Air Law Flashcards
Air Law Exam
1
Q
With respect to airspace classification requirements, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class E airspace below FL100?
A
Nothing
2
Q
An important document concerning Take-off, Climb and Landing performance, printed on pink paper, is an example of:
A
an aeronautical information circular (AIC)
3
Q
Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A
inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a ‘competent observer’.
4
Q
With reference to search and rescue (SAR) operations, the letter ‘V’ laid out on the ground by survivors means:
A
Require assistance.
5
Q
After completing your PPL (A) you wish to gain a multi-engine piston landplane rating. How many hours of Pilot in Command experience must you have before commencing training?
A
70 hours
6
Q
You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 75 ft. The QNH you have been given is 1017 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A
1015
7
Q
Special VFR is a concession that:
A
facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather and is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit.
8
Q
A weight schedule, prepared as part of a previous Certificate of Airworthiness has now been superceded by a new weight schedule. For how long must this old schedule be kept?
A
6 months
9
Q
How far out is long final?
A
between 4 to 8 miles from runway threshold.
10
Q
A white dumb-bell displayed on the signals square indicates that:
A
aircraft movement confined to hard surfaces.
11
Q
In the absence of any special exemption, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class D airspace below FL 100?
A
VHF-COM
12
Q
What is the width of a MATZ ‘stub’?
A
4nm
13
Q
An aircraft flying inside a control zone at night is required to operate under:
A
IFR unless it is flying on a SVFR flight
14
Q
According to the Rules of the Air, an anti-collision light fitted to an aircraft means:
A
A flashing red or white light.
15
Q
Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A
inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a ‘competent observer’
16
Q
Subject to certain requirements and restrictions, the holder of a PPL(A) licence is able to engage in aerial work as pilot in command in the UK. Which of the following activities may be undertaken?
A
glider towing and the dropping of parachutists
17
Q
Entries in a personal flying logbook must be made in:
A
ink or indelible pencil.
18
Q
What is the width of a MATZ ‘stub’?
A
4nm
19
Q
You see a red navigation light out to your right whilst flying at night, on a constant relative bearing. Which of the following is correct?
A
There is risk of collision
20
Q
Effective 15th March 2007, Class C airspace is designated in the UK:
A
above FL195
21
Q
According to the Chicago Convention, contracting State authorities have the right to search the aircraft of another State:
A
without unreasonable delay
22
Q
You are planning to fly into a high altitude aerodrome, where it is normal practice to use QNH for the circuit and approach. Why might this be?
A
You are planning to fly into a high altitude aerodrome, where it is normal practice to use QNH for the circuit and approach. Why might this be?
Altermeter cannot display
23
Q
The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A
lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region.
24
Q
Special VFR is a concession that:
A
facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather and is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit.
25
The QFE for the aerodrome is currently 1010 hectopascals. The QNH you have been given is 1013 hectopascals. Approximately what would you expect the aerodrome elevation to be?
90ft
26
In level flight above the transition altitude (usually 3000ft), what altimeter setting should be used by pilots flying IFR?
1013HPa
27
When overtaking another aircraft in flight, you should:
pass to the right of the other aircraft.
28
From 8th April 2012, what sort of medical are EASA private pilots required to have?
A Class 2 medical under Part-MED
29
Air Traffic Controllers may close a licensed aerodrome in certain conditions. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
ATC may close the aerodrome if, in their opinion, weather conditions have significantly deteriorated.
30
What are the vertical dimensions of a MATZ stub?
From 1000 ft to 3000 ft above aerodrome level.
31
Lighting on a ballon?
Carry a steady red light.
32
Lighting on airships?
white light in all directions.
33
Open air gathering?
not below 1000ft or within 1000m
34
Simulated instrument flight?
must have a safety pilot who can see.
35
Practice Instrument approaches?
inform ATC and carry a observer
36
Emergency frequency?
121.5
37
Avgas marked in
Red
38
You are flying at night, and see a single fixed white light coming closer. What are you approaching?
Another aircraft heading roughly the same way as you
39
A Certificate of Airworthiness issued by one contracting State will be recognized as valid by another contracting State, providing:
that the requirements for certificate issue were to an accepted standard.
40
In which classes of airspace would an IFR flight be separated from other IFR flights?
Class A, C, D, and E
41
Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, who has the duty to ensure that aircraft in flight comply with the rules and regulations?
The State of registry of the aircraft and any State entered by the aircraft
42
red flashing like from the ground?
Military airport
43
When approaching to land at an aerodrome below a TMA or CTA, what altimeter setting should be used when flying below the transition altitude to avoid entering controlled airspace?
Aerodrome QNH
44
According to ICAO Annex 11 (Air Traffic Services), an Alerting Service should be provided:
to all aircraft provided with an Air Traffic Control Service.
45
To fly an aircraft on an international flight, the pilot must hold a licence issued or rendered valid by:
the State in which the aircraft is registered.
46
In order to revalidate a single engine piston class rating by experience, within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating a holder of a PPL(A) licence is required to undertake a training flight with an instructor and complete:
12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 12 take-offs and landings.
47
When flying more than 50nm from land, ICAO Annex 6 states that single engined aircraft shall be equipped with:
lifejackets
48
What in-flight visibility are you required to have in order to fly Special VFR (SVFR) in a control zone as a basic PPL (A)?
10km
49
What documentation is required in order to tow a glider?
The Certificate of Airworthiness must include an express provision for this purpose.
50
Which of the following items would not be required for a single engine, fixed gear, fixed propeller aircraft?
Propeller logbook
51
What is 'clutch QFE'?
The lowest value QFE in a combined MATZ (CMATZ)
52
In which classes of airspace would an IFR flight be separated from other VFR flights?
Class C
53
You have been intercepted and have been requested to land at an aerodrome you consider inadequate for your aircraft. How do you signal to the intercepting aircraft that you cannot land here?
Overfly the runway and then circle the aerodrome maintaining a height between 1000 and 2000 ft
54
A pilot is following the coastline and transiting controlled airspace in accordance with ATC instructions. Which of the following statements is correct?
The pilot is not required to keep the coastline on any particular side.
55
At 4000 ft, what vertical and horizontal separation from cloud are you required to maintain? (You are a basic PPL, flying VFR).
1000 ft vertical separation, 1500 m horizontal separation
56
You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on mauve paper. What subject do they concern?
UK Airspace Restrictions
57
You leave the dentist at 0900 having had a tooth filling under a local anaesthetic. Assuming that you feel fine, how soon can you fly?
2100 the same day (12 hours)
58
Identify the type of airspace from the following description: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are subject to ATC service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR and VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flights.
Class C
59
In accordance with ICAO Annex 7, the Certificate of Registration:
must be carried on international flights, and may be carried on domestic flights.
60
On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
White
61
You are intending to fly VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule on a magnetic track of 195. Which of the following is your correct flight level?
FL45
62
In the AIP, where would you find information on specific aerodromes?
AD
63
You are flying in a control zone under Special VFR (SVFR). Who is responsible for maintaining terrain clearance?
The pilot in command.
64
When overtaking another aircraft at night, the manoeuvre is considered complete when:
the overtaking aircraft is passed and clear.
65
Non-urgent info should be printed on which color?
Pink AICs
66
After taking small amounts of alcohol no fly for
8 hours
67
How many mins to allow large aircraft before taking off?
3 mins for half
| 2 mins for whole runway
68
wake turbulance seperation?
8nm 4 mins
69
Aircraft intending to drop articles outside of an aerodrome's ATZ are:
required to obtain an aerial application certificate
70
An Air Traffic Controller can close a licensed aerodrome if:
essential facilities have failed
71
Occasionally at night you will see an aerodrome beacon flashing white and green alternately. What does this mean?
It indicates the location of the aerodrome
72
Having just landed at a grass airfield with no Air Traffic Control (ATC), on which side of the landing area would you normally expect to turn off?
The left
73
You are planning to take a friend for a flight, which will land 40 minutes after sunset. How many take-offs and landings must you have completed (as sole manipulator of the controls) in the last 90 days prior to this flight?
Three (of which one must have been at night)
74
In order to revalidate a single engine piston class rating by experience, within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating a holder of a PPL(A) licence is required to complete a minimum number of flying hours, take-offs and landings. Within this period, they must also complete a:
one hour training flight with an instructor
75
Which of the following classifications of airspace concern 'Advisory Routes'?
F
76
According to the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015, an anti-collision light fitted to an aircraft means:
A flashing red or white light
77
Your aerodrome elevation is 73 ft, and the QFE you have just been given is 1009 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QNH to be?
1011 hectopascals
78
An aircraft identification plate must:
be made of fireproof material and located near to the main entrance
79
Identify the type of airspace from the following description: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. IFR flights are subject to ATC service and are separated from other IFR flights. VFR flights are not provided with separation.
Class E
80
A Mayday call should initially be addressed to:
the Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU) you are in current contact with
81
An aircraft is defined as being in 'flight' from:
when it first moves to when it comes to rest after the flight
82
What rules apply to practice circuits flown as part of flying training conducted at an unlicensed aerodrome in an aircraft under 2730 kg?
Practice circuits are allowed providing the aerodrome has adequate facilities
83
You are not permitted to act as a member of crew on an aircraft if:
your ability to perform the duties has been affected by alcohol
84
How long does an EASA Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) normally last for in the UK?
Indefinitely
85
Student pilots flying solo without a RT licence are:
permitted to use the radio as required
86
Prior to departing the aerodrome for a cross country navigation exercise, you should check the altimeter by setting
aerodrome QNH and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
87
If you are flying VFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying due south?
Even thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL45, FL65)
88
You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on yellow paper. What subject do they concern?
Operational matters including ATS facilities and requirements
89
What altitude is the transition altitude over most of the UK set at?
3000 ft
90
After completing your PPL (A) you wish to gain a multi-engine piston landplane rating. How many hours of Pilot in Command experience must you have before commencing training?
70 hours
91
At what distance should you call 'final' on approach to a landing?
4 nautical miles or less
92
A pilot is permitted to carry out certain repairs to aircraft operated in the 'Private' category. Which of the following repair is NOT permitted by the regulations?
replacement of a combined COM/NAV unit
93
For how long are you required to keep a logbook?
Two years after the date of the last entry
94
You have been intercepted and have been requested to land at an aerodrome you consider inadequate for your aircraft. How do you signal to the intercepting aircraft that you cannot land here?
Overfly the runway and then circle the aerodrome maintaining a height between 1000 and 2000 ft
95
You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on yellow paper. What subject do they concern?
Operational matters including ATS facilities and requirements
96
You see a single fixed red light ahead of you during a night flight. Assuming the light is correctly displayed, what could this be?
It might be a glider or a free balloon
97
The white navigation light of a fixed wing powered aircraft is visible at the rear:
70 degrees either side of the centreline
98
A Certificate of Maintenance Review is required for aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness in the:
aerial work and transport categories
99
You see another aircraft approaching on a converging course on your starboard side. Who has priority?
The other aircraft
100
A green flashing two letter morse code group at an aerodrome, repeated every 12 seconds:
indicates the location and identifies the civilian aerodrome
101
In Class G airspace, which of the following most accurately describes your weather minima for VFR flight, if you are at an altitude of 2500 ft, and 100 kts?
You must remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
102
Whilst overflying a remote area you notice what appears to be aircraft wreckage in a wooded area. In a small clearing you see the a ground symbol of a V: what does this signal indicate?
Assistance is required
103
For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are less than 40 years old at the time of the medical?
60 months or your 42nd birthday, whichever is sooner
104
In addition to the lights displayed by a powered aircraft at night, an airship is additionally required to show:
a single fixed white nose light visible 110 degrees either side of dead ahead
105
When is a transponder required for flight outside controlled airspace?
When you are at FL100 or above
106
What altitude is the transition altitude over most of the UK set at?
3000 ft
107
Which of the following pilot maintenance procedures is NOT permitted under the Air Navigation (General) Regulations?
replacement of a VOR receiver
108
A temporary controlled airway is established between two aerodromes for the purpose of a Royal flight. This is normally established ____ minutes before ETD at the departure airfield until ____ minutes after ETA at the destination.
15, 30
109
What is a NOTAMN?
A NOTAM that has new information
110
What is the name given to the area of an aerodrome used for purposes such as unloading / loading of aircraft and operations other than flight operations?
The apron
111
In accordance with ICAO Annex 7, the Certificate of Registration:
must be carried on international flights, and may be carried on domestic flights
112
Ignoring any stubs, what is the diameter of a MATZ?
10 nautical miles
113
You passed your SEP class rating skill test on the 12th February 2003. If you did nothing to revalidate it, the last day you would be able to fly would be:
11th February 2005 (2 years)
114
A pilot is (correctly) transmitting the transponder code 0033. The pilot is transmitting:
the special code to indicate that parachute operations are under way
115
What is an AIAA?
An Area of Intense Air Activity
116
You have aerodrome QNH set in the altimeter subscale. On the ground the altimeter should read:
the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level
117
Effective 15th March 2007, Class C airspace is designated in the UK:
above FL195
118
You see a single fixed red light ahead of you during a night flight. Assuming the light is correctly displayed, what could this be?
it might be a glider or a free balloon
119
You are planning to fly into a high altitude aerodrome, where it is normal practice to use QNH for the circuit and approach. Why might this be?
Because the altimeter cannot display the very low QFE setting
120
With respect to airspace classification requirements, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class E airspace below FL100?
Nothing
121
Prior to departing the aerodrome for a cross country navigation exercise, you should check the altimeter by setting:
aerodrome QNH and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
122
According to the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015, an anti-collision light fitted to an aircraft means:
A flashing red or white light
123
What in-flight visibility are you required to have in order to fly Special VFR (SVFR) in a control zone as a basic PPL (A)?
1500 m
124
An aeronautical identification beacon at a military aerodrome will show:
a two letter morse group signal in red
125
What is the width of a MATZ 'stub'?
4 nm
126
If you are flying IFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying westbound?
Even thousands of feet (i.e. FL40, FL60)
127
You are planning a night flight, with passengers. How many take-offs and landings at night must you have completed in the last 90 days?
One
128
How long does an EASA Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) normally last for in the UK?
Indefinitely
129
In which classes of airspace would a VFR flight be separated from IFR flights?
Class C
130
What is 'clutch QFE'?
The lowest value QFE in a combined MATZ (CMATZ)
131
On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
White
132
An obstacle which is 456 feet above ground level will:
be listed in the AIP and may be lit at night
133
An intercepting aircraft indicates that you are to follow. How do you signal that you have understood and will comply?
Rock your wings and follow the other aircraft
134
In order to revalidate a single engine piston class rating by experience, within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating a holder of a PPL(A) licence is required to undertake a training flight with an instructor and complete:
12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 12 take-offs and landings
135
You wish to simulate instrument flight conditions for training purposes. Which of the following statements is correct?
A safety pilot is required and a third person (competent observer) may also be required
136
You see another aircraft approaching on a converging course on your starboard side. Who has priority?
The other aircraft
137
A white dumb-bell displayed on the signals square indicates that:
aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only
138
In the AIP, where would you find information on specific aerodromes?
AD (Aerodromes!)
139
Student pilots flying solo without a RT licence are:
permitted to use the radio as required
140
Effective 15th March 2007, Class C airspace is designated in the UK:
above FL195
141
What minimum height are you required to maintain when overflying an open-air assembly of persons?
1000 ft
142
A pilot is (correctly) transmitting the transponder code 3612. The pilot is transmitting:
an ATC assigned 'squawk' code
143
A person on the ground is struck by an object that has become detached from a aircraft in flight. (The aircraft's flight is not impeded.) This occurrence is defined by ICAO as:
an aircraft accident
144
You are on a converging course with another aircraft, but you have the right of way. What should you do?
Maintain course and speed and monitor the situation
145
What is the width of a MATZ 'stub'?
4 nm
146
The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
147
Which of the following need NOT be recorded in your personal flying logbook?
Flights in which you were 'supernumerary'
148
n which of the following types of airspace is contact with ATC optional for a VFR flight?
Class E, F, and G
149
Having just landed at a grass airfield with no Air Traffic Control (ATC), on which side of the landing area would you normally expect to turn off?
The left
150
Whilst en route within the UK, what would be the most suitable altimeter setting for a flight at 2300 ft?
Regional Pressure Setting
151
Which of the following classifications of airspace concern 'Advisory Routes'?
F
152
You are approaching an aerodrome at an altitude of 2300 ft, with QNH 1022 hectopascals set. You set 1015 hectopascals QFE for landing. What will your altimeter read now?
2090 feet
153
You are intending to fly VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule and anticipate that your magnetic track will be 060. The QNH is 1023 hPa. Which of the following is your lowest available flight level?
FL 35
154
You are reviewing an Air Information Circular (AIC) concerning safety related topics. On what colour paper is this printed?
Pink
155
When flying more than 50nm from land, ICAO Annex 6 states that single engined aircraft shall be equipped with:
lifejackets
156
A pilot is approaching to land on the runway of an aerodrome that does not have an air traffic control unit. There is an aircraft ahead which has just landed. According to Rule 10 of The Rules of the Air Regulations 2015, the pilot is only permitted to land if:
the runway is clear of other aircraft
157
You fall ill, and are unable to act as Pilot in Command. After what period must the CAA be advised?
21 days
158
With reference to search and rescue (SAR) operations, the letter 'X' laid out on the ground by survivors means:
Require medical assistance
159
A pilot is following the coastline and transiting controlled airspace in accordance with ATC instructions. Which of the following statements is correct?
The pilot is not required to keep the coastline on any particular side
160
How often are aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) published?
Monthly
161
When overtaking another aircraft on the ground in the UK, you should:
pass either side as required, maintaining adequate separation
162
In which section of the AIP would you find information relating to airspace classifications?
ENR
163
For the award of an EASA Private Pilot's Licence, how many hours must be flown dual?
25 hours
164
You are overflying a congested area. Which of the following best describes your minimum height requirement?
You must be at least 1000 ft above the area
165
he QFE for the aerodrome is currently 985 hectopascals. The QNH you have been given is 1031 hectopascals. Approximately what would you expect the aerodrome elevation to be?
1380 ft
QFE is 46 hectopascals lower
1 hectopascal = 30 ft
30 * 46 = 1380
166
The altimeter setting QNH describes your:
altitude above mean sea level
167
If you are flying VFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying due south?
Even thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL45, FL65)
168
What is the name given to the area of an aerodrome used for purposes such as unloading / loading of aircraft and operations other than flight operations?
The apron
169
Pilots simulating instrument flying conditions in order to practise instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
carry a safety pilot who must occupy a fully functioning control seat
170
What in-flight visibility are you required to have in order to fly Special VFR (SVFR) in a control zone as a basic PPL (A)?
1500 m
171
You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 74 ft. The QNH you have been given is 995 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
993 hectopascals
74ft / 30 = 2 hectopascals
995 - 2 = 993
172
You are flying at night, and see a single fixed white light coming closer. What are you approaching?
Another aircraft heading roughly the same way as you
173
How soon after a near miss ('AirProx') should the incident be reported in writing using the CAA form numbered 1094?
Within 7 days
174
With respect to airspace classification requirements, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class E airspace below FL100?
Nothing
175
How old is the pilot with a freshly issued EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid for 2 years likely to be?
41
Age at time of medical Validity period
Under 40 5 years
Over 40 but under 50 2 years
Over 50 1 year
176
According to the provisions of the Chicago Convention, a foreign aircraft flying in a State shall abide by:
the regulations of the State in which it is flying
177
What does a red square with a single yellow diagonal stripe on the signals area indicate?
The state of the manoevering area is poor
178
Ignoring any stubs, what is the diameter of a MATZ?
10 nautical miles
179
You are intending to fly VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule and anticipate that your magnetic track will be 060. The QNH is 1023 hPa. Which of the following is your lowest available flight level?
FL 35
180
Which of the following altimeter settings expresses your vertical position above mean sea level?
QNH
181
In which classes of airspace would an IFR flight be separated from other IFR flights?
Class A, C, D, and E
182
Is flying training permitted at unlicensed aerodromes?
Yes, providing the aircraft has a maximum total weight authorised of no more than 2730 kg
183
What is the width of a MATZ 'stub'?
4 nm
184
Which of the following statements concerning altimeters is true?
In air colder than ISA, an altimeter will over-read the true altitude
185
Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, who has the duty to ensure that aircraft in flight comply with the rules and regulations?
The State of registry of the aircraft and any State entered by the aircraft
186
The pilot in command is the:
person charged with the safe conduct of a flight
187
In which classes of airspace would an IFR flight be separated from other VFR flights?
```
Class C
(VFR cannot enter class A)
```
188
Whilst in level flight, you see another aircraft on your port wing at the same altitude and on a converging course. Who has priority, and what should you do?
You have priority - you should maintain your course and speed
(You give way to the right)
189
With respect to the Chicago Convention, regulations relating to entry and departure of international air traffic are those of the:
contracting State in question
190
A weight schedule, prepared as part of a previous Certificate of Airworthiness has now been superceded by a new weight schedule. For how long must this old schedule be kept?
6 months
191
An Air / Ground station should use the callsign suffix:
Radio
192
According to the Air Navigation Order, which of the following would NOT be classified as a 'flying machine'?
A power driven airship
193
What does a white double cross indicate, when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
The aerodrome is being used by sailplanes
194
An alerting service is provided in association with which of the following flight information services?
Basic, Traffic, Deconfliction, Procedural
195
The altimeter setting QFE describes your:
height above aerodrome level
196
A pilot is (correctly) transmitting the transponder code 0033. The pilot is transmitting:
the special code to indicate that parachute operations are under way
197
Pilots simulating instrument flying conditions in order to practise instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
carry a safety pilot who must occupy a fully functioning control seat
If you are flying in simulated instrument flying conditions then SERA 3220 is triggered. In this situation, SERA 3220 specifies the requirement for:
fully functioning dual controls; and
a safety pilot in a control seat.
If the safety pilots view is not adequate, then a competent observer is ALSO required.
Note that the safety pilot must be a qualified pilot.
198
Unless otherwise indicated, circuits are normally flown in a:
left hand pattern
199
The altimeter setting QFE describes your:
height above aerodrome level
200
You are planning to fly into a high altitude aerodrome, where it is normal practice to use QNH for the circuit and approach. Why might this be?
Because the altimeter cannot display the very low QFE setting
201
In which classes of airspace is a VFR pilot required to obtain Air Traffic Control (ATC) clearances?
Classes C to D
202
Prior to departing the aerodrome for a cross country navigation exercise, you should check the altimeter by setting:
aerodrome QNH and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
203
Having just landed at a grass airfield with no Air Traffic Control (ATC), on which side of the landing area would you normally expect to turn off?
The left
204
After completing your PPL (A) you wish to gain a multi-engine piston landplane rating. How many hours of Pilot in Command experience must you have before commencing training?
70 hours
205
Ignoring any stubs, what is the diameter of a MATZ?
10 nautical miles
206
What is a TNW bulletin?
A temporary navigation warning
207
What in-flight visibility are you required to have in order to fly Special VFR (SVFR) in a control zone as a basic PPL (A)?
1500 m
208
You are approaching an aerodrome at an altitude of 1110 ft, with QNH 1024 hectopascals set. You set 1022 hectopascals QFE for landing. What will your altimeter read now?
1050 feet
209
Which of the following pilot maintenance procedures is permitted under the Air Navigation (General) Regulations for aircraft operated in the 'Private' category?
replacement of landing gear tyres and safety belts or safety harnesses
210
A PPL holder owning or operating an aircraft, the Maximum Take-Off Mass of which does not exceed 2,730 kg, is permitted, under certain circumstances, to carry out repairs or make replacements to his aircraft. Such permission includes the replacement of:
tyres on the landing gear and unserviceable sparking plugs.
211
Supply the missing word. For the purposes of the Chicago Convention of 1944, the airspace above the territory of a State shall be deemed to be under that State’s ____ .
Sovereignty.
212
What major advance in Air Transport during WWII led to the calling of the Chicago Convention in 1944?
The ability of transport aircraft to fly worldwide over the territory of many different states
213
Which right is conferred on contracting states by Article 16 of the ICAO Convention?
The right to search, without unreasonable delay, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory
214
No aircraft or personnel whose certification and/or licences have been endorsed may participate in international navigation
Except with the permission of the State whose territory is entered
215
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Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO member state?
Select one:
a. Flight crew birth certificates.
b. Certificate of Airworthiness.
c. Certificate of Registration.
d. Flight crew licences.
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Flight crew birth certificates.
216
For a flight arriving in the UK at a non-customs aerodrome, which of the following does not need to be notified in advance to the local customs contact point?
Amount of fuel on board the aircraft.
217
The definition “flying machine” may refer to:
Any heavier-than-air power-driven aircraft
218
The Freedoms of the Air permit transit of the airspace of contracting States by
both scheduled and non-scheduled commercial flights.
219
The Rules of the Air applicable to an aircraft registered in one state flying over another state shall be
Those of the state whose airspace is entered and transited
220
Which of a, b, c and d provides the correct conclusion to the following statement? If a PPL holder receives a Special VFR clearance to enter a control zone (CTR) but, before entering the CTR, finds that he can no longer receive or transmit RT messages, he must:
Select one:
a. Carry on into the CTR, complying with the last clearance received while transmitting blind.
b. Remain clear of the CTR.
c. Carry on into the CTR and await light signals for clearance to land.
d. Carry on into the CTR via the assigned Visual Reference Point, complying with the last clearance received.
b. Remain clear of the CTR.
221
Which UK document publishes details of ICAO procedures and any UK differences from ICAO standards?
The UK Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP), otherwise known as the ‘Air Pilot’.
222
What service is provided in the United Kingdom by a Flight Information Service?
Information and warnings about meteorological conditions, changes of serviceability in navigational and approach aids, conditions of aerodrome facilities, and other safety information
223
How often are Aeronautical Information Circulars published?
Monthly
224
What colour are Air Information Circulars relating to matters of special importance to air safety?
Pink
225
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. In the United Kingdom, Military Air Traffic Zones (MATZ) exist around some military airfields, from the surface to 5000 feet above aerodrome level, covering an area of radius 10 nautical miles centred on mid point of longest runway, with a stub, or stubs, from 2000 feet to 5000 feet above aerodrome level, aligned along the extended centre line of the main instrument runway, 5 nautical miles wide, extending out 15 nautical miles from the runway midpoint.
b. In the United Kingdom, Military Air Traffic Zones (MATZ) exist around some military airfields, from the surface to 3000 feet above aerodrome level, covering an area of radius 5 nautical miles centred on mid point of longest runway, with a stub, or stubs, from 1000 feet to 3000 feet above aerodrome level, aligned along the extended centre line of the main instrument runway, 8 nautical miles wide, extending out 15 nautical miles from the runway midpoint.
c. In the United Kingdom, Military Air Traffic Zones (MATZ) exist around some military airfields, from the surface to 4000 feet above aerodrome level, covering an area of radius 5 nautical miles centred on mid point of longest runway, with a stub, or stubs, from 2000 feet to 4000 feet above aerodrome level, aligned along the extended centre line of the main instrument runway, 4 nautical miles wide, extending out 10 nautical miles from the runway midpoint.
d. In the United Kingdom, Military Air Traffic Zones (MATZ) exist around some military airfields, from the surface to 3000 feet above aerodrome level, covering an area of radius 5 nautical miles centred on mid point of longest runway, with a stub, or stubs, from 1000 feet to 3000 feet above aerodrome level, aligned along the extended centre line of the main instrument runway, 4 nautical miles wide, extending out 10 nautical miles from the runway midpoint.
d. In the United Kingdom, Military Air Traffic Zones (MATZ) exist around some military airfields, from the surface to 3000 feet above aerodrome level, covering an area of radius 5 nautical miles centred on mid point of longest runway, with a stub, or stubs, from 1000 feet to 3000 feet above aerodrome level, aligned along the extended centre line of the main instrument runway, 4 nautical miles wide, extending out 10 nautical miles from the runway midpoint.
226
Which of a, b, c and d provides the most correct conclusion to the following statement?
In the United Kingdom, a private pilot may expect to receive a Radio Information Service from a LARS controller only:
Select one:
a. If accompanied by a pilot holding an Instrument Rating or IMC Rating.
b. If a Radar Advisory Service is not available.
c. While remaining within radar range of the radar transmitter/receiver.
d. If he is the holder of an Instrument Rating or IMC Rating.
c. While remaining within radar range of the radar transmitter/receiver.
227
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. If the main runway is less than 1850 m the Aerodrome Traffic Zone extends to 3000 ft above the aerodrome and encompasses an area, centred on the main runway, whose radius in 2.5 nms provided that the zone extends beyond 1.5 nms from the end of the runway.
b. If the main runway is less than 1850 m the Aerodrome Traffic Zone extends to 2000 ft above the aerodrome and encompasses an area, centred on the main runway, whose radius in 2 nms provided that the zone extends beyond 1.5 nms from the end of the runway.
c. If the main runway is more than 2000 m the Aerodrome Traffic Zone extends to 2000 ft above the aerodrome and encompasses an area, centred on the main runway, whose radius in 2 nms provided that the zone extends beyond 1.5 nms from the end of the runway.
d. If the main runway is more than 1850 m the Aerodrome Traffic Zone extends to 2000 ft above the aerodrome and encompasses an area, centred on the main runway, whose radius in 2 nms provided that the zone extends beyond 2 nms from the end of the runway.
b. If the main runway is less than 1850 m the Aerodrome Traffic Zone extends to 2000 ft above the aerodrome and encompasses an area, centred on the main runway, whose radius in 2 nms provided that the zone extends beyond 1.5 nms from the end of the runway.
228
Where would a pilot find details of differences between ICAO standards and recommended practices and procedures, on the one hand, and UK regulations, on the other?
The UK AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication, often referred to as the Air Pilot)
229
What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?
7700
230
You are on final approach and you see a steady red light from ATC. This means:
Do not land. Airfield closed
231
What colour are runway markings
White
232
What is the purpose of the aiming point marking
To make the optimum touchdown point easier to see in poor visibility.
233
What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft on the ground?
Clear to take off.
234
What is the meaning of a flashing white light from ATC to an aircraft on the ground?
Return to starting point on the aerodrome
235
Fixed signs on an aerodrome whose indication is mandatory for pilots have the following common characteristic:
They have white inscriptions on a red background
236
What is the meaning of a steady red light from ATC to an aircraft on the ground
Stop
237
What is the meaning of a flashing green light from ATC to an aircraft on the ground
Clear to move or taxi on the manoeuvring area
238
What is the meaning of a flashing red light from ATC to an aircraft in the air
Do not land at this airfield. The airfield is unavailable for landing.
239
In the United Kingdom an aircraft taxying on an aerodrome manoeuvering area must give way to:
A vehicle towing an aircraft
240
A PPL pilot who is flying in accordance with SVFR must have the following minima:
A minimum visibility of 10 kms or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
241
What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above an airfield datum level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale?
Height
242
An aeroplane has a maximum take-off mass of 136,000 kg. What is its wake turbulence category?
Heavy
243
In what circumstances should a pilot report a Special Air Observation to an Air Traffic Service?
When any severe weather phenomena have been encountered, such as turbulence, wind-shear or icing
244
You are intending to fly a local general handling sortie in the immediate vicinity of your home aerodrome, taking off and landing at that aerodrome. What is the most practical pressure value to set on the altimeter subscale?
The aerodrome QFE
245
What unit of atmospheric pressure is normally used in the United Kingdom by Air Traffic Service Units to pass altimeter settings to pilots, and which is numerically identical to the Hectopascal?
The Millibar
246
A full flight plan or an abbreviated flight plan, passed over the radio, is required when
b. The pilot is flying within controlled airspace in IMC or at night, except when flying SVFR.
c. The pilot is intending to fly in class A,B,C and D airspace.
d. The flight will cross an international FIR boundary.
247
What is the definition of “transition altitude”
The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as “altitude”.
248
A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircraft, departing from the same point on the runway. What period of separation is required?
2 minutes
249
A pilot intending to land at a civil aerodrome should initiate his descent to below transition level with the altimeter subscale set to:
Aerodrome QNH.
250
Prior to taxiing for take off aircraft will be passed the following information:
Runway in use; surface wind speed and direction; QNH, or, on request, QFE; current visibility if less than 10 kms; correct time.
251
What is the definition of “Alerting Service”?
A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and to assist such organisations as required
252
Who may not suspend VFR operations at an aerodrome on safety grounds?
The Approach Controller
253
Which of the following normally defines 'runway in use' on an uncontrolled airfield?
A runway into wind.
254
What are the three basic Air Traffic Services?
Air Traffic Control Service; Flight Information Service; Alerting Service
255
Who is responsible for ensuring that all relevant aircraft documentation is carried on an international flight?
The pilot in command
256
What category is entered on the Certificate of Airworthiness of a light aircraft that may be hired from a flying club by private pilots?
Transport Category (Passenger).
257
What is the meaning of ‘State of Registry’ as far as an aircraft is concerned?
The state in which an aircraft is currently registered and where that aircraft’s details, including details of its ownership, are entered on the state’s register.
258
What is wrong with this nationality and registration mark?
6TTTF8
I need more information. What is the nationality marking of the state of registration?
259
Complete the following statement. Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, if a contracting state issues a Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) in accordance with ICAO requirements and standards:
The C of A will be recognised as valid by another contracting state.
260
if a pilot holding a currently valid medical certificate receives an injury or is suffering from a medical condition which affects his ability to act as the crew member of an aircraft:
The medical certificate ceases to be valid.
261
There are three conditions that a holder of a JAA PPL (A) must fulfil before he/she may act as pilot in command, or as a co-pilot.
Holds a Type or Class rating pertinent to the aircraft to be flown.
Is not flying for remuneration.
Holds a valid medical certificate.
262
A pilot’s licence issued by one JAA member State may be converted to a licence of any other JAA member State ( the new member State), provided that:
The new member State is the licence holder’s normal State of residence or that full-time employment has been taken by the licence holder in that State
263
Application for the grant of a JAA PPL (A) licence must be made within ___ months of completing the theoretical knowledge examinations.
24
264
The holder of a JAA PPL(A) who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum of 3 take-offs and 3 landings within the preceding:
90 days
265
The departure and arrival time entered by a PPL holder in his flying log book is taken as follows:
The time the aircraft begins to move under its own power and the time it comes to rest following the last landing
266
How long is an Instrument Rating valid for?
12 months.
267
The skills test for a JAA PPL(A) must be taken within ________ of completing flying instruction.
6 months.
268
The privileges and conditions of the UK National Private Pilot’s Licence are contained in:
Schedule 8 of the Air Navigation Order.
269
If the holder of a pilot’s licence learns that he is to undergo surgery, what are his obligations in terms of informing the aviation medical authority?
He should contact his aviation medical authority without delay and seek their advice on his circumstances
