFR alternate

A

Destination aerodrome weather limits, which do not require an alternate are the IFR flight of 3 hours or less, when the lowest ceiling and visibility forecast for the destination (duration + 1 hour after ETA) is at or above 3000ft and 3 miles vis

24
Q

Alternate weather requirements

A

Non precision
800, +300
2, +1

1x Precision on the serving landing runway
600, +300
2, +1

2x precision, each using separate precision approach facilities, and each providing straight in minima to separate suitable runways
400, +200
1, +1/2

25
Q

What if there is no published approach at alternate

A

forecast Wx for the ETA must permit a visual descent from the IFR minimum enroute altitude and a VFR approach/landing

26
Q

Alternate with no TAF

A

Lowest ceiling and visibility, based upon a GFA for the ETA must be 1000 feet above highest published HAA for the approach flown and visibility 3 miles

27
Q 
Cyclo
General, Spinal, Epidural
Local or regional anaesthetic
Immunization, smallpox revaccination
Routine desensitization injection (allergy)
Blood donation
Alcohol
Exposure to abnormal pressure
A

Cyclo = 24 hours
General, Spinal, Epidural = 7 days
Local or regional anaesthetic = 12 hours
Immunization, smallpox revaccination = 36 hours
Routine desensitization injection (allergy) = 24 hours
Blood donation = 72 hours
Alcohol = 12 hours before flight, 8 hours before duty
Exposure to abnormal pressure = 12 to 48 hours

28
Q

Take off alternate criteria

A

a. Aircraft can maintain the published climb gradient at the take off aerodrome with one engine out
b. Aerodrome is compatible with the aircraft type
c. Aerodrome forecast to be at or above alternate limits at ETA and for 1 hour thereafter
d. aerodrome is not more than 1 hours from the departure aerodrome at normal cruising speed with one engine (160kts)
f. take off alternate is indicated in the remarks column of the flight plan

Lowers the visibity:
1/4 sm or RVR 1200
When centre-line runway lighting is available on the take off runway, limits lowered to 1/8sm or RVR 600

29
Q

IFR requirements 13

A
  1. airspeed indicator
  2. Pressure sensitive altimeter
  3. Vertical speed indicator
  4. Mag compass or mag direction indicator that is independent of aircraft electrical system
  5. Independent heading reference system and indicator
  6. OAT sensor
  7. AHRS
  8. Turn and slip indicator
  9. Timepiece to all crew
  10. Instruments lighting
  11. External navigation light system
  12. 2 ways comms radios
  13. navaids equipement
30
Q

Category landing 3A, 3B, 3C

A

RVR700
RVR150
RVR0

31
Q

V1

V2

A

V1: decision speed: maximum speed at which a rejected takeoff can be initiated. Also the minimum speed at which a pilot can continue a T/O after an engine failure

V2: takeoff safety speed: minimum speed that needs to be maintained up to acceleration altitude, in the event of an engine failure after v1. Minimum climb gradient is achieved and the aircraft is controllable.

32
Q

Class A

A

Controlled high level airspace within which only IFR flight is permitted. ATC separation is provided to all aircraft.
SCA: 18000 to FL600 inclusive
NCA: FL230 to FL600 inclusive
ACA: FL270 to FL600 inclusive
Need a transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment

33
Q

Class B

A

Both IFR and VFR are permitted. All controlled low level airspace above 12500 or at and above MEA, whichever is higher, up to but not including 18000. ATC separation is provided to all aircraft
Control zones and associated terminal areas may also be classified as Class B
VFR need: 2 way radio, radio navigation capable of utilizing the navigation facilities, a transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
Aircraft is operated in VMC all the time. If cant be IMC: request clearance to stay VMC, request IFR clearance or request SVFR in control zone.p

34
Q

Class C

A

Controlled airspace within which both IFR and VFR flights are permitted, but VFR need a clearance to enter. ATC separation is provided to all IFR aircraft and, as necessary to resolve possible conflicts, between IFR and VFR aircraft
Becomes class E when ATC is not in operation
Need 2 way radio, a transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment.
May fly without equipment if flying in VMC and daylight with prior permission

35
Q

Class D

A

Controlled airspace within which both IFR and VFR flights are permitted, but VFR flights must establish 2 way communication with the appropriate ATC agency prior to entering the airspace. ATC separation is provided only to IFR.
Becomes class E when ATC is not in operation
VFR need: 2 way comms, transponder where required, a transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
May fly without equipment if flying in VMC and daylight with prior permission

36
Q

Class E

A 
All high level controlled airspace above FL600. Also low level airways, low level fixed RNAV routes, control area extensions, transition areas or control zones established without an operating control tower may be classified class E airspace.
Require transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
37
Q

Class F

A

Specified dimensions. May be restricted airspace or advisory, military operations areas or danger areas, and can be controlled airspace, uncontrolled airspace, or a combination of both
Danger is over international waters

38
Q

Class G

A

IFR and VFR are not subject to control. not designated as ABCDEF

39
Q

Low level airways

A

2200AGL up to not including 18000.

40
Q

100 foot ceiling

A

200 to 220 use the nearer 200

221 and more use 300

41
Q

Diversion

A

1 Inform the crew
2 DR 12 mins and extract position
3 Suitability of AD
4 Weather at new destination and alternate
- Alternate weather from GFA: 1000 feet above highest published HAA and visibility of 3 miles
5 Rough heading and distance from DR position
6 Fuel calculation
7 Recommend to pilot if diversion is possible
8 Request AC obtain ATC clearance
9 Pass rough heading to destination
10 After wings level, mark position
11 Steering check then plot track on map
12 Advise Pipeline
13 Maintain system checks
14 Fuel monitoring should be updated

Etude vol (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions